7.aiims dental 2004 may

8/10/2019 7.Aiims Dental 2004 May

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AIIMS (DENTAL) PREVIOUS YEARS SOLVED PAPERS 2004 (May)

HUMAN ANATOMY

1.

The mandibular nerve supplies all EXCEPT

A. Masseter

B. Lateral pterygoid

C. Buccinator

D.

Anterior Digastric

Answer: C. Buccinator

Reference:Grays Anatomy, 40/E, pp. 541-542

Explanation:

Mandibular nerve (third division of the

trigeminal nerve, V3) arises from the trigeminal

ganglion and, together with the motor root of

the trigeminal nerve, traverses the foramen

ovale and enters the infratemporal fossa (here

it can be "blocked" by passing a needle through

the mandibular notch and injecting a local

anesthetic). At the base of the skull, the

mandibular nerve is unites with motor root

and then divides into anterior and posterior

divisions.

Branches

1. Trunk of the mandibular nerve

i. A meningeal branch (nervus spinosus): this

accompanies the middle meningeal artery,

passes through foramen spinosum to

supply duramater of middle cranial fossa

ii. Nerve to the medial pterygoid: This also

supplies the tensor tympani and tensor

veli palatini by way of the otic ganglion

2. Anterior division of the mandibular nerve: (1

sensory and 3 motor branches)

i. Buccal nerve:it emerges between the heads

of the lateral pterygoid muscle anddescends to supply sensory fibers to the

skin and mucosa of the cheek, the gums,

and the first two molars and premolars

ii. Masseteric nerve: which traverses the

mandibular notch to supply the masseter),

iii. Deep temporal nerves: supplies the

temporalis),

iv. Nerve to the lateral pterygoid muscle

3. Posterior division of the mandibular nerve (chiefly

sensory

i. Auriculotemporal nerve: arises by two roots

that encircle the middle meningeal artery,

proceeds posterior ward deep to the neck

of the mandible and closely related to the

parotid gland and supplies it. It also supplies

temporomandibular joint and the scalp. The

auriculotemporal nerve receives

communications from the otic ganglion,

conveying secretory fibers from the

glossopharyngeal nerve to the parotid

gland.

ii. Lingual nerve: descends medial to the

lateral pterygoid muscle and is joined by

the chorda tympani (branch of the facial

nerve containing taste fibers). The lingual

nerve lies anterior to the inferior alveolar

nerve passes between the medial

pterygoid muscle and the ramus of the

mandible. It then lies under cover of the

oral mucosa, where it is directly related to

the third molar. It crosses the lateralsurface of the hyoglossus, passes deep to

the mylohyoid muscle, crosses the

submandibular duct, and curves upward

on the genioglossus. It gives several small

branches (e.g., to the submandibular

gland) and supplies sensory fibers to the

anterior tongue, gums, and first molar and

premolar.

iii. Inferior alveolar nerve:descends deep to the

lateral pterygoid muscle and then enters

the mandibular foramen and

canal. Superior to the mandibular foramen, the

inferior alveolar nerve can be "blocked" intra-

orally with a local anesthetic. Its branches

are,

Mylohyoid nerve: descends in a groove

on the ramus of the mandible and

supplies the mylohyoid muscle and

the anterior belly of the digastric

muscle

Inferior dental branches: supply the

lower teeth

Gingival branches:supply the gums

Mental nerve: emerges through the

mental foramen to supply skin over

the chin.

Incisive branch: the terminal branch,

supplies the canines and incisors

2.

All are branches of the posterior division of the

mandibular nerve EXCEPT

A.

Lingual nerveB. Inferior alveolar nerve

C.

Deep temporal nerve

D. Mylohyoid nerve


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Answer: C. Deep temporal nerve


Explanation:

Refer Explanation to Q. No. 1, May 2004

3.

Sphenoidal air sinus is supplied by which nerve

A. Posterior ethmoidal

B.

Posterior superior alveolar

C. Sphenoidal

D.

Infratemporal

Answer:A. Posterior ethmoidal


Explanation:


4.

The following features of the skull of a new born

are true EXCEPT

A.

Dipole are not formed

B. Styloid process has not fused with the rest of

the temporal bone

C.

Anterior fontanelle open

D.

Mastoid process is of adult size

Answer: D. Mastoid process is of adult size

Reference:Grays Anatomy, 40/E, p. 416

Explanation:


5.

Tongue develops from all of the following

EXCEPT

A. Tuberculum impar

B. Hypobranchial eminence

C.

Lingual swellings

D. Arytenoids swellings

Answer: D. Mastoid process is of adult size


Explanation:

Refer Explanation to Q. No. 2,May 2002

6.

All the following nerves are related to the

mandible EXCEPT

A. Lingual nerve

B.

Auriculotemporal nerveC. Chorda tympani

D. Mental nerve

Answer: C. Chorda tympani


Explanation:

Nerves related to mandible are,

1. Lingual nerve: related to the mandible

postero medial to 3rdmolar2. Auriculotemporal nerve: related posterior to

the neck of the mandible

3. Inferior alveolar nerve: related laterally to

ramus of mandible and passes through

inferior alveolar canal

4. Mylohyoid nerve: related to ramus of

mandible, passes through mylohyoid

groove

5. Masseteric nerve: related to the masseteric

notch

6.

Mental nerve: emerges from mental

foramen to supply skin covering chin

7.

All are structures lying deep to the hyoglossus

muscle EXCEPT

A.

Hypoglossal nerve

B. Lingual artery

C.

Stylohyoid muscle

D. Geniohyoid muscle

Answer:A. Hypoglossal nerve


Explanation:

Hyoglossus is one of the extrinsic muscle of the

tongue and key muscle of the submandibular

region because it presents important relations.

Hyoglossus is thin and quadrilateral muscle

arising from the whole length of the greater

cornu and the front of the body of the hyoid

bone. It passes vertically up to insert into theside of the tongue between styloglossus laterally

and the inferior longitudinal muscle medially.

Nerve supply:Hypoglossal nerve

Action:Depression of tongue


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Relations

Superficial: digastric tendon, stylohyoid,

styloglossus and mylohyoid, the lingual

nerve and submandibular ganglion, the

sublingual gland, the deep part of the

submandibular gland and duct, the

hypoglossal nerve and the deep lingual

vein.

Deep: stylohyoid ligament, genioglossus,

middle constrictor and the inferior

longitudinal muscle of the tongue,

glossopharyngeal nerve and the 2ndpart of

lingual artery

8.

Which of the following is supplied by the

Glossopharyngeal nerve

A.

Stylopharyngeus

B. Palatopharyngeus

C. Geniohyoid

D.

Genioglossus

Answer:A. Stylopharyngeus


Explanation:

Stylopharyngeus is a long slender muscle of

the pharynx which arises from the medial side

of the base of the styloid process, descends

along the side of the pharynx, and passes

between the superior and middle constrictors.

Some fibres merge into the constrictors and the

lateral glossoepiglottic fold, while others join

fibres of palatopharyngeus and are attached to

the posterior border of the thyroid cartilage.

The glossopharyngeal nerve curves round the

posterior border and the muscle. Its derived

from the mesoderm of the 3rd

pharyngeal arch. Nerve supply:Glossopharyngeal nerve

Action:Elevation of pharynx and larynx

Palatopharyngeus is also muscle of pharynx

and is supplied by cranial accessory nerve

Geniohyoid is a suprahyoid muscle supplied

by fibres of c1 through hypoglossal nerve

Genioglossus is a tongue muscle supplied by

hypoglossal nerve

9.

The maximum number of taste buds are found in

A.

Fungiform papillae

B. Filiform papilla

C.

Circumvallate papillae

D. Uvula

Answer: C. Circumvallate papillae


Explanation:


10.

The main arterial trunk supplying the

infratemporal fossa is

A.

Infratemporal artery

B. Deep temporal artery

C.

Maxillary artery

D. Posterior superior alveolar artery

Answer: C. Maxillary artery

Reference:Grays Anatomy, 40/E,pp. 540, 541

Explanation:

The maxillary artery, the larger terminal

branch of the external carotid artery, arises in

the parotid gland, posterior to the neck of the

mandible. The artery is widely distributed to

the mandible, maxilla, teeth, and muscles of

mastication, palate, nose and cranial dura

mater. It will be described in three parts,

mandibular, pterygoid and pterygopalatine.

1. The 1st part/ mandibular part runs

anteriorward medial to the neck of the

mandible.

2. The 2nd part/pterygoid part runs

anterosuperiorward under cover of the

temporalis and either superficial or deep

to the inferior head of the lateral pterygoid

muscle. Most branches of the first and

second parts accompany branches of the

mandibular nerve.

3.

The 3rd/pterygopalatine part passesbetween the heads of the lateral pterygoid

muscle and then through the

pterygomaxillary fissure into the

pterygopalatine fossa. The branches of the

third part accompany branches of the

maxillary nerve and pterygopalatine

ganglion.

Branches

1.

Mandibular part:Gives 5 branches which

all enter bone. Deep auricular, anteriortympanic, middle meningeal, accessory

meningeal and inferior alveolar arteries. The

middle meningeal artery is clinically the

most important branch of the maxillary


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artery. It ascends posterior to the

mandibular nerve and enters the cranial

cavity through the foramen spinosum. The

inferior alveolar artery accompanies the

corresponding nerve, enters the

mandibular foramen and canal, and

supplies mucosa and lower teeth.

2. The pterygoid partof the maxillary artery

supplies the muscles of mastication by deep

temporal, pterygoid, masseteric, and buccal

arteries.

3. The pterygopalatine partof the maxillary

artery supplies the upper teeth, face, orbit,

palate, and nasal cavity. The chief

branches are several superior alveolar

arteries, the infra-orbital and descending

palatine arteries, the artery of the pterygoid

canal, and the sphenopalatine artery. The

sphenopalatine artery is the termination of the

maxillary artery. It enters the nasal cavity

through the sphenopalatine foramen,

supplies the nose and paranasal

sinuses. This artery is the cause of the most

serious, posterior nosebleeds (epistaxis).

11.

Unilateral upper cleft lip occurs due to thefailure of fusion of

A. Medial nasal and maxillary process

B.

Medial and lateral nasal

C. Maxillary process

D. Maxillary process with palatal process

Answer: B. Medial and lateral nasal


Explanation:


12.

The maxillary sinus drains into the

A. Middle meatus

B.

Inferior meatus

C. Superior meatus

D.

Spheno ethmoidal recess

Answer:A. Middle meatus

Reference:Grays Anatomy, 40/E, p. 556-559

Explanation:


PHYSIOLOGY

13.

The contractile element in a skeletal muscle is

present in

A.

Sarcolemma

B. Sarcoplasma

C. Myofibril

D. Endomysium

Answer:C. Myofibril

Reference:Guytons, 11/E, pp. 72-73

14.

Enzymes which play an important role in

calcification are

A. Enolase and Calcitonin

B.

Alkaline phosphates and Catalase

C. Alkaline phosphatase and Pyrophosphatase

D.

Pyrophosphatase and carbonic Anhydrase

Answer:Alkaline phosphatase and Pyrophosphatase

Reference: Shalu Bathla, Periodontics Revisited, 1/E, p.

74

15.

The blood pressure is lowest in

A.

Arterioles

B. Capillaries

C. Venules

D.

Arteries

Answer:B. Capillaries

Reference:Khuranas Text Book of Human Physiology,

1/E, p. 334

16.

The role of Vitamin K

A. Formation of Stuart-Power factor

B.

Formation of fibrinogen

C. Formation of prothrombin

D.

Formation of Factor VIII

Answer:A. Formation of Stuart-Power factor

Reference: Indu Khuranas Text Book of Human

Physiology, 1/E, p. 221

Explanation:


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In the liver, synthesis of following factors is

dependent upon vitamin K

Coagulant like Prothrombin

Factor VIII, IX and X

Circulatory anticoagulant protein

Clotting Factors

1. Factor I (Fibrinogen)

2. Factor II (Prothrombin)

3. Factor III (Thromboplastin)

4.

Factor IV (Calcium)

5. Factor V (labile factor/proaccelerin)

6.

Factor VI Non existing

7. Factor VII Stable factor/Proconvertin

8. Factor VIII Antihaemophilic factor A (AHF

A) or Antihaemophilic globulin (AHG)

9.

Factor IX Christmas factor or Plasma

thromboplastic component

10. Factor X (Stuart Prower factor)

11.

Factor XI (Plasma Thromboplastin antecedent)

12. Factor XII (Hageman factor)

13.

Factor XIII (Fibrin stabilizing factor or Laki

Lorand factor), HMW K (High Molecular

Weight Kininogen, Fitzgerald factor), Pre

Ka (Prikallikrein or Fletcher factor)

BIOCHEMISTRY

17.

The process of transfer of information from the

mRNA to the proteins is called

A.

Mutation

B.

Translation

C. Transcription

D.

Conjugation

Answer:B. Translation

Reference:Satyanarayana, 3/E, p. 421

Explanation:

Replication is the process in which DNA copies

itself to produce identical daughter molecules

of DNA.

Transcription is the process in which RNA is

synthesized from DNA.

Biosynthesis of a protein or a polypeptide in a

living cell is known as translation.

GENERAL PATHOLOGY

No Questions Asked

MICROBIOLOGY

18.

A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown

origin. His blood culture was positive for gram-

negative bacilli which was oxidase positive. The

organism is

A.

Pasteurella

B. Francisella

C.

Bartonella

D. Brucella

Ans: D. Brucella

Ref:Ananthanarayan, 8/E, p. 342

PHARMACOLOGY

19.

The drug which is used to treat laryngospasm is

A. Atropine

B. Diazepam

C.

Neostigmine

D. Succinyl choline

Answer:D. Succinyl choline

Reference:Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 346, 347

Explanation:

Succinyl choline is quick and short acting

depolarizing blocker

It is more specific for neck muscles in low

doses

20.

Clavulanic acid added to Amoxicillin causes

A.

Increase effectively against gram negative

organisms

B.

Inhibition of -lactamase

C. Increases the effectiveness against delta

lactamase producing organism


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D. Increase effectively against gram positive

organisms

Answer:B. inhibition of -lactamase

Reference:Tripathi, 6/E, pp. 702, 703

Explanation:

Clavulanic acid is a -lactamase inhibitor.

When added to Amoxicillin, activity is

reestablished against -lactamase producing

organisms like Staphylococcus aureus, H.

influenzae, N. gonorrhea, E. coli etc. i.e. activity

against both gram positive and gram negative

organisms is increased

21.

The antidote for heparin is

A. Penicillinase

B.

Protamine sulphate

C. Pyrosulphate

D.

Potassium sulphate

Answer:B. Protamine sulphate

Reference:Tripathi, 6/E, p. 600

Explanation:

Protamine sulphate strongly basic obtained

from sperm of certain fishes

1 mg every 100 units of Heparin

In absence of Heparin, it may act as a weak

anticoagulant

Poison Antidote

Atropine,

AnticholinergicsPhysostigmine

Benzodiazepine(diazepam)

Flumazenil

Bismuth, arsenic Dimercaprol (BAL)

Cyanide

Amyl nitrate, Dicobalt

Edentate, Sodium

thiosulphate

Carbon monoxide Oxygen

Copper BAL / d-Penicillamine

Methyl alcohol,

ethylene glycol

Ethyl alcohol,

4 methylpyrazole((Fomepizole)

LeadCalcium disodium

edentate

Nitrites Methylene blue

Opioids (morphine) Naloxone

Organophosphorous

compoundsAtropine, Pralidoxime

Carbamates (Propoxur) Atropine

Paracetamol N-acetyl Cysteine

Heparin Protamine sulphate

WarfarinPhytonadione (Vitamin

K1)

Curare (d-

Tubocurarine)Neostigmine

B-blocker Isoprenaline

AspirinSodium bicarbonate (oral

+IV

DigoxinDigoxin antibodies (Fab

fragments)

Iron Desferrioxamine

Streptokinase

(fibrinolytics)

Epsilon amino caproic

acid

GENERAL MEDICINE

22.

The difference between infectious and serum

hepatitis is that in serum hepatitis

A.

Short incubation period

B.

Transmitted solely by oral-fecal route

C. Highly contagious

D.

Shows presence of Australia antigen

Ans: D. Shows presence of Australia antigen

Ref: Harsh Mohans Pathology for Dental

Students, 3/E, p. 364

GENERAL SURGERY

No Questions Asked

DENTAL MATERIALS

23.

The difference in the melting point of the solder

and the parts to be soldered is

A. 500C

B. 1000C

C.

2000

CD. Variable

Ans:A. 50C

Ref: Phillips, 11/E, p. 610


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Explanation:

The flow temperature of the filler metal should

be lower than the solidus temperature of the

metals being joined. A general rule is that the

flow temperature of the filler metal should be

at least 55.6 C (100" F) lower than the solidus

temperature of the substrate metal.

Exact value is not given in the answer. The

nearby option is A.

24.

The strength of the dental investment depends

on

A. Gypsum

B.

Silica

C. Carbon

D.

Copper

Ans:A. Gypsum


Explanation:

The essential ingredients of the dental inlay

investment employed with the conventional

gold casting alloys are a-hemihydrate of

gypsum, quartz, or cristobalite, which are

allotropic forms of silica.

Most investments now contain the -

hemihydrate of gypsum because greater

strength is obtained.

This gypsum product serves as a binder to hold

the other ingredients together- and to provide

rigidity. The strength of the investment is

dependent on the amount of binder present.

25.

18/8 stainless steel has

A.

18% Cr & 8% Ni

B. 18% Ni & 8% Cr

C.

18% Cu & 8% Ni

D. 18% Fe & 8% Ni

Ans:A. 18% Cr & 8% Ni


Explanation:

Type 302 stainless steel is a basic alloy,

containing 17% to 19% chromium, 8% to 10%

nickel, and a maximum of 0.15% carbon.

Type 304 stainless steelhas a similar composition

of 18% to 20% chromium and 8% to 12% nickel,

along with a maximum carbon content of

0.08%. Both 302 and 304 stainless steel are often given

the general designation of 18-8 stainless steel,

based on the percentages of chromium and

nickel in their composition, and are the types

most commonly used in orthodontic stainless

steel wires and bands.

26.

Green discoloration of porcelain during firing is

due to

A.

Formation of oxides

B. Discoloration of opacifier

C.

Discoloration of aluminium foil

D. Over firing

Ans:A. Formation of oxide


27.

Condensation shrinkage of porcelain during

firing depends on

A.

Rate of arriving at firing temperature

B.

Uniformity of particle sizeC.

Shape and size of particles

D.

Type of investment used

Ans: C. Shape and size of particles


28.

Polishing of gold alloy can be achieved by

A. Tin oxide

B.

Iron oxide

C. Indium oxide

D.

Zoe and pumice

Ans: B. iron oxide


29.

Impression compound has

A. Low thermal conductivity

B.

Crystalline structure

C. Formation of cross-linkages with heating

D.

High fusion temperature

Answer:A. Low thermal conductivity

Reference: Philips, 11 /E, p. 251

30.

The melting point of gold alloy can be decreased

by

A.

Silver

B. Copper

C. Platinum

D.

Palladium

Ans:A. Silver



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DADH

31.

The tooth most commonly having bifurcated

roots is the

A.

Maxillary central incisorB. Mandibular lateral incisor

C. Mandibular central incisor

D.

Mandibular canine

Answer:D. Mandibular canine

Reference:Wheelers, 8/E, p. 209

Explanation:

Mandibular canine shows the cusp tip in line

with the center of the root, from mesial or

distal aspect, sometimes may become lingual.

A variation in the form of mandibular canine

which is not uncommon is bifurcated root.

32.

The parotid duct opens at

A. The level of the lower first molar

B. The level of the upper first molar

C.

The level of the upper second molar

D. The level of the lower incisor

Answer:C. The level of the upper second molar

Reference:Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 269

Explanation:

Parotid gland duct is Stensens duct crosses the

masseter muscle and turns medially at anterior

edge penetrating the buccinator muscle to open

at a papilla at the buccal mucosa opposite the

maxillary 2ndmolar. The duct measures 4-6 cm

in length and 5 mm in diameter.

33.

The name of the bone which is formed directly

from the mesenchymal connective tissue without

intermediate cartilage formation is

A.

Membranous

B. Endochondral

C.

Skeletal

D. Cartilage

Answer:A. Membranous

Reference:Orbans Oral Histology, 12/E, p. 193

Explanation:

Intramembranous ossification is the direct

formation of bone within highly vascular

sheets of condensed primitive mesenchyme.

This process occurs in flat bones of skull and

clavicles. Unlike endochondral bone it does not

include any formation of intermediate cartilage

tissue.

ORAL PATHOLOGY & ORAL MEDICINE

34.

Cotton-wool appearance is seen in

A. Osteogenesis imperfecta

B. Ossifying fibroma

C.

Fibrous dysplasia

D. Osteitis deformans

Answer:D. Osteitis deformans

Reference:Shafers Oral Pathology, 6/E, p. 729

Explanation:

Osteitis deformans is also known as Pagets

disease which is characterized by abnormal

and excessive remodeling of bone.

Radiographically it shows patchy distribution

of osteoblastic radio opaque areas giving rise

to cotton wool appearance and is especially

well demonstrated in the skull and jaws.

35.

The lesion present in a single bone is

A.

Histiocytosis XB.

Ossifying fibroma

C. Albrights syndrome

D.

Pagets disease

Answer:B. Ossifying fibroma

Reference:Neville, 3/E, p. 647

Explanation:

Ossifying fibroma is a neoplastic lesions most

commonly seen in mandible i.e., premolar andmolar region.

36.

In hyperparathyroidism which of the following

is seen

A. Chronic tetany

B.

Decreased calcium absorption

C. Increased phosphate level

D.

Increased blood calcium

Answer:D. Increased blood calcium


Explanation:


9/19


Parathyroid hormone is necessary for the

maintenance of plasma ionized calcium level

for various functions. Hyperparathyroidism

causes hypercalcemia, hypercalcuria,

hypophosphatemia and hyperphosphaturia.

37.

The decreased phosphate levels seen in

hyperparathyroidism is due to

A. Decreased intestinal phosphate absorption

B. Increased calcium excretion

C. Decreased renal phosphate absorption

D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine

Answer:D. Increased loss of phosphate in urine


Explanation: Hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia,

hypercalcuria, hypophosphatemia and

hyperphosphaturia.

38.

The most common odontogenic tumor which

occurs in relation to an unerupted tooth in the

anterior maxilla

A.

Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor

B. Odontoma

C.

Myxoma

D.

Cementifying fibroma

Answer:A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor


Explanation:

AOT occurs mostly in association with an

unerupted maxillary cuspid. It is also called as

2/3rdtumor as 2/3rdof all AOT occur in maxilla,

in females and associated with impactedcanines.

39.

An asymptomatic radiopaque lesion at the apex

of a tooth with a deep carious lesion is most

probably

A.

Cementoma

B. Condensing Osteitis

C.

Periapical granuloma

D. Periapical cyst

Answer:B. Condensing Osteitis


Explanation:

Condensing osteitis is an unusual reaction of

bone to infection, seen in people with high

tissue resistance and tissue reactivity. The most

common cause of this is caries. It is most

commonly observed in younger adults and

children with deep carious tooth.

40.

Multiple supernumerary teeth and absence of

clavicles are seen in

A. Downs syndrome

B. Cleidocranial dysostosis

C.

Treacher Collinssyndrome

D. Hypothyroidism

Answer:B. Cleidocranial dysostosis


Explanation:

Cleidocranial dysplasia is a congenital disorder

manifested with clavicular hypoplasia or

agenesis with a narrow thorax, which allows

approximation of shoulders. Patient exhibit

high, narrow, arched palate, delayed eruption

of teeth and multiple impacted supernumerary

teeth.

41.

A child with Downs syndrome has Moon facies,

retarded mentally and which of the facial

characteristics

A.

Maxillary Prognathism

B. Mandibular retrognathia

C. Mandibular Prognathism

D.

Maxillary hypoplasia

Answer:D. Maxillary hypoplasia


Explanation:

Down syndrome also called as Trisomy 21

syndrome. The major features are mental

retardation, short stature, slanting eyes,

hypertelorism (mongoloid facies), small mouth,

macroglossia, hypoplasia of maxilla, delayed

tooth eruption, partial anodontia and enamel

hypoplasia.

42.

A pedunculated lesion 1.11.4 cm present on the

plate, having a warty surface with color similar

to the adjacent mucosa is best treated by

A. Incisional biopsy


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B. Excisional biopsy

C. Exfoliative cytology

D. Observe for 4 days, then biopsy

Answer:B. Excisional biopsy


Explanation:

The description of the lesion given in the above

question goes for a benign type. So the best

treatment option for such lesions would be

excisional biopsy.

43.

Painless ulcer is most commonly associated with

A. Tuberculosis

B. Primary Syphilis

C.

Herpetic stomatitisD. Traumatic ulcer

Answer:B. primary Syphilis

Reference:Neville, 3/E, p. 188

Explanation:

Primary syphilis is characterized by chancre

that develops at the site of inoculation. External

genitalia, lips, tongue, palate and gingival are

the common sites. Chancre is painless, cleanbased ulcerative lesion which can turn painful

on secondary infection. It heals by 3 to 8 weeks.

44.

Generalized growth failure in the first year of

life results in

A.

Maxillary hypoplasia

B. Mandibular hypoplasia

C.

Enamel hypoplasia

D. Dentinogenesis imperfect

Answer:C. enamel hypoplasia


Explanation:

Growth failure or any disturbance in the growth

in the first year of age affects the enamel, as the

enamel formation of most of the teeth is

happening in that particular time period and

thus leads to enamel hypoplasia.

45.

Oligodontia is the most dependable sign in the

diagnosis of which one of the following disease

A. Downs syndrome

B.

Cleidocranial dysostosis

C. Ectodermal dysplasia

D. Hypothyroidism

Answer:C. Ectodermal dysplasia


Explanation:

Ectodermal dysplasia is a heterogenous group

of disorders in which the ectodermal

derivatives like skin, hair, eccrine glands, nails

and teeth are affected. Partial or complete

anodontia is one of the characteristic feature of

ectodermal dysplasia.

46.

A mal-nourished child shows ulceration of the

gingiva, punched-out lesions, necrotic gingival

marginsA. Herpetic stomatitis

B. Noma

C.

ANUG

D. Aphthous ulcers

Answer:B. Noma


Explanation:

Noma is a rapidly spreading gangrenous

stomatitis seen most commonly in debilitated,

malnourished individuals especially in

children. It begins as a small ulcer in the

gingival and later becomes edematous,

necrotic, gangrenous and gets sloughed out.

47.

Intra-epithelial bulla are found in

A. Pemphigus

B. Bullous Pemphigus

C.

Bullous lichen planusD. Pemphigoid

Answer:A. Pemphigus


Explanation:

Pemphigus is an autoimmune disease

characterized by intraepithelial blister due to

the destruction of desmosomal junctions.

Antibodies are produced against desmoglein 1

and 3.

48.

Addisons disease is related to


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A. Adrenal medulla

B. Adrenal cortex

C. Posterior pituitary

D. Parathyroid gland

Answer:B. Adrenal cortex


Explanation:

Addisons disease is due to chronic

insufficiency of adrenal cortex leading to

hypoglycemia, dehydration, hypertension,

elevated serum potassium and ACTH levels.

49.

The most common complication following

rheumatoid arthritis of the TMJ is

A.

AnkylosisB. Synovial chondromatosis

C. Subluxation

D.

Osteoarthritis

Answer:A. Ankylosis


Explanation:

Rheumatoid arthritis is a disease of unknown

etiology begins in early adult life of usually

females. Swollen joints, pain and stiffness are

the initial symptoms. RA of TMJ causes pain

during any movement of the jaws. Ankylosis of

the joint is the most common complication over

a period of years.

50.

Which one of the following is a connective tissue

tumor

A. Lipoma

B.

MelanomaC. Carcinoma

D.

Papilloma

Answer:A. Lipoma


Explanation:

Lipoma is a common benign tumor of

adipocytic origin which is one of the

components of connective tissue. Its a slow

growing neoplasm composed of mature fat

cells.

51.

In a caries-free individual the saliva has

A. Low buffering capacity for acids

B. Medium buffering capacity for acids

C. High buffering capacity for acids

D. Independent of buffering capacity for acids

Answer:C. High buffering capacity for acids


Explanation:

The buffering capacity of the saliva is a very

significant property that affects the dental

caries process. The higher the flow rate, the

greater will be its buffering capacity.

52.

A patient notices a well demarcated area of

depapillation on his tongue which has beenthere for as long as he can remember the most

probable diagnosis

A.

Median rhomboid glossitis

B. Geographic tongue

C.

Black hairy tongue

D. Moellers glossitis

Answer:A. Median Rhomboid Glossitis


53.

The union of two teeth by the cementum is

called

A. Fusion

B.

Germination

C. Concrescence

D.

Dilacerations

Answer:C. Concrescence


Explanation:

Concrescence of teeth is actually a form of

fusion of cementum which occurs after root

formation has been completed. It is due to

traumatic injury or crowding of teeth with

resorption of the interdental bone so that the

two roots are in approximate and gets fused.

54.

The aspirate from a Keratocyst will have

A.

A low soluble protein content

B. A high soluble protein content

C.

Cholesterol crystal


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D. Inflammatory cells

Answer:A. A low soluble protein content


Explanation:

The lumen of keratocyst is filled with a thin

straw colored fluid containing very low content

of soluble protein (


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Most of the cephalometric machines accept 5%

enlargement as an acceptable limit.

59.

The main growth of the mandible is

A.

Gonial angle

B.

Condyle

C.

Inferior border and lateral aspect of the ramus

D. Symphysis

Answer: B. Condyle

Reference: Enlows Essentials of Facial Growth, 1/E, p.

66

Explanation:

The growth of the mandible occurs as a

combination of surface remodeling of the

mandible accompanied by forward and

downward displacement from the

temporomandibular interface due to condylar

growth.

The mandibular condyle is considered as a

major site of growth. The condylar cartilage is a

secondary cartilage of hyaline type covered

with fibrous connective tissue. The rate and

directions of condylar growth are influenced

by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors.

The mandible grows at four processes:

condylar, coronoid, alveolar and body. Growth

at alveolar process is facilitated with the

eruption of teeth. The growth at the condyle is

backward which results in forward and

downward shift. As the mandible translates

downward and forward or relocates,

resorption occurs at the front sites (-) and

deposition at the posterior borders (+). This is

required to maintain the distinct shape and

anatomy of the structure

60.

In a skeletal Class III, the value of ANB will be

A.

-10

B. +2

C.

+4

D. +6

Answer:A. -10

Reference: Proffits Contemporary Orthodontics, 4/E,p.

210, Fig. 6.53

Explanation:

ANB of -10 shows class III skeletal base but it

does not show whether it is retrognathic

maxilla or prognathic mandible.

61.

High angle case is

A.

FMIA > 65

B. IMP > 100

C.

FMP > 350

D. SNA > 40

Answer: C. FMP > 35

Reference: Jacobsons Radiographic Cephalometry, /E,

pp. 68, 69, 92

Explanation:

Frankfort mandibular incisor angle, suggest

relation of FH plane to lower incisor, average

value FMIA-65.

Lower incisor mandibular plane angle, suggest

relation of lower incisor to mandibular plane,

average value IMPA -90

Frankfort mandibular incisor angle, suggest

relation of FH plane to mandibular plane,

average value FMA-25. Thus value greater

than 35 indicates high angle case.

SNA, suggests relation of maxilla to cranial

base, average value of SNA-82.

62.

Ashley Howe model analysis is used in

A.

Tooth material excess

B. Maxilla-mandibular relationship

C.

Basal bone transverse relationship

D. Growth prediction

Answer: C. Basal bone transverse relationship

Reference:Howe. A. E. AJODO 1954, 40 (811)


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PEDODONTICS

63.

Green stains on a childs teeth not removed by

brushing is caused by

A.

Chromogenic bacteria

B. Neonatal line

C.

Calculus

D. Material alba

Answer:A. Chromogenic bacteria

Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 877

Explanation:

Type of Discoloration Cause

White Mild trauma during enamel

formation

Enamel caries

Mild fluorosis

Nutritional deficiency

Yellow Calcific Metamorphosis

Dentin Hyercalcification

Fluorosis

Trauma without

haemorrhage

Active caries

Periapical infection of

primary teeth

Turners tooth

Amelogenesis imperfecta

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Hemolytic diseases

Ageing

Red Porphyria


Blue Tetracycline

Thalassemia

Sickle cell anemia

GreenChromogenic bacteria

Tea

Hyperbilirubinemia

Black Tobacco

Betel nut

Plaque


Minocycline therapy

Brown Severe trauma

Periapical infection

Pulpal trauma with

haemorrhage

Severe fluorosis

Congenital Porphyria

Long term exposure-

tetracycline therapy

Tobacco products


Tea coffee stains

Chlorhexidine rinse

Stannous fluoride

64.

8 year-old child had fractured his maxillary

central incisor 10 months age. The pulp shows no

response. There is no periapical lesion in the

radiograph. The treatment of choice is

A. Ca(OH)2pulp capping

B.

Formocresol pulpotomy

C. Conventional root canal treatment

D. Complete debridement and apexification

Answer: D. Complete debridement and apexification

Reference:McDonald, 8/E, pp. 468-469

Explanation:

Central incisor root is incomplete at 9 years.

Non vital immature teeth - apexification is the

treatment of choice. Roots of the permanent

teeth complete 3 years after the eruption into

the oral cavity. No response to vitality tests

shows that the tooth is non-vital.

65.

The initial pulpal response to any insult is

A. Necrosis

B.

Ulceration

C. Calcification

D.

Inflammation

Answer: D. Inflammation

Reference: Shobha Tandon, 2/E, p. 391

Explanation:

Pulp responds to any insult by

immune/inflammatory reactions. When the

insult is beyond repair, it goes into necrotic

changes.

COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

66.

False about randomized control trial is

A.

Baseline characteristics of intervention and

control groups should be similar


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B. Investigators bias is decreased by double

blinding

C. The sample size required depends on the

hypothesis

D. None

Answer: D. None

Reference: Park, 21/E, p. 66

Explanation:

The answer can be arrived by elimination

method

Option A: establishing baseline

comparability is an essential step in

Randomized Control Trials RCTs. This is

accomplished by randomization as well as

by matching

Option B: observer/investigator bias is

reduced by double blinding, wherein the

study participants as well as the

investigator will be blinded.

Option C: the sample size for a study

depends on the hypothesis. For a trial

testing a directional hypothesis, the

sample size required will be lesser than a

trial testing a non-directional hypothesis.

PROSTHODONTICS

67.

In a patient, the upper denture falls when he

opens his mouth wide due to

A. Thick labial flange

B.

Over-extended borders

C.

Thick distobuccal flange

D. Poor peripheral seal

Answer: D. Between rest and occluding position

Reference: Bouchers, 12/E, p. 217

68.

The maxillary teeth if placed too far anteriorly in

a complete denture results in the faulty

pronunciation of

A. Fand V sounds

B.

S and T soundsC. Vowels

D.

Consonants

Answer:A. F and V sounds

Reference: Bouchers, 12/E, p. 383

69.

Resin teeth

A. Show a high compressive strength

B.

Contraindicated in patients with decreasedintra-occlusal distance

C. Show crazing

D. Show a high fracture strength

Answer: C. Show crazing

Reference:Manappallil, 3/E, p. 409

Explanation:

Crazing is a mechanical separation of the

polymer chains which might develop due to

mechanical stress.

70.

Bar-clasp assembly mostly used is

A.

Mesio-occlusal rest

B. Buccal approach

C. Disto-occlusal rest

D.

None of the above

Answer: B. Buccal approach

Reference: Stewarts, 4/E, pp. 42-43

PERIODONTICS

71.

The cells which predominantly infiltrate the

gingival sulcus in response to dental plaque are

A.

Mast cells

B.

Neutrophilic leukocytes

C. Lymphocytes

D. Macrophages

Answer: B. Neutrophilic leukocytes

Reference: Carranza, 10/E, p. 116

Explanation:

Cellular elements found in GCF include

bacteria, desquamated epithelial cells, and

leukocytes (PMNs, lymphocytes, and

monocytes/macrophages), which migrate

through the sulcular epithelium.

72.

The fibers of the periodontal ligament which

provides the maximum resistance to Masticatory

forces is

A.

Horizontal


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B.

Oblique

C. Transseptal

D. Apical

Answer: B. Oblique


Explanation:

Oblique fibers, the largest group in the

periodontal ligament, extend from the

cementum in a coronal direction obliquely to

the bone.

They bear the brunt of vertical masticatory

stresses and transform them into tension on the

alveolar bone.

73.

The cells which are decreased in chronic

periodontal disease are

A.

B-lymphocytesB.

T-lymphocytes

C.

Mast cells

D. Plasma cells

Answer: B. T-lymphocytes

Reference: Carranza, 9/e, p 266

Explanation:

A key feature that differentiates the established

lesion is the increase in the number of plasma

cells (B cells), which become the preponderant

inflammatory cell type.

74.

The failure of periodontal therapy is due to

A.

Lack of motivation

B. Lack of skill

C. Lack of co-operation

D.

Lack of follow up

Answer: A. Lack of motivation

Reference: Carranza, 9/e, p. 968

Explanation:

There is reason to believe that both the

mechanical debridement performed by the

therapist and the motivational environment

provided by the appointment are necessary for

good maintenance results. Patients tend to

reduce their oral hygiene efforts between

appointments. Knowing that their hygiene will

be evaluated causes them to perform better

oral hygiene in anticipation of the

appointment.

75.

The diameter of the tip of a periodontal probe is

A.

0.25 mm

B. 0.75 mm

C.

0.5 mm

D. 1 mm

Answer: C. 0.5 mm


Explanation:

The Periodontal Screening & Recording. TM

(PSR) system is designed for easier and faster

screening and recording of the periodontal

status of a patient by a general practitioner or a

dental hygienist. It uses a specially designed

probe that has a 0.5-mm ball tip and is color

coded from 3.5 to 5.5 mm

76.

The microorganisms which are present in the

juvenile periodontitis are predominantlyA.

Gram +ve aerobic cocci

B.

Gram ve aerobic cocci

C. Gram +ve anaerobic rods

D.

Gram ve anaerobic rods

Answer: D. Gram negative anaerobic rods


Explanation:

Localized aggressive periodontitis (previously

referred to as localized juvenile periodontitis

[LIP])develops around the time of puberty, is

observed in females more often than in males,

and typically affects the permanent molars and

incisors. This condition is almost uniformly

seen in individuals who demonstrate some

systemic defect in immune regulation, and

most affected individuals demonstrate

defective neutrophil function. The microbiota

associated with localized aggressive

periodontitis is predominantly composed of

gram-negative, capnophilic, and anaerobic

rods.

77.

Acetone breath is a feature of

A.

Liver disease

B. Sinusitis

C.

Renal disease

D.

Diabetes mellitus

Ans: D. Diabetes mellitus

Ref: Carranza, 9/E, p. 437

Explanation:

Odor Disease/Condition

Rotten eggs Volatile sulphur compounds


17/19


Sweet odor

(dead mice)

Liver insufficiency, volatile

sulphur compounds, aliphatic

acids (butyric, isobutyric,

propionic)

Rotten applesUnbalanced insulin dependent

DM (accumulation of ketones)

Fish odor

Kidney insufficiency,

characterized by uremia and

accumulation of dimethylamine

and trimethylamine

(Trimethylaminuria)

Ammonium-like

breathChronic glomerulonephritis

Melon like odorEucalyptus containing

medications

Rotten onions Arsenic medications

Acid, sweet Acute rheumatic fever

Foul, putrefactiveLung abscess, Tuberculosis,

Bronchiectasis

Resembling

decomposed blood

of a healing

surgical extraction

wound

Blood dyscrasias

Acetone, fruity

Diabetes mellitus or impending

diabetic coma (not detected in

well controlled patients)

Sweetish musty,

feculent amine

odor resembling a

fresh cadaver

known as fetor

hepaticus

Liver failure

(terminal stage)

Same as fetor

hepaticus but

characteristically

intermittent in

nature for longperiod of time

Portocaval venous anastomoses

FetidSyphilis, exanthematous disease,

granuloma venereum

Fetid breath and

bad taste

Eosinophilic granuloma

Letterer Siwe disease

Hand Schuller Christian disease

Necrotic,

putrefactiveWageners granulomatosis

Extremely foul

odor resembling

necrotizing

gingivostomatitis,

but much more

fetid and intense.

Noma developed from patients

who are debilitate or

undernourished from:

diphtheria, dysentery, measles,

pneumonia, scarlet fever,

tuberculosis, syphilis

78.

An endodontically treated mandibular molar with

periodontal involvement having furcation caries

is best treated by

A.

Hemi section

B. Radisection

C.

Fenestration

D. Root amputation

Ans:A. Hemi section

Ref: Carranza, 9/E, p. 831

CONS & ENDO

79.

-------------- shows chemical bonding to the tooth

A. Composite resins

B.

GIC

C.

Unfilled resins

D. Zinc phosphate

Ans: B. GIC

Ref: Sturtevant, 5/E, p. 217

80.

The function of cavity varnish beneath a silver

amalgam filling is

A.

To provide insulation

B.

To improve the marginal seal

C.

To form a calcified bridge

D. None of the above

Ans: B. To improve the marginal seal

Ref: Sturdevant, 5/E, p. 312

Explanation:

Tooth varnish is a solution liner that was used

in the past to seal dentinal tubules and was

placed on all tooth preparation walls for

amalgam and on dentinal walls of tooth

preparations for cast gold, but was not used for

composites.

The varnish prevented penetration of materials

into the dentin and helped prevent

microleakage. Varnishes also helped reduce

postoperative sensitivity by reducing the

infiltration of fluids and salivary components

at the margins of newly placed restorations.

Two coats of tooth varnish were applied to

dentin surfaces (not on enamel walls) of tooth

preparations for cast gold restorations.

Although varnishes were valuable in reducingpostoperative sensitivity, the thin film

thickness was insufficient to provide thermal

insulation even when applied in two coats


18/19


Tooth varnishes were not used under

composites because the solvent in the varnish

could react with or soften the resin component

in the composite, adversely affecting

polymerization. The free monomer of the resin

could dissolve the varnish film, rendering it

ineffective

ORAL SURGERY

81.

In a patient of liver disease the possible

complication during extraction is

A.

Dry socket

B. Facial space infection

C.

Bleeding

D. Loss of clot

Ans: C. Bleeding

Ref: Liver disease: Current perspectives on medical and

dental management-Oral Surgery, Oral Medicine, Oral

Pathology, Oral Radiology, and Endodontology ,

Volume 98, Issue 5,November 2004, Pages 516521.

Explanation:

Dental care providers should be aware of the

potential for increased bleeding as well as drug

toxicity. Quite often, liver disease will result in

depressed plasma levels of coagulation factorsthat need a careful evaluation of hemostasis

prior to treatment. Patient testing should

include CBC, PT, PTT, INR, bleeding time, and

liver function tests. If any abnormal levels are

discovered, consultation with a hematologist or

hepatologist is suggested before beginning

dental treatment. If oral surgical procedures

are required, special attention should be paid

to the minimization of trauma to the patient.

As the risk of bleeding increases, an infusion of

fresh frozen plasma may be indicated

82.

The toxic reaction to a local anesthetic is least by

A. Increased volume

B. Decreased volume

C. Decreased vasoconstrictor

D.

Intravenous infusion

Ans: B. Decreased volume

Explanation:

Rule out other options. Increase in volume will

increase toxicity level. Intravenous infusion of

LA with adrenaline has direct effect on heart.

Decrease vasoconstrictor increases systemic

absorption hence increasing toxicity.

83.

Compression osteosynthesis heals fracture

mandible by

A.

Primary union without callus formation

B. Secondary union with callus formation

C.

Compression union

D. All the above

Answer:A. Primary union without callus formation

Reference: Rowe and Williams Maxillofacial Injuries,

2/E, Vol. 1, p. 361

Explanation:

With compression osteosynthesis primary bone

healing occurs by direct osteoblastic activity

within the fracture, in distinction to the slower

process of callus formation

84.

Skin incision of the face is sutured with the edges

A.

Inverted

B. Everted

C. Same level

D.

Dipping

Answer: B. Everted

Reference: Rowe and Williams Maxillofacial Injuries,

2/E, Vol. 1, p. 212

Explanation:

During skin suturing it is important to try to

create a slight eversion of skin edges with

obliteration of dead space below the wound.

85.

The suture material most commonly used for

intra-oral wounds is

A.

Vicryl

B.

Silk

C. Nylon

D.

Cat gut

Answer: B. Silk

Reference:Laskin, 1E, p. 267

Explanation:

Silk is the most popular suture material for use

intraorally. It is braided, which gives it

excellent handling characteristics; it provides a

moderate tissue response and does not irritate
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adjacent mucous membrane and is

inexpensive.

86.

The first sensation to be lost following

administration of local anesthetic

A.

Proprioception

B. Pain

C.

Touch

D. Temperature

Answer: B. Pain

Reference:Malamed Local Anesthesia, 5/E, p. 4

Explanation:

The concept behind the action of local

anesthetics is to prevent both the generation

and conductance of nerve impulse. In effect,

local anesthetics set up a chemical roadblockbetween the source of the impulse and the

brain; therefore the aborted impulse is

prevented from reaching the brain and is not

interpreted as pain by the patient.

7.aiims dental 2004 may

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