3r solutions

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Physical Sciences Solutions for AAMC 3R

1. Reaction 4 is shown in the following equation, which is answer choice A.

PbCO3(s) + 2 HCl(aq) PbCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

Answers B and D do not show a reaction involving PbCO3(s), as required by Reaction 4. Answer C shows an implausible and unbalanced equation. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

2. Reaction 1 is shown in the following equation.

Pb(NO3)2(aq) + Na2SO4(aq) PbSO4(s) + 2 NaNO3(aq)

Compound A, the white solid, is PbSO4(s). Neither the reactant Pb(NO3)2 nor the product NaNO3 can precipitate because all nitrates and sodium salts are water soluble. PbI2 cannot precipitate because iodide is not present. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

3. The dissolution of Pb(OH)2(s) is represented by the following equation.

Pb(OH)2(s) Pb2(aq) + 2 OH-(aq)

At pH 9, the concentration of OH-(aq) is greater than the concentration of OH-(aq) at pH 7. According to Le Chtelier's principle, the additional common ion, OH-(aq), will shift the position of equilibrium to the left, and less Pb(OH)2 will dissolve. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

4. The reactions described in the passage show that lead(II) is successively precipitated as PbSO4, PbI2, and PbCO3. This sequence shows (assuming equal anion concentrations, as must be done here) that PbCO3 is less soluble than PbI2, and PbI2 is less soluble than PbSO4. The order in which the anions precipitate Pb2+ is: CO3

2- then I- then SO42-. When this sequence is applied to the

question, answer choice B is in the correct order, and answers A, C, and D are all in the opposite order. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

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5. The initial Na2SO4(aq) solution in Reaction 1 is 15 mL of 0.300 MNa2SO4(aq).

(15.0 mL) ( 1 L ) (0.300 mol Na2SO4) (2 mol Na+)

(1000 mL) (1 L Na2SO4(aq) ) (1 mol Na2SO4)

= 0.00900 mol = Answer B

6. The liquid and vapor phases coalesce at point D of Figure 2, where the densities of liquid and gaseous CO2 are equal. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

7. The question does not compare CO2 to a specific solvent, so we are looking for an inherent property of CO2 that makes it a good solvent for an organic oil. Supercritical CO2 is similar to a liquid and can be easily removed by evaporation because it changes into a gas when the pressure is lowered. Answers A, B, and C are not true of CO2, and answers A and C are not desirable properties of an extraction solvent. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

8.Polar water molecules are held together by relatively strong hydrogen bonds; whereas, the linear, nonpolar molecules of CO2 are held together at room temperature by weak London dispersion forces. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

9. The critical point, shown as a dot () in Figure 1, is near 30oC and 80 atm. Answer choice C is the best answer.

10. According to the principle of like dissolves like, the covalent compound CO2 is a better solvent for a covalent compound than it is for an ionic compound. Diethyl ether, C2H5OC2H5, is a covalent compound and NaCl, NH4NO3, and KOH are ionic compounds. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

11. The emission peaks P1 and P2 are described in the passage as due to an electron from an outer energy level filling a vacant inner energy level, resulting in emission of an X-ray photon. These photons have discrete energies, and therefore discrete wavelengths, so they appear in the spectrum as peaks. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

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12. The power P, supplied by the battery to accelerate the electron beam is given by the formula P = IV, where I is the beam current and V is the potential difference between the cathode and anode. Therefore P = (5 x 10-3 A) x (105 V) = 5 x 102 W. Therefore, answer choice A is the best answer.

13. The emitted X-ray has the positive energy difference between the atomic energy levels as measured by their ionization potentials. For Pb n = 2 to 1, that is (1,400 x 10-17 J) - (240 x 10-17 J) = 1160 x 10-17 J = 1.16 x 10-14 J. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

14. According to the passage, bremsstrahlung is produced when electrons are accelerated during collisions with ions. All the choices of answers are ions except He, a neutral atom. Therefore, answer choice A is the correct answer.

15. To increase the kinetic energy of the electrons, they must be accelerated by a higher voltage between the cathode and anode, thus the voltage of HV was increased. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

16. The probability of an X-ray emission event at a given wavelength is measured by its intensity in the spectrum. In Figure 2, P2 has a higher intensity than does P1. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

17. The dipole moment of a molecule is the vector sum of all of the bond moments. According to the data in Table 1, the dipole moment of SnBr4 is zero; therefore, its bond moments add to zero or cancel. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

18.The 2s electron cloud in NO is in a bonding molecular orbital (MO) that forms by the overlap of the 2s orbital of an oxygen atom with the 2s orbital of a nitrogen atom. Because O is more electronegative than N, the electron cloud in the resulting 2s MO is larger around the oxygen atom than it is around the nitrogen atom. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

19. Table 1 gives the dipole moment of HF as 1.82 D. Chlorine is just below fluorine in the periodic table; therefore, the electronegativity of chlorine, though significant, is less than that of fluorine. Chlorine is less effective than fluorine in creating a separation of charge when bonded to hydrogen, and the dipole moment of HCl is slightly less than that of HF. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

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20. HCl is polar covalent because H and Cl share a pair of bonded electrons that are more strongly attracted to the chlorine atom. The higher effective nuclear charge (i.e., the charge of the nucleus minus the shielding caused by extranuclear electrons) of chlorine accounts for its greater electronegativity. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

21. Carbon dioxide,O=C=O, is linear. Therefore, the two CO dipoles cancel because they are in opposite directions. If one of the oxygen atoms is removed, the resulting CO will have a dipole because the species is linear and comprised of two different atoms. Thus, the dipole moment will change from zero in CO2 to a positive value in CO. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

22. An analysis of the two structures shows that the bond moments in PCl5 add to zero; whereas, those in PCl3 do not. As shown in the figure, PCl3 is pyramidal not planar. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

23. Work is the product of the force on an object and the distance the object moves in the direction of the applied force. In this case, work = 20 N x 10 m = 200 J. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

24. Evaporation occurs when a molecule attains sufficient speed or kinetic energy to overcome the attractive forces of a liquid. Resonance, surface tension and potential energy all relate to molecules that are not in motion. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

25. The relation between distance, acceleration, and time is: d = (1/2)a t2. To solve for the time it takes the runner to use t = (2d/a)1/2 = (23/1.5)1/2 = 2 s. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer

26. A body is in transitional equilibrium when the components of all external forces cancel. For the sheet: F cos = 4 N, F sin = 3 N. The magnitude of F is found by adding the squares of the components: F2cos2 + F2 sin2 = F2 = 42 + 32 = 25 N2. Therefore F = 5 N. The F vector points in the proper direction since tan = 0.75 = 3/4. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

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27. The only experimental difference in Trial 1 vs. Trial 2 is that, in Trial 2, the test tube is placed in water (20oC) to cool rather than in air (also 20oC). In other words, only the surroundings were different. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

28. The melting point of acetamide is 80oC; therefore, acetamide will melt when it is in a test tube that is placed in a water bath at 90oC. The temperature of the water in the bath, not the amount of water in the bath, determines whether or not the acetamide will melt. The period of time for acetamide to melt, starting at 90oC, is more than the corresponding period, starting at 100oC (i.e., the temperature of boiling water). Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

29. Without controlling the temperature (i.e., raising the temperature of the water bath above 80oC), the experimenter could not have observed melting or freezing. Without monitoring the time, the experimenter could not have determined the period of time for the samples to melt or freeze. The temperature of melting (freezing) of a pure substance such as acetamide is independent of the amount melted, and Experiment 2 shows that the surroundings control the period of time for freezing to occur. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

30.The time period of melting is independent of the time intervals used by the experimenter to record temperatures. The sample would freeze completely after 23 min regardless of the time interval used by the experimenter to record temperatures. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

31. After Experiment 1, the sample was removed from a hot water bath as a liquid. Subsequently, the sample froze during Trial 1. Therefore, the sample had to be reheated in a water bath above its melting point to start Trial 2 as a liquid. Thus, answer D is the best answer.

32. If the data for Trial 1 were plotted, the temperature would drop to 80oC and remain at this melting temperature for 23 min (or 23 min x 60 sec/min = 1380 sec). The line at 80oC would not slope downward at all in the figure, and it would extend well past 270 sec, the maximum time shown in the figure. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

33.The tone with the shortest period has the shortest wavelength. In Figure 1a, the period of the third harmonic (the curve with the smaller dashes) is seen to be shorter than the other two harmonics. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

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34. The three curves in Figure 1a intersect at three points in time. The second intersection occurs in the middle of the time axis. At that point all three curves have zero displacement. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer.

35. The period T and frequency f of a tone are related by T = 1/f. If the first harmonic has a frequency of 100 Hz, then the second harmonic has a frequency of 200 Hz. The period corresponding to 200 Hz is 1/200 s-1 = 0.005 s. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

36. The amplitudes of the three harmonics can be compared in Figure 1a. The first harmonic is seen to be largest while the other two have equal amplitudes. Answer choice A best represents these observations.

37. A fourth harmonic would have a shorter period than the other three. Since T = 1/f, the fourth harmonic would have a higher frequency than the third harmonic. Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.

38. The waveform in Figure 1c begins to repeat at the zero displacement point near the end of the time axis. This is the same time period as the first harmonic as seen in Figure 1a. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

39. The relation of wavelength, frequency, and wave velocity is f = v. For light, v = 3 x 108 m/s. The wavelength for Material B at an efficiency of 0.42 is read from Table 1 as = 1.06 x 10-6 m. The frequency of this light is 3 x 108 m/s divided by 1.06 x 10-6 m, giving 2.8 x 1014 Hz. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

40. The passage states "a coating that maximized the absorption of light." Therefore, the coating also maximizes the conversion efficiency. Thus answer choice C is the best answer.

41. Identical voltage sources connected in parallel produce the same output voltage as a single source. (Whereas if they were connected in series, the source voltages would be added.) Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.

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42. The equation K = hf given in the passage implies that the photon energy must be greater than the work function of the material in order to liberate an electron, i.e. for K to be positive. Thus, answer choice A is the best choice.

43. Applying a coating that makes independent of the wavelength means is the same for all . Thus, is constant when plotted versus , a horizontal line. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer.

44. According to the data in Table 1, both structure and molecular weight (i.e., molar mass) affect the melting point of a compound. In order to assess the effect of molecular weight or mass alone, any other effects such as obvious structural differences must be minimized. This is best done by comparing two compounds that are structurally similar. Because the structures of propionic acid and butyric acid (Answer C) differ by only a CH2 group, they best show that melting point increases with molar mass. All of the other answer choices compare two compounds that differ significantly in structure. Therefore, the melting points of these compounds include both molar mass and structural effects. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

45. Figure 1 shows the pH of the solution to be about 3 before any NaOH(aq) is added.

pH = -log[H3O+]

3 = -log[H3O+]

[H3O+] = 10-3 M = 0.001 M = Answer A

46. The freezing point depression of an aqueous solution is a colligative property (i.e., it depends on the number of solute particles in a given volume of water.) Given two solutions, the one with the greater number of solute particles per liter of solution freezes at the lower temperature. Answer C is the only answer that relates a larger number of solute particles directly to a lower freezing point. Oxalic acid is diprotic and ionizes in accord with the pKa values in Table 1 to a greater extent than does crotonic acid. Subsequently, oxalic acid requires more NaOH than does crotonic acid to reach a pH of 4.7, and oxalic acid produces a larger number of particles in solution. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

47. In a titration of RCOOH, the concentrations of RCOOH and RCOO- are equal at the mid-point of the titration. This is often called the half-equivalence point. From the expression for the equilibrium constant of a weak acid HA, when [HA] = [A-], then [H3O

+] = Ka and pH = pKa. Table 1 shows the pKa value for a monoprotic acid to be 4.694.88. Answer choice A (4.8) lies in this range, the other choices do not. Alternatively, Figure 1 shows the pH at the half equivalence point of a weak acid to be about 4.8. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

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48. The first sentence of the passage states that the unknown was a liquid at room temperature (20oC). Table 1 shows that the melting point of crotonic acid is 71.6oC, which means it is a solid at room temperature (i.e., it melts 51.6oC above room temperature). Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

49. In general, catalysts lower the activation energy of the slowest step in a reaction. Thus, they increase the rate of the reaction without increasing the number of collisions, the kinetic energy of the reactants, or the Keq of a reversible reaction. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

50. Conservation of linear momentum requires: mradonvradon= mheliumvhelium with helium identified as the alpha particle. The nuclear masses can be approximated by their mass numbers (222 and 4). Thus, the recoil speed of the radon is (4/222)1.5 x 107 m/s = 2.7 x 105 m/s. Therefore, answer choice B is the best answer.

51. The overall order of a reaction is the sum of the exponents of the concentrations in the rate law. The exponent of [NO2] is 1 and that of [F2] is 1, and their sum is 1 + 1 = 2. Thus, the overall order is two or second order. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

52. The problem gives Hfo for HCl as -92.5 kJ/mol. This means that the formation of one mole of HCl from its elements liberates 92.5 kJ of heat, as shown in the following equation.

1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 Cl2(g) HCl Hfo = -92.5 kJ

Therefore, the formation of two moles of HCl liberates twice this amount or 185.0 kJ.

H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2 HCl H = -185.0 kJ

The question asks for the enthalpy change (H) for the reverse reaction. When the reaction is reversed, the sign of H is changed from to +. Thus, the reverse reaction requires +185.0 kJ = Answer D.

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53. The ratio of object to image distance equals the ratio of object to image height. The ratio of image to object height is found by rearranging the ratios to give 4f /(4/3)f = 1/3. The image is demagnified by a factor of 3. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

54. In the artery, the product of blood speed and artery cross-sectional area is everywhere constant because the volume flow rates are equal. At the point with half the normal area, the speed must double so that the same volume of blood passes through the constriction as does through the normal part of the artery. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

55. A stronger B field increases the magnetic force, Fm = q v B. The electric force must also increase to achieve equilibrium. This implies a larger electric field in the artery and a larger voltage across the artery. Thus, answer choice C is the best answer.

56. Volume flow rate is the product of blood speed and artery cross-sectional area: (0.20 m/s)(/4)(1.0 x 10-2 m)2 = 5 x 10-6 m3/s. Therefore, answer choice B is the best answer.

57. Since volume flow rate is proportional to blood speed, it doubles when v doubles. Therefore, answer choice B is the best answer.

58. A magnetic force acts on a moving charge in a direction that is perpendicular to both the velocity of the charge and the direction of the magnetic field. This is a basic law of the interaction of electric currents and magnetic fields. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

59. The passage states that sulfuric acid reacts with Cu(s) to produce Cu+ and SO2. Thus, sulfuric acid is converted into sulfur dioxide, or H2SO4 SO2. The oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4 can be found by assigning oxidation numbers of +1 for hydrogen and -2 for oxygen. For the formula H2SO4 to be neutral, the sum of the oxidation numbers must be zero. If x is the oxidation number of sulfur in H2SO4, then: 2(1) + 4(- 2) + x = 0, and x = +6. Likewise, for SO2: 2(- 2) + x = 0, and x= +4. The change in oxidation number is from +6 to +4, which is answer choice B.

60. The boiling point of HNO3 is given in the question as 86oC. Because HNO3 must boil out of the

flask and be trapped in the tube, the temperature of the flask must be above the boiling point of HNO3 (i.e., < 86

oC) and the temperature of the tube must be less than the boiling point of HNO3(i.e, < 86oC). Answer B meets these criteria; the other answers do not. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

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61. The combustion of elemental sulfur involves a reaction between oxygen (O2) and sulfur (S). [Note: Though sulfur exists as S8 molecules, its reactions are normally written in terms of its empirical formula S.] Only Answer D shows such a reaction. Thus, answer choice D is the best answer.

62. The reaction involves the formation of gaseous SO3 from gaseous O2 and gaseous SO2.

O2(g) + 2 SO2(g) 2 SO3(g)

According to Le Chtelier's principle, any action that causes the reaction to shift toward the right will cause O2 and SO2 to react and increase the yield of SO3. Of the four possible actions (answers A-D), the removal of SO3 as it forms will shift the reaction toward the right and is the most likely action to increase the yield of SO3. Thus, answer C is the best answer.

63. The passage states that concentrated H2SO4 is 98% H2SO4 and 2% water by mass and that the density of concentrated H2SO4 is 1.84 g/mL.

64. The problem hypothesizes the liberation of hydrogen in accord with the unbalanced equation below.

Fe(s) + H2SO4 H2(g)

In the conversion, hydrogen goes from an oxidation state of +1 in sulfuric acid to 0 (zero) in H2. Thus, the hydrogen in H2SO4 is reduced (i.e., it undergoes an algebraic decrease in oxidation state). Fe(s) is the reducing agent (i.e., it causes the reduction). Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

65. The first ionization of sulfuric acid, H2SO4, is normally 100% in water. However, under conditions of low water content, all of the H2SO4 cannot ionize. Qualitatively, the only source of SO4

2- is HSO4-. The Ka for the second ionization step of a parent acid is a few orders of magnitude

smaller than that of the first step; therefore, SO42- must be the least abundant species, because it is

only formed in the second ionization step. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

Quantitatively, the mass relationship in 100 g of 98% H2SO4 is 98 g H2SO4 and 2 g H2O. The molar mass of H2SO4 is 98 g/mol and of water is 18 g/mol. Thus, in 100 g of 98% H2SO4 there is one mole of H2SO4 and 2/18 or 1/9 mole of H2O. In excess water, H2SO4 would ionize completely. However, in this case (i.e., very low water content), only about 1/9 of a mole can

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react stoichiometrically with water to form H3O+ and HSO4

-. Of this 1/9 mol, only a small fraction of the HSO4

- further ionizes to H3O+ and SO4

2-, because HSO42- is a weak acid. Therefore,

SO42- is the chemical with the lowest concentration. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

66. The reflected radar signal has a frequency shift due to the Doppler effect. Mercury must have been moving toward the Earth for the shift to be to a higher frequency. Thus, answer choice A is the best answer.

67. An equatorial bulge of the Sun would be caused by some process that is not the same in all directions. Of the four answers, only the Sun's rotation about an axis fulfills this condition. The bulge is related to the balance between the centripetal force and the gravitational force. Therefore, answer choice A is the best answer.

68. The perihelion will have moved through an angle = t after a time t has elapsed. The conversion of angles is given by the following. An arcsecond is 1/60 of an arcminute. An arcminute is 1/60 of a degree. The time for 500 arcseconds per century to accumulate to = 360 degrees is 360/(500/(60 x 60)) = 360 x 60 x (60/500) centuries. Thus, answer choice C is the correct answer.

69. The orbit of Mercury around the Sun is, by Kepler's and Newton's laws, an ellipse with the Sun at one fixed focus. Therefore, answer choice C is the best answer.

70. The time for the radar signal to travel from the Earth to Venus and return is the total distance divided by the velocity of light: 2 x 5 x 1010 m / 3 x 108 m/s = 3.3 x 102s 300 s. Thus, answer choice B is the correct answer.

71. The ellipse precesses around the Sun at one focus. Any fixed point on the ellipse is a constant distance from the focus. Therefore it traces out a circle around the focus. Answer choice A is the best answer.

72. As written, the equation shows the reduction of Zn2+ to Zn. The negative reduction potential for Zn2+ means that Zn has a positive oxidation potential (i.e., Zn is easily oxidized.) Zinc will displace hydrogen, which has a zero standard reduction or oxidation potential (i.e., hydrogen is the standard against which other substances are measured.). As given in the problem, ionic zinc is Zn2+. Therefore, zinc metal liberates hydrogen gas and produces ZnCl2(aq). Answer choice B is the best answer.

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73. Power is defined as the rate of doing work. For the automobile, the power output is the amount of work done (overcoming friction) divided by the length of time in which the work was done. Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.

74. The bonds labeled C and D in the figure are of equal length but shorter than bond B. This is because two resonance structures can be drawn: in one resonance structure, bond C is a double bond, and in the second resonance structure, bond D is double bond. Double bonds (bond order = 2) are shorter than single bonds (bond order = 1), so the bond order for bonds C and D is about 1.5 and for bond B about 1. Bond B is longer than bond A because of the small atomic radius of hydrogen compared to nitrogen. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

Alternatively, the figure shows that C = D, so answer choices C and D can be eliminated. Also, A is clearly shorter than B; therefore B is the longest. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

75. Conservation of energy requires that the 15.0 eV photon energy first provides the ionization energy to unbind the electron, and then allows any excess energy to become the electron's kinetic energy. The kinetic energy is this case is 15.0 eV-13.6 eV = 1.4 eV. Thus the correct answer is A.

76. In radioactive decay, the sum of the mass numbers A and atomic numbers Z, before and after decay, must balance. The numbers for beryllium undergoing positron decay are: mass (7 = 7 + 0) and atomic (4 = 3 + 1). The resulting nucleus is 7

3Li. Thus, answer choice B is the best answer.

77. Work is the product of force and distance. The easiest way to calculate the work in this pulley problem is to multiply the net force on the weight mg by the distance it is raised: 4 kg x 10 m/s2 x 5 m = 200 J. Therefore, answer choice D is the best answer.

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Verbal Reasoning Solutions for AAMC 3R

78. According to one authority on the drug problem, "tobacco shortens one's life, cocaine debases it; nicotine alters one's habits, cocaine alters one's soul." This authority would probably:A) support the legalization of cocaine.

The argument presented for the legalization of cocaine requires the assumption that it is not so dangerous as is commonly believed. Someone who believes that it debases life and alters one's soul is unlikely to accept this argument.

B) approve the abolition of both cigarette and cocaine sales in the U.S.The authority contrasts the effects of tobacco and cocaine in order to emphasize the greater devastation caused by cocaine. The faults of tobacco (shortening life and altering habits) are equally true of many behaviors e.g., overeating, being sedentary that are universally regarded as permissible personal choices. The authority is therefore unlikely to favor the abolition of cigarettes.

C) not consider either cocaine or tobacco particularly dangerous.Although one might argue that the debasing of ones life and altering of ones soul makecocaine dangerous in a vague, spiritual sense of the word, the shortening of ones life signifies that tobacco is physically dangerous.

D) consider both cocaine and tobacco to be harmful but cocaine more so.The information that introduces the question does not imply agreement between the authority quoted and the passage author, so the correct response must be found in the quotation. Although the observations about tobacco constitute a warning it shortens lives and alters habits they are factual. In contrast, the expressions used about cocaine are moral judgments it debases lives and alters souls indicating a stronger condemnation.

Solution

Guess

79. The author of the passage would probably support most strongly a federal law that:A) requires mandatory drug-treatment programs for convicted drug users.

If the authors recommendations were adopted, there would be no convictions for drug use and nobody may be compelled to undergo treatment for engaging in a legal activity. Furthermore, the passage stresses the budgetary advantages of drug legalization, so the author is unlikely to advocate government spending for a program requiring the services of physicians and other professionals, which would undoubtedly be quite costly, even if the treatment were voluntary.

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B) grants tax-exempt status to income earned in the drug trade.Besides the fact that the author advocates the decriminalization of drug use and not the active promotion of it, a tax advantage for drug-related profits would eliminate the anticipated new tax revenue from legal drug production and sales . . . of at least ten billion dollars a year, one of the authors arguments for drug legalization.

C) dispenses, free of charge, federally certified sterile needles to addicts.The free distribution of needles would accord with legalization scenarios in at least three ways. (1) It would serve the goal of enhancing the quality of urban life by reducing the public-health risk from unsterile needles. (2) It would facilitate the investigation of any remaining drug-related crime by providing a means of identifying and monitoring addicts. (3) It would provide data to test one premise of drug legalization (which would be a prerequisite for a needle-distribution program) that repealing many of the drug laws would not lead . . . to a dramatic rise in drug abuse.

D) assigns to the military the task of intercepting drugs from foreign nations.If drugs were legal, as the author recommends, their importation would presumably no longer be subject to extraordinary restrictions.

Solution

Guess

80. Which of the following claims is/are explicitly presented in the passage to justify the supposition that public treasuries would enjoy a net benefit as a result of drug legalization?

I. Income earned from the drug trade would be subject to taxation. II. Fewer law-enforcement personnel would be retained.

III. Fewer public funds would be spent on drug enforcement.

A) I onlyOption I is correct, but so is option III.

B) I and II onlyOption II is neither stated nor implied. Drug legalization would presumably allow the law-enforcement personnel assigned to drug-enforcement activities to be reassigned.

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C) I and III onlyBetween reduced government expenditures on enforcing drug laws [option III] and new tax revenue from legal drug production and sales [option I], public treasuries would enjoy a net benefit.

D) I, II, and IIISee rationale B.

Solution

Guess

81. Which of the following findings best supports the author's belief that drug legalization would not result in a dramatic increase in drug abuse?A) Most Americans are currently hostile to the idea of drug legalization.

General hostility toward drug legalization indicates nothing about the probable effect of legalization on the prevalence of drug abuse.

B) Most Americans are unlikely to engage in an obviously dangerous activity.Since drug taking involves well known risks (overdosing, psychosis, disease from contaminated needles, loss of employment, disintegration of personal relationships, etc.), evidence that Americans tend to avoid risk-taking activities supports the argument for legalization.

C) Most Americans do not take the legal status of a substance into account when deciding whether or not to ingest it.In the argument that the legal status of cocaine or heroin is irrelevant because few Americans would choose to inject it into their veins, the implied deterrent is the riskiness of such behavior. This argument does not pertain to either other currently illegal drugs or other means of ingestion. The use of such substances may be restricted by their price, for example, rather than by their legal status. And since legalization could be expected to make all street drugs more affordable, it might well promote drug abuse among current nonusers for whom expense is a major consideration.

D) The consumption of alcohol rose after the repeal of prohibition.Evidence that alcohol consumption rose after Prohibition ended argues against the belief that drug use would remain constant following the repeal of anti-drug laws.

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Solution

Guess

82. According to the passage, which of the following is most likely to be true about the relationship between the enforcement of drug-prohibition laws and the street prices of illicit drugs?A) The more strict the enforcement, the higher the street price.

The relationship between the enforcement of drug laws and the street price of drugs is assumed in the passage to accord with the economic law of supply and demand. The reason that many drug-control efforts are . . . counter-productive is implicitly that they produce shortages or increase the dangers and costs to the suppliers, thus driving up prices. As a result, many cocaine and heroin addicts spend hundreds and even thousands of dollars a week. The sentence beginning If the drugs to which they are addicted were significantly cheaper which would be the case if they were legalized . . . repeats the theme of a positive correlation between street price and law enforcement.

B) The more strict the enforcement, the lower the street price.The passage provides no reason to suppose that the predictable outcome of strict enforcement, a reduction in the quantity of drugs available on the street, also reduces their price. (If it did, there would be no particular temptation to corruption by those engaged in the enforcement.)

C) The less strict the enforcement, the higher the street price.Enforcement would decline to zero with legalization, the case in which drugs would be significantly cheaper.

D) There is no systematic connection between the strictness of enforcement and the street price.The denial of a connection between the enforcement of drug laws and the price of drugs contradicts the passage argument (see rationale A).

Solution

Guess

83. The Bella Coola Indian legend best illustrates the author's point that:A) humans know very little about the wolf.

To know very little refers to a negative state the absence of knowledge and a negative state cannot be illustrated. Furthermore, the prevalence of this negative state among humans as a whole could not be indicated by a single example but only by reference to a range of incompatible opinions, which is the authors method.

B) wolves provoke fanciful thinking.The legend recounts the origin of the wolfs human-like stare. The author refers to it to illustrate the powerful influence on the human imagination exerted by the wolf.

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C) people have always revered the wolf.The legend does not suggest reverence for the wolf (the origin of which it ascribes to a failed project), nor can the attitude it indicates be generalized across time and cultures.

D) wolves resemble humans in certain ways.The legend itself concerns the resemblance between the direct gaze of wolves and the human stare. The authors point, however, is not that wolves resemble humans in any way but that because of the boldness of their regard, they influence humans to explain the feelings that come over them when confronted with that stare and thus to create such legends.

Solution

Guess

84. In the context of the passage, the word rigorous means:A) unyielding.

While clouds are clearly yielding rather than unyielding, the yielding concept has no such relevance to the passage statement about wolves. The author is not advising readers to yield more to the opinions others express about wolves but to be more cautious in forming any conclusion.

B) harsh.In expressing the futility of attempting rigor in characterizing wolves, the author is not advising readers to be less harsh in their judgment but to withhold judgment, since we know little about the wolf.

C) precise.You might as well expect rigor of clouds indicates the impossibility of being precise in characterizing wolves. The one-sentence paragraph in which rigorousappears thus summarizes the idea expressed in the previous paragraphthat everything we have been told . . . should have been said . . . with the preface that it is only a perception in a particular set of circumstances.

D) judgmental.Although the passage does advocate a less judgmental view of wolves, the context in which rigorous is used you might as well expect rigor of clouds indicates that its intended sense is the antithesis of a quality to be expected of clouds. A lack of judgment is hardly a salient quality of clouds.

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Solution

Guess

85. Which of the following statements, if true, would most WEAKEN the author's contention that the wolf is less known than created by us?A) The incident the author described as a wolf's "winging a piece of caribou hide

around like a Frisbee" never in fact occurred.If even an instance of wolf behavior reported by the passage author were imaginary, the conclusion that the wolf is a creature of human imagination would be strengthened.

B) Nunamiut Eskimos have very little interaction with wolves, and base their beliefs about wolves on folklore.If unreliable ideas about wolves were held by even a group living in close proximity to them, the authors premise would be strengthened.

C) The apparently intelligent behaviors that wolves exhibit, and that people have always found so intriguing, are entirely instinctive.The issue of whether wolf behaviors indicate intelligence or instinct is irrelevant to the issue of whether these behaviors are generally known to humans.

D) Scientists have produced a wealth of knowledge about the wolf, the preponderance of which corresponds closely to the beliefs of Eskimo and Indian cultures.If the descriptions of wolf activities provided by Native American observers were confirmed by a large body of scientifically gathered reports, the grounds for skepticism about our knowledge of the wolf would be undermined.

Solution

Guess

86. In organizing a party of natural historians to study wolves, the author would most likely advise them to approach the wolf with:A) love, because contrary to popular belief, a healthy wolf will seldom harm a human

being.Wolf-lovers want to say no healthy wolf ever killed anyone in North America, which isnt true. Furthermore, the author would be unlikely to be so presumptuous as to advise a group of scientists to love the subject of their studies.

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B) caution, because wolves are hunters, and some have been known to kill humans.The Nunamiut Eskimo of the central Brooks Range speak of wolves as hunters, and wolves have killed Indians and Eskimos, so the author would be likely to advise caution in approaching them.

C) contempt, because while they may be similar to domestic dogs, wolves are usually quite dangerous.To characterize wolves as quite dangerous would be an exaggeration. Only wolf-haters want to say they are born killers, which isnt true. Furthermore, the feelings of people in the presence of wolves includes respect, and there is nothing in the tone of the passage to suggest contempt for the subject of its authors investigations.

D) confidence, because we now know much more about the wolf than we did in the past.The truth is we know little about the wolf, and the natural historians would be making their expedition in order to learn more.

Solution

Guess

87. The 1928 edition of the World Book Encyclopedia defines the wolf as "a rapacious, flesh-eating animal belonging to the dog family" and states that the wolf "lacks [the dog's] courage and loyalty." If the author were to include this description in the passage, it would probably be used to:A) support the point that wolves are excellent hunters.

The quotation does not mention hunting. It might have been applied to a scavenger.

B) illustrate the point that people often see wolves as being like themselves.Normal persons would be unlikely to describe themselves in this way.

C) emphasize that what we think we know about wolves is often the product of our imagination.The emotionally toned anthropomorphism of the word rapacious and the disparaging comparison with the domesticated dog in terms of courage and loyalty (despite the acknowledgment that the wolf belongs to the dog family) indicate that the writer of the encyclopedia definition relied at least as much on preconceptions as on objective knowledge.

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D) explain the author's own opinion about wolves.The authors description is far from suggesting rapacity, cowardice, or a lack of loyalty: Wolves share food with the old who do not hunt, and give gifts to each other, implying both generosity and loyalty. The fact that they hunt caribou, a much larger animal than themselves, implies courage. And they spend a good deal of time with their young, another indication of loyalty.

Solution

Guess

93. According to the passage, the internal heat of earth is considered a result of all of the following factors EXCEPT:A) fluid motions in the outer core.

The movement of the molten outer part of Earths core is not mentioned as contributing to its heat. The passage states only that this layer is hundreds of degrees cooler than the inner core.

B) primordial gravitational processes.The gravitational pressure that caused orbiting gas and dust to coalesce into the primordial planet released enough energy to melt these materials.

C) decay of trapped radioactive elements.The decay of radioactive elements trapped in Earths interior generates heat.

D) primordial separation of heavier from lighter materials.The separation of the heavier metallic materials that were to form Earths center from the lighter silicate minerals that were to form its outer layers generated energy that added to the internal heat of the planet.

Solution

Guess

94. According to the information given in the passage, the amount of heat provided by the sun, in terawatts, is roughly:A) 42

B) 4,200

C) 42,000The passage estimates the 42 terawatts released from Earths surface as a thousandth of the heat provided by the sun. The heat from the sun is therefore a thousand multiplied by 42, or 42,000 terawatts.

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D) 42 trillion

Solution

Guess

95. According to the passage, earth's core is predominantly:A) solid and radioactive.

B) gaseous and magnetic.

C) fluid and metallic.The passage states that the inner third of Earths core is now solid, implying that the core remains predominantly molten and also mentions fluid motions in the outer core. It refers to Earths metallic core? and to the cores being made up mostly of iron and perhaps some nickel.

D) solid and magnetic.

Solution

Guess

96. According to the passage, the continuous existence of earth's magnetic field is best shown by analysis of the:A) geological activity at the earth's surface.

Earths surface geological activity and its magnetic field are attributed to separate sources of heat from within the planet; the passage does not relate the two phenomena.

B) magnetic data obtained from rocks.Magnetized rocks show that the earth has had a magnetic field for at least three billion years.

C) electrical conductivity of rocks from the earth's mantle.In order to sustain Earths magnetic field, electrical conductivity must characterize its core, not its mantle: All these interactions must be working together smoothly in the outer core, for otherwise the dynamo would have long since ceased to function.

D) conversion of mechanical into electrical energy by rocks.The energy conversion is explained as a dynamo effect, which is created by moving a conductive material through a magnetic field. That is, it is fluid motions in the outer core, not the material in motion, that causes the conversion, and this material is the molten iron alloy of the core, not rocks.

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Solution

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97. According to the passage, the dynamo theory derives much of its credibility from the fact that it alone can account for the:A) periodic reversals of the earth's persisting magnetic field.

The only theory that can explain the persistence of the field and its propensity for reversing itself is the dynamo theory.

B) weakness of the earth's magnetic field.Earths magnetic field is not characterized as weak.

C) intense heat of the earth's core.The core heat is attributed to the planets fiery beginning and to the release of energy as the heavier materials separated from the lighter ones, differentiating the core and the mantle.

D) electrical conductivity of the earth's inner core.The conductivity of the solid inner core is irrelevant to the dynamo theory, which depends on fluid motions in the outer core.

Solution

Guess

98. According to the passage, magnetic fields are primarily by-products of:A) fluid motion.

B) the rotation of the earth.

C) mechanical energy.

D) electrical currents.The earths magnetic field, like any other, is a by-product of electric currents.

Solution

99. The synthesis of geology, physics, chemistry, mathematics, and other disciplines required to develop theories such as the one described would be most similar to tA) historical and contemporary styles of painting to get

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Guess

artistic inspiration.Painting styles are variations within a discipline, not separate areas of study, and artistic inspiration is a subjective experience, not an objectively supported theory.

B) the art, history, and technology of antiquity to develop theories about ancient civilizations.The synthesis of knowledge from the physical sciences and mathematics in a theory of global cooling is the application of a broad understanding of materials and forces to an explanation of past activities. This synthesis therefore resembles the combining of various aspects of antiquity in the development of theories ocivilizations.

C) child, adolescent, and adult problemdevelop a theory of intelligence.The study of possible ageproblem solving does not require the synthdisciplines.

D) the effects of different anesthetics to develop a theory of pain.A comparison of the effectiveness of similar substances in performing a single function does not suggest a need to synthesize separate areas of knowledge.

Solution

Guess

100. The central thesis of the passage is that:A) we are basically unaware of our conceptual system.

The automatic operation of the conceptual system is mentioned as the reason that it must be studied indirectly, through language, but our lack of awareness of its functioning is not the subject of the passage.

B) a culture can view argument as an aesthetically pleasing dance or as war.The author uses argument as an example of a concept that is structured by a metaphor, developing the argument that those who view argument as war would not recognize the concept as

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used by a culture that views it as dance. This example is discussed only to serve the argument about the pervasiveness of metaphor.

C) metaphors control our perceptions, thoughts, and actions.The thesis of the passage is stated in the first two paragraphs, elaborated and restated in the next two, and clarified with an example in the remainder of the passage: Our ordinary conceptual system, in terms of which we both think and act, is fundamentally metaphorical.

D) metaphor is a poetic as well as a rhetorical device.The thesis does not concern the conscious use of metaphor, poetically or rhetorically: metaphor is pervasive in everyday life, not just in language but in thought and action.

Solution

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communication, since their goal is to defeat an opponent through attack, defense, counterattack, etc..

Solution

Guess

102. Given the claims made in the passage, the expressions "She's brimming with vim and vigor," "She's overflowing with vitality," "He's devoid of energy," and "I don't have any energy left at the end of the day" would suggest that:

A) some people have more energy than other people.The individual differences in energy level that can be inferred from a comparison of the expressions are irrelevant to passage claims, which concern the influence of metaphor on conceptual thought.

B) most people wish that they had more energy.The desirability of energy can be inferred from the overt content

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of the expressions. It is not evident from the metaphor underlying the concept and is therefore unrelated to passage claims.

C) many people think of vitality as a substance.To characterize energy in the same terms as liquid in a container (brimming, overflowing) or as a quantifiable possession (devoid of, dont have any) indicates that it is conceptualized as a substance.

D) some people think that vitality affect our ability to argue.Neither the expressions nor the passage suggests a connection between vitality and argumentativeness.

Solution

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103. According to the passage, if a speaker says, "I've never won an argument with him," he or she is most likely thinking that:

A) arguments are violent.One may win something without having engaged in violence.

B) arguments are like contests.The speakers implicit belief that arguments are won by one of the participants (rather than settled by both) equates arguments with contests.

C) conceptual systems are metaphorical.The use of the word win indicates that the speakers concept of argument is controlled by the metaphor of a competition or conflict, not that the speaker believes conceptual systems to be metaphorical.

D) competition is unpleasant.The statement does not reveal an emotional response to competitiononly the speakers assumption that arguments, like competitions, have winners and losers.

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Solution

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104. The ideas discussed in this passage would likely be of most use to:A) an ambassador to a different culture.

In suggesting that the metaphors underlying abstract concepts may differ with culture, the passage implies a need for sensitivity in presenting and in interpreting ideas cross-culturally, as an ambassador must do.

B) a senator engaged in a serious debate.A serious debate engaged in by a senator would probably concern a dispute over legislation or an election, issues that are concerned with overcoming political opposition and for which an aggressive orientation (argument is war) may thus be appropriate. Furthermore, the debate would presumably be conducted within a culture, so basic conceptual misunderstandings would be unlikely. Therefore, attention to the implicit metaphors used in the debate would not serve the senator.

C) a financial analyst for a large corporation.The financial analyst would be concerned more with business and economic data that might affect the corporationverifiable factsthan with concepts likely to be affected by metaphoric thinking.

D) a general preparing for battle.The general would be preparing for a real battle, not a metaphorical one, a situation to which the philosophical and psychological ideas of the passage would have little applicability.

Solution

105. An appropriate theory of metaphor derived from the information contained in the passage would state that metaphor involves:

I. understanding one thing in terms of another. II. experiencing one thing in terms of another.

III. communicating about one thing in terms of another.

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Guess A) I only

B) II only

C) I and II only

D) I, II, and IIIThe idea that metaphor permeates all three aspects of conceptual functioning is stressed throughout the passage e.g., metaphor is pervasive in everyday life, not just in language but in thought and action. Our ordinary conceptual system, in terms of which we both think and act, is fundamentally metaphorical. The three ways in which metaphor influences thought are also explicitly stated in reference to the hypothetical case of a culture with a dance metaphor for the argument concept: In such a culture, people would view arguments differently [option I], experience them differently [option II], carry them out differently, and talk about them differently [option III].

Solution

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106. The expression "This is driving me around the bend" would best support a metaphor that compares madness to:

A) a location.The pronoun this refers to a source of stress that has the power to drive one to madness, which is conceptualized as a location that is around the bend.

B) a vehicle.A vehicle is not invoked; one is being driven in the sense of being impelled onward before some force. And one is driven toward madness, not by madness.

C) a road.Although the concept of a bend suggests a road, it is a road that one is on before reaching the bend around which lies madness, so madness is not the road itself.

D) a force.The driving force is not madness but the stressful circumstance referred to as this.

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Solution

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107. According to information in the passage, the best way to conduct an argument with someone from a culture that views an argument as a dance would be to:

A) methodically attack the person's weaker claims.The idea that some of the ideas expressed in an argument are weaker than others implies a war metaphor. In exchanging ideas with someone who considers argument a dance for two, an appropriate response to claims that seemed tentative or incompletely supported might be to elaborate them, to ask about their implications, to consider their usefulness, etc., but not to attack them.

B) calmly respond to the person's charges.Since the charge would not be intended as an attack but as a movement in an interactive performance, the appropriate response would be considered and graceful.

C) explain that arguments are not like dances.Since our conceptual system is not something we are normally aware of, one is not apt to notice the metaphor controlling his or her own style of arguing and so would be unlikely to identify that of another culture. We would probably not view them as arguing at all.

D) irrationally defend your position.Defense is unnecessary when there is no attack. Furthermore, irrationality would be unlikely to contribute to a performance that was balanced and aesthetically pleasing.

Solution

108. Which of the following statements is NOT presented as evidence for the metaphorical conceptual system on which arguments are supposedly based?

A) We gain and lose ground.We gain and lose ground.

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Guess B) We attack an opponent's position.We see the person we are arguing with as an opponent. We attack his positions.

C) We plan and use strategies.We plan and use strategies.

D) We claim that criticisms are on target.The passage does not cite a metaphoric use of the term on target.

Solution

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109. According to the passage, many people think that they can get along very well without metaphor because they believe that metaphor is:

I. used only by rhetoricians and poets. II. a characteristic of language but not of thought.

III. a device that alters one's perception of reality.

A) II onlyOption II is true but incomplete.

B) III onlyOption III: Our concepts structure what we perceive, and our conceptual system is largely metaphorical. These assertions express the authors belief that metaphor alters perception. They do not imply that this effect is widely understood or is believed to constitute a reason for considering metaphor expendable.

C) I and II onlyOption I: Metaphor is for most people a device of the poetic imagination and the rhetorical flourish. Option II: Metaphor is typically viewed as a characteristic of language alone, a matter of words rather than thought. For these reasons, most people think they can get along perfectly well without metaphor.

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D) I, II, and IIISee rationale B.

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Solution

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110. The author's central thesis is that:A) promises, commitments, excuses, pleas, and pacts are verbal conventions.

Not only are promises, commitments, pleas, and pacts not the focus of the passage; the passage author implicitly deplores the degeneration of such performative utterances from sacred rituals into empty verbal conventions: these . . . are ceremonies or they are nothing.

B) li is effective in controlling the behavior of others.The effectiveness of li in directing behavior (inducing a student to bring one a book) is mentioned only as an example of its incidental power to accomplish physical ends; it can also be used in this way. Furthermore, the willful control of others would be antithetical to the concept of lipresented.

C) performative utterances are more honest than are stated intentions.The honesty of performative utterances is not at issue. They are discussed only to provide Western examples of the Eastern idea of binding, ceremonious words.

D) the powers that are uniquely human are revealed in traditional ceremonies.The thesis topic is the truly, distinctively human powers considered by Confucius. The central thesis about these powers is that they must be approached by way of the notion of li, the meaning of which is close to holy ritual, sacred ceremony. This thesis is elaborated throughout the passage.

Solution

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111. The passage suggests that Confucius would be most likely to endorse which of the following reasons to use li?

A) It acknowledges the dignity of others.The idea that unlike coercion, which violates the dignity of others, li works through spontaneous coordination rooted in reverent dignity is traced to Confucius.

B) It works invisibly through magical powers.The powers that are distinctively human have a magical quality. Implicitly, these powers are the invisible and intangible forces of li: Through ceremonious politeness, one may experience the magic of having ones wishes met. That is, li

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is magical figuratively in its results, not literally in its means. It is rooted in reverent dignity, not in the occult.

C) It does not require the expenditure of effort.The idea that the practice of li does not involve effort is presented as an aspect of its magical quality, not as a reason for its use.

D) It avoids the risks involved in using force.The passage does not suggest that risk avoidance is a valid reason to strive for the perfection in Holy Rite.

Solution

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112. Which of the following assertions does the author support with an example?

I. Some human powers have a magical quality. II. Words can function as actions.

III. Much of human existence consists of ceremony.

A) I onlyOption I is true but incomplete.

B) III onlyOption III is asserted, but much of human existence is so broad and vague a concept that no example of it could be offered.

C) I and II onlyOption I: A book from my office that appears in my hands, as I wished is an example supporting the assertion that some human powers have a magical quality. Option II: I give and bequeath my watch to my brother is an example supporting the assertion that words can function as actions.

D) II and III onlySee rationale B.

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Solution

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113. The powers discussed by Confucius are described as magical. What is the most likely reason for the choice of this word?

A) The word directs attention to the power behind ordinary social conventions.The adjective magical refers to powers so familiar and universal as to be unnoticed. This context, as well as that in which the noun magic later appears, expresses a sense of wonder at the effectiveness of conventional social forms: The only action taken is the proper ritual expression of my wish, yet the wish is accomplished without effort on my part. The magical quality of such transactions is emphasized by the phrases merely express ... my wish and in almost no time as well as by an exclamation point.

B) The rituals involved in li harness supernatural phenomena.There is no suggestion that the revelations of Confucius concerned supernatural methods. The dimension of human existence to which the word magical is applied is unnoticed only because it is already so familiar and universal.

C) These powers can be learned only from Confucian masters of the occult.The occult is not invoked, and although one has to labor long and hard to learn li, there is no suggestion that the services of a master are required. The difficulty in acquiring the ability to act according to li and the will to submit to li is not that the concept is difficult to understand but that its perfection is esthetic as well as spiritual.

D) Those with these powers can move physical objects through the use of words alone.The moving of objects by means of words is presented as an incidental aspect of li: It can also be used to accomplish physical ends, although we usually do not think of it this way. Furthermore, in the example of a book that appears without being actively sought by the author, the words do not act on the desired object but on one of my students, who willingly delivers it.

Solution

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114. According to the passage, which of the following sentences is/are performative utterances?

I. Please help me. II. I promise to help.

III. May I help you?

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A) I onlyA request (option I) does not constitute the performance of an act by the speaker. Rather, it is a stimulus to action by another.

B) II onlyOption II is a performative utterance because to utter the words I promise is to commit oneself through ones words. The utterance is the very execution of the act [of commitment] itself, in the same way as I give and bequeath my watch . . . is not a report of what I have already done but is the very act of bequeathal.

C) I and III onlyA question (option III) does not constitute the performance of an act by the speaker. Rather, it is a stimulus to action by anotherthat of replying.

D) II and III onlySee rationale C.

Solution

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115. The author suggests that Confucius considered the ceremonies of society to be holy because they are:

A) expressions of respect.The adjective holy refers to ritual, the concept in which the Confucian term li originated, indicating that Confucius revered tradition. In the discussion of the teachings of Confucius, the description of conventions as authentic and reasonable, the association of li with reverent dignity, and the contrast drawn between the user of li and one who uses coercive means further imply that for Confucius, the holiness of ceremonies derived from the respect for self, for others, and for tradition that they express.

B) divinely sanctioned laws.The passage does not suggest that Confucius believed in the existence of a divine lawgiver capable of sanctioning social conventions.

C) customary in refined society.The ceremonies extolled by Confucius conveyed distinctively human powers. They were not the ephemeral customs of a privileged class but a familiar and universal . . . dimension of [human] existence.

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D) performed by holy persons.Although one has to labor long and hard to learn li, and although without li, one cannot possess that perfect and peculiarly human virtue or power, there is no suggestion that only holy persons succeed in learning to perform social ceremonies or that persons who practice holy rites become holy themselves.

Solution

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116. What does Austin's concept of performative utterances imply about language?A) Language has no direct relationship to actions.

Austins idea is that language sometimes is the action to which it refers.

B) Language is sometimes used to conceal facts.Although performative utterances may sometimes be intended to conceal factse.g., a false declaration made under oaththis use of language is not implicit in the concept.

C) Language and actions can be inseparable.Austins idea, that innumerable statements . . . are the very execution of the act itself means that in declarations in which the verb refers to ones own current linguist act (I admit . . ., I assure you . . ., I name you . . .), language is inseparable from the action being taken.

D) Language is necessary for social conventions.The idea that social conventions involve ritual words (but not that they requirethem) is implicit in the passage. However, this idea is not implied by the concept of performative utterances, which refers to particular forms of ceremonial speech, not to social conventions in general.

Solution

117. The author argues that people bind themselves more inescapably through words or ceremony than through strategies or force. Which of the following claims, if true, would most WEAKEN the argument?

A) People rarely try to meet their moral obligations.Moral obligations are often expressed socially by ceremonial vows and promises. A general tendency to violate moral obligations would therefore directly

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Guess contravene the argument that ones own words and the ceremonies in which one participates are more binding on ones behavior than are external constraints.

B) People rarely act ceremoniously.A rarity of ceremonious actions would not indicate that they are not considered binding. On the contrary it would suggest an appreciation of their seriousness.

C) People often respond to force or strategies.The demonstrated power of external forces to compel behavior is irrelevant to the argument that the force of ceremoniously undertaken obligations is even stronger.

D) People often avoid making promises.A disinclination to make promises would not indicate that such ceremonious acts are not considered binding (see response B).

Solution

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118. According to the author's account, a Confucian would be likely to place a high value on a person who is:

A) gifted at creating magical illusions.The forces at work in li are invisible and intangible, but they are also familiar and universal in humans, not illusory, and there is no suggestion that they create illusions. The idea of giftedness also seems antithetical to Confucian thought, not only because of the universality of the powers it concerns but because of the difficulty of perfecting them through li.

B) sensitive to the feelings evoked by ceremonial acts.The author suggests that a Confucian would value those who show consideration for others by equating the ceremonious manner and ritual speech of li with politeness: I turn politely, i.e., ceremonially . . . [and] express in an appropriate and polite (ritual) formula my wish.

C) clever in applying techniques of verbal persuasion.Cleverness in the manipulation of others implies a lack of the reverence and spiritual qualities that characterize li. The term verbal techniques also trivializes the Confucian concept of sacred forces.

D) talented at teaching philosophical abstractions.

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The Confucian teachings did not concern philosophical abstractions but the entire body of the authentic tradition and reasonable conventions of society, and the passage suggests that a Confucian would value a practitioner of li more highly than a teacher of abstract ideas. Furthermore, the word talented implies inherent ability, whereas one has to labor long and hard to learn li.

Solution

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119. People often use conventionally polite words and behavior toward those whom they do not respect. What question might this information reasonably suggest about the author's explanation of li?

A) Whether the forces at work in li are necessarily invisible Whether a disrespectful attitude can be detected beneath superficial politeness is irrelevant to the invisible forces at work in li, which are rooted in reverent dignity.

B) Whether li might not be just cynical manipulationSee rationale A.

C) Whether the English words ritual and ceremony adequately convey the reverence of liThe fact that in our culture, the conventions of politeness often mask an underlying lack of respect suggests that the spiritual quality of the Confucian teachings about traditional forms is not adequately conveyed by such English nouns as ritual and ceremony. This consideration probably influenced the author to modify these nouns with the adjectives holy and sacred when using them in reference to li.

D) Whether li might express contempt as well as respectSee rationale A.

Solution

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120. The author's claim that some popular songwriters can be "dedicated, energetic poets" is supported by:

A) the testimony of some literature teachers.Although some teachers of literature are exempted from the general indifference that the passage author considers common, no testimony from them is cited.

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B) examples of popular song lyrics.No example of song lyrics is provided.

C) comparison with more academic poets.These song writers are more interesting than many of the . . . randy academics.

D) an analysis of Coleridge's poetry.The name Coleridge is simply mentioned as an item on a curriculum.

Solution

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121. The author most likely believes that one of the main purposes of teaching fiction and poetry should be to provide students with:

A) an awareness of major literary themes.The author writes disparagingly and rather sarcastically of this restriction in literary instruction: since the life-enhancing value of a course in literature is difficult to measuresince, moreover, many people in a position to put pressure on educational programs have no real experience in or feeling for the artsit is often tempting to treat life-enhancement courses as courses in useful information . . . [so] books are taught . . . because, as a curriculum committee might put it, they illustrate major themes in American literature.

B) a sense of objectivity.Putting a course in literature on the same objective level as courses in civics, geometry, or elementary physics is attributed to ignorance.

C) an ability to analyze texts.Although the passage author acknowledges that the message of anthologies designed to teach analysis is in important ways true, the passage opposes the classroom emphasis on form: the whole idea of the close critical analysis of literary works has had the accidental side effect of leading to the notion that the chief virtue of good poetry and fiction is instructional.

D) engaging experiences.The passage author evidently believes that the business of education is to give the student life-enhancing experience, the incomparably rich experience we ask and expect of all true art, experiences that can delight and enliven the soul.

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Solution

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122. Given the information in the passage, if "drugstore fiction" were taught in literature classes, which of the following outcomes would most likely occur?

A) Teachers would realize that the interpretation of literature varies depending on students' reading skills.The concepts of various interpretations and differential reading skills are not addressed.

B) Committees would change curriculum objectives for most literature courses.The passage author contends that in planning the curricula of literature courses, academic committees choose books that illustrate major themes in American literature, or present a clearly stated point of view. The passage does not suggest that these objectives would change if the curricula included popular fiction.

C) Students would enjoy the classes more.Drugstore paperbacks are cited as an example of the kinds of poetry and fiction that go most directly to those values we associate with simple entertainment.

D) Students would better understand literary terms like "point of view."Since the analytic emphasis in literature classes is attributed to people who have no real experience in or feeling for the arts, the inclusion of popular fiction in literary courses would probably not affect this emphasis. Nevertheless, the passage provides no reason to conclude that textual analysis would be better served by the popular works than by traditional course materials.

Solution

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123. The author suggests that the study of literature is much less rewarding when it:A) focuses solely on critical analysis.

According to the passage author, the rewarding aspect of works of literature is that they give joy, the incomparably rich experience we ask and expect of all true art. This experience occurs during reading; it is immediate. It is therefore presumably weakened during a careful analysis of the text for its exploration of ideas [and] . . . development of the implications of a theme.

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B) does not provide students with useful information.The passage author opposes the treatment of life-enhancement courses as courses in useful information and extols reading for pleasure as the rewarding experience offered by literature. This position implies that a disregard for useful information would be more likely to enhance than to reduce the rewards of literary study.

C) concentrates on the pleasures of merely commercial entertainments.While acknowledging the boring sameness found at its extreme in the scripts of television Westerns, cop-shows, and situation comedies . . . [which are] merelycommercial, the passage author does not condemn all commercial entertainment nor denigrate the pleasure it can provide, arguing that popular song writers can be . . . more interesting than many [contemporary 'serious writers] . . . and that drugstore fiction can often have more to offer than fiction thought to be of a higher class.

D) is treated as a life-enhancing experience.The life-enhancing value of courses in literature is asserted. The problem identified by the passage author is that this value is misunderstood by insensitive but influential persons and so supplanted by inappropriate criteria that are more easily measured.

Solution

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124. Suppose the majority of high-school students have read at least one work by the science-fiction writer Isaac Asimov for a literature class. This new information would most CHALLENGE the claim that:

A) no piece of fiction can be lasting if it is simpleminded.They would presumably not be simpleminded but rather among the drugstore fiction that has more to offer than fiction thought to be of a higher class. Furthermore, the information provided does not imply that the works chosen had already proved to have lasting merit.

B) literature courses usually meet prescribed curriculum objectives.No information is offered about over-all course content. However, even if the classes deal exclusively with popular works, the passage argument does not justify the conclusion that supposedly analytic curriculum objectives have been jeopardized. The works students read and the success of teachers in meeting their instructional goals are separate issues.

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C) the people who determine school curricula are generally ignorant of literature.The reason for the curriculum choices is not apparent. The inclusion of works by Asimov might indicate either an appreciation of their originality and interest or the ignorance of those with no real experience in or feeling for the arts.

D) literature teachers are prejudiced against popular genres.The passage implies that teachers of literature have some latitude in choosing the works covered in their classes. Therefore, the information that the science fiction was read for high-school classes suggests that many teachers of literature are not prejudiced against popular genres.

Solution

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125. The passage suggests that the most favorable portrayal that Euripides gave of the Olympian gods was to interpret them as:

A) psychological forces.In a period when obvious attacks on the Olympian gods might be severely punished, a writer would have been foolish to denigrate them consistently. The passage author indicates that Euripidess portrayal of the gods (as in the Bacchae) as profound psychological forces was relatively favorable by contrasting it with his treatment of them elsewhere as shady seducers or discredited figures of fun.

B) Divine Saviours.The divine saviors appeared in the Hellenistic age, which followed the time of Euripides.

C) inquisitive spirits.The adjective inquisitive refers to the spirit of Euripides, not to the gods.

D) figures of fun.The negative tone of figures of fun is indicated both by the introductory phrase was capable of presenting them as and by the adjective discredited.

Solution

126. Suppose that Socrates had said to his prosecutors, "I will obey my god rather than you." How would this information affect the claim that the prosecutors were correctto accuse Socrates of not believing in the city gods?

A) It would refute the claim.See rationale B.

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GuessB) It would support the claim.

The unelaborated designation my god would permit no inference about the orthodoxy of Socrates. Although the possessive pronoun my suggests the concept of a personal god rather than one worshipped by an entire city, and the singular noun god implies the exclusion of some of these gods, the statement may indicate only a preference for a particular god in the city pantheon. These points would have to be resolved to determine whether the prosecutors were correct in their accusation.

C) It would support the claim if it could be shown that the god to whom Socrates referred was an Olympian figure.Since the Olympian powers implicitly included the gods in whom the city believes, the allegiance of Socrates to one of these powers would support the accusation that he did not believe in [any] of the city gods only if the god in question were not also specifically associated with the city.

D) It would support the claim if it could be shown that the god to whom Socrates referred was not an Olympian figure.Since the Olympian powers implicitly included the gods in whom the city believes, the demonstration that the god obeyed by Socrates was not among these powers would confirm the accusation that he did not believe in the city gods.

Solution

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127. Suppose it is discovered that a Stoic philosopher originated the traditional portrayal of the Olympian god Zeus as the source of thunder. How would this information affect the author's claims about the Stoics?

A) It would support the claim that the Stoics reinterpreted individual deities as explanations of natural phenomena.The discovery that Zeus was first portrayed as the source of thunder by a Stoic would imply that the identification of a god with a force of nature accorded with the Stoic philosophy, supporting the passage assertion that Stoics reinterpreted and accommodated many individual deities as merely allegorical explanations of natural phenomena.

B) It would support the claim that the Stoics came to regard the Olympian gods as merely symbolic.Although they reinterpreted and accommodated many individual deities as merely allegorical, the Stoics maintained their belief in divine Providence and

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are therefore contrasted, in the phrase even the Stoics, with those who regarded all Olympian gods as merely symbolic.

C) It would weaken the claim that the Stoics believed in divine Providence.The idea that Zeus is the source of thunder can be interpreted literally (as a human-like god hurling thunderbolts) as well as allegorically (as a personification of the godlike power of thunder). The former interpretation is clearly consistent with a belief in divine Providence, and the latter is not necessarily inconsistent with it.

D) It would weaken the claim that the Stoics produced numerous slighting references to the Olympian gods.These references are not attributed to the Stoics but to an extended period of time: the early Hellenistic age that followed produced numerous slighting references to the Olympian powers.

Solution

Guess

128. The claim that religion was one of the most vital elements in the Hellenistic world is based mainly on the:

A) comments of St. Paul regarding pagan Hellenism.This assessment was that the Hellenistic religion was worthless: St. Paul . . . saw pagan Hellenism as a world without hope and without God.

B) existence of cults devoted to Divine Saviours.This assertion is a conclusion based on the discussion in the final paragraph of the emergence of various influential cults devoted to a belief in divine saviors while the Olympian gods continued to receive ceremonial worship.

C) writings of Menander and Epicurus.Menander and Epicurus both wrote that the traditional city gods, if they existed, were indifferent to human misery. This conclusion implies that religion was not a vital element in the Hellenistic world.

D) idea that Olympian gods had once been human kings.The idea that the gods had descended from humans was: little more than a rationalization of atheism.

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Solution

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129. The Iliad and the Homeric Hymns are cited in the passage as evidence for the claim that:

A) the rationalist movements of the fifth century diminished the reputations of the Olympian gods.The two works are not identified with the rationalist movements. Furthermore, these movements are dated in the later fifth century B.C. and the adverb furtherindicates that this period followed the age in which the two works were produced.

B) poets believed that the old gods were no longer a matter of serious concern.Homer is not explicitly identified as a poet. However, even if this knowledge is assumed, his flippant treatment of the gods in two works is not presented as indicative of the beliefs of poets in general.

C) Greeks had a tendency to treat the Olympian gods irreverently.The Greeks is the subject of the first sentence of the passage. The second sentence implicitly refers to the Greeks in asserting that there had always been a tendency . . . to treat the gods with a certain familiar flippancy and cites the two works as clear early evidence of this tendency: this is already very apparent in the Iliad and the Homeric Hymns.

D) some Greeks believed that the gods of the city were indifferent.The Athenians hymn proposing that the city gods were indifferent is not associated with either of the two works. Furthermore, this proposal was made meanwhile i.e., during the early Hellenistic age that followed [the time of the rationalist movements, Euripides, and Socrates]. The hymn therefore dates from a period long after the time of Homer (see rationale A).

Solution

Guess

130. The passage suggests that, before Callimachus and Theocritus, Greek poets presented portraits of the Olympian gods that were:

A) similar to sculpture.It is the approach of the poets Callimachus and Theocritus, not that of their pre-Hellenistic predecessors, that is likened to that of the sculptors of their time.

B) flippant and unflattering.The assertions that there had always been a tendency . . . to treat the gods with a certain familiar flippancy and that Euripides was capable of presenting them as

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shady seducers or discredited figures of fun do not imply that pre-Hellenistic poetry in general portrayed the gods disrespectfully. If the passage author had meant to convey this idea, the Hellenistic poets Callimachus and Theocritus would not have been characterized as living in an age when the old gods were no longera matter of belief or serious concern.

C) virtually atheistic.The Greeks were traditionally a religious people, and the attitude toward the gods attributed to the earlier Greek poets does not suggest atheism: a certain familiar flippancy and an assault on their reputation by Euripides, who nevertheless interpreted them as profound psychological forces.

D) highly idealized.The comparison of Callimachus and Theocritus to Hellenistic sculptors, who began to represent some of these gods in much less idealistic forms than those their predecessors had favoured, implies that the poets who preceded these two had also idealized the gods. The statement that the two poets were living in an age when the old gods were no longer a matter of belief or serious concern also implies that earlier poetry had expressed reverence toward the gods.

Solution

Guess

131. The passage as a whole suggests that in order for a religion to retain its vitality, it must:

A) abandon the search for miraculous gifts.The passage suggests, on the contrary, that the savior cults supplanted the pagan gods by promising miraculous gifts that everyone strongly desired.

B) respond in some way to people's needs.The idea that religions can thrive only if they respond to human needs is implicit throughout the passage: Many people had come to regard them as merelysymbolic . . . merely allegorical explanations of natural phenomena; the gods of the city . . . were at least indifferent; the traditional gods seemed able to do nothing to ease peoples daily encounters with the vicissitudes of Hellenistic life; a world without hope . . .; Saviours were relied on, passionately, for . . . the conferment of strength and holiness to endure our present life . . . [and] immortality and happiness after death.

C) answer the challenges set forth by rationalists.Rationalism is not presented as the principal reason for the decline of the

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Olympian gods: Pagan religion was not already dying or dead when Christianity overtook it; it had remained very lively indeed. But it had deviated . . ..

D) be attractive to poets and other artists.The passage does not imply that Greek paganism was uncongenial to artists in particular or that they incited devout people against it. It cites the writers and artists of ancient Greece as recorders of views that were prevalent in the population: A general tendency to flippancy toward the gods is apparent in poetry; Euripides presented the gods irreverently on stage at the same time that Socrates questioned traditions; poetry reflected the beliefs and concerns of an age.

Solution

Guess

132. The author's main point about television is that it:A) relies predominantly on series for its programming.

This statement is made only to support the point that such programming gives viewers the comfort of familiarity, part of the argument that television viewing produces passivity and inertia.

B) portrays life more realistically than Hollywood films do.Television programs are contrasted with Hollywood films only once, to make the point that television is a reality factory. That is, television only seems to portray life realistically (unlike the dreams provided by Hollywood), while manufacturing a false version of it.

C) uses emotional appeals as part of its news reports.The passage refers to the viewers emotional response to news reports (not to deliberate emotional appeals by reporters or victims), and the point of the reference is that the segmented presentation of the news neither enables viewers to resolve empathetic feelings nor encourages them to take action. But the main focus of the passage is not news reporting or the public response to it; it is the synthetic realism of television as a whole.

D) presents a sanitized version of reality.The author distinguishes between being true to life, as television is, and life itself, arguing that the predictable and scripted naturalism of television lacks the complexity, spontaneity, and passion of real life.

133. The passage suggests that television newscasters attempt to do which of the

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Solution

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following to their viewers?A) Encourage them to stay passive

Implicitly, television newscasters intend to induce passivity, since the reward of being a viewer depends on staying passiveif we are moved to leave the viewing chair we may miss the next program. Such movement then is rarely any part of a newscasters program: stay tuned is the eleventh and commanding commandment.

B) Help th

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