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New Text Document Law objective solved question papers Law objective solved question papers Solved Sample Question Paper Law Admission Modal test Paper of Law 1. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention? (A) Writ of Prohibition (B) Writ of Mandamus (C) Writ of Habeas Corpus (D) Writ of Quo Warranto Ans:-C 2. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution of— (A) U.S.A. (B) Canada (C) Ireland (D) Russia Ans:-C 3. Give the correct response— Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not discriminate against any citizen on ground only of— (A) Religion, race, sex and place of birth (B) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and descent (C) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth (D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them Ans:-D 4. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void? (A) Article 12 (B) Articlrl3 (C) Article 11 (D) Article 21 Ans:-B 5. Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution? (A) Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal (B) Government of India and the Parliament (C) British Airways Corporation (D) Bhopal Municipal Corporation Ans:-C 6. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to— (A) Citizens of India (B) Citizens of India and Foreigners (C) Both (A) and (B) above (D) Foreigners living in India Ans:-A 7. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution provision regarding unified civil code has been given? Page 1

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Page 1: Document2

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Law objective solved question papers

Law objective solved question papers

Solved Sample Question Paper Law Admission

Modal test Paper of Law

1. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention?

(A) Writ of Prohibition

(B) Writ of Mandamus

(C) Writ of Habeas Corpus

(D) Writ of Quo Warranto

Ans:-C

2. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution

of—

(A) U.S.A.

(B) Canada

(C) Ireland

(D) Russia

Ans:-C

3. Give the correct response— Article 15(1) prohibits that the state shall not

discriminate against any citizen on ground only of—

(A) Religion, race, sex and place of birth

(B) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth and descent

(C) Religion, race, caste, creed, sex or place of birth

(D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them

Ans:-D

4. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental

rights are declared void?

(A) Article 12

(B) Articlrl3

(C) Article 11

(D) Article 21

Ans:-B

5. Which one of the following does not fall within the meaning of ‘State’ under

Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Barkatullah Vishwavidyalaya, Bhopal

(B) Government of India and the Parliament

(C) British Airways Corporation

(D) Bhopal Municipal Corporation

Ans:-C

6. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article

19 of the Constitution are available only to—

(A) Citizens of India

(B) Citizens of India and Foreigners

(C) Both (A) and (B) above

(D) Foreigners living in India

Ans:-A

7. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution provision regarding

unified civil

code has been given?

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(A) 43rd

(B) 44th

(C) 46th

(D) 47th

Ans:-B

8. For the post of President of India the minimum age of the person should be—

(A) 21 years

(B) 25 years

(C) 30 years

(D) 35 years

Ans:-D

9. Who does not have the right to vote in the election of President of India?

(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(B) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha

(C) President’s nominee in Rajya Sabha

(D) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans:-C

10. By the Presidents Employment and Pension (Amendment) Act, 1998, the salary of

the President has been enhanced to—

(A) From Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 20,000 per month

(B) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 25,000 per month

(C) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 50,000 per month

(D) From Rs. 20,000 to Rs. 45,000 per month

Ans:-C

11. When the office of the Chief Justice of India is vacant or when the Chief

Justice is by reason of absence or otherwise unable to perform the duties of his

office, the duties of his office shall be performed by—

(A) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the Chief Justice of India

(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court appointed by the President of India

(C) Any senior most judge of the Supreme Court after the Chief Justice

(D) Any one of the above

Ans:-B

12. Legal sovereignty in India resides in the Constitution itself and not in ‘we the

people of India’. This ideology was expressed in—

(A) Lucknow Development Authority V/s A.K. Gupta case

(B) Sankari Prasad case

(C) Golak Nath case

(D) Keswanand Bharti’s case

Ans:-D

13. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court observed that labour taken

from prisoners without paying proper remunerations comes within forced labour?

(A) Deena V/s Union of India

(B) Menka Gandhi V/s Union of India

(C) Sanjit Roy V/s State of Rajasthan

(D) All of the above

Ans:-A

14. Under which of the following Articles the President of India has a right to

suspend the implementation of fundamental rights during proclamation of emergency?

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(A) Article 359

(B) Article 360

(C) Article 354

(D) Article 353

Ans:-A

15. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution the Supreme Court

has powers to review its decisions?

(A) Article 135

(B) Article 136

(C) Article 137

(D) Article 143

Ans:-C

16. Which one of the following is not essential for an offence?

(A) Intention

(B) Motive

(C) Prohibited act

(D) Punishment for act

Ans:-B

17.In which of the following means rea has been considered to be an essential

element of an offence?

(A) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor

(B) R, V/s Tolson

(C) Nathulal V/s State of Madhya Pradesh

(D) In all of the above

Ans:-D

18. The grounds for punishing Prince in R. V/s Prince was—

(A) Prohibited act done by Prince

(B) Illegal act done by Prince

(C) Knowingly committing of civil wrong by Prince

(D) Illegal and prohibited act done by Prince

Ans:-D

19. Who amongst the following has observed that under the Indian Penal Code such a

maxim ‘Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea’ is wholly out of place?

(A) J.D. Mayne, Criminal Law of India

(B) H.S. Gour, Penal Law of India

(C) Ratan Lal Dheeraj Lal, Law of Crimes

(D) All of the above

Ans:-D

20. Which one of the following preparation is not an offence?

(A) Preparation for robbery of a Bank

(B) Preparation of dacoity in a Bank

(C) To make die for counterfeiting coins

(D) To make die for counterfeiting Indian coins.

Ans:-A

21. For abduction the abducted person should be—

(A) Below 16 years of age

(B) Below 18 years of age

(C) Insane person

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(D) Of any age

Ans:-D

22. A does sexual intercourse with a widow below 16 years of age with her consent—

(A) A has not committed rape

(B) A has committed adultery

(C) A has committed rape with B

(D) Nothing above is correct

Ans:-C

23. A male teacher during examination, while conducting search, put his hands in the

pocket of the pant of a girl candidate thinking her to be a boy. Here the teacher,

under the Penal Code, has committed the offence under Section—

(A) 354

(B) 323

(C) 509

(D) No offence

Ans:-D

24. The case of Bachan Singh V/s State of Punjab is concerned with—

(A) Capital punishment in India

(B) Custody of under trial prisoners

(C) Prosecution for attempted suicide

(D) None of the above

Ans:-A

25. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction between

‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’?

(A) Barendra Kumar Ghosh V/s Emperor

(B) Mahboob Shah V/s King Emperor

(C) Srinivasmal Barolia V/s Emperor

(D) Bannu Mal V/s Emperor

Ans:-B

26. In connection with the right of a private defence of body give the correct

response—

(A) This right is not available against an unsound person.

(B) This right is not available against a person below 7 years of age

(C) This right is available against any person

(D) This right is not available against parents

Ans:-C

27. A and B both are of 16 years of age. A entices B for marriage and takes her to

another city. What offence has been committed by A?

(A) A has committed kidnapping

(B) A has committed no offence as B has gone with her own consent

(C) A has committed abduction

(D) A is himself minor. Hence A has committed no offence

Ans:-A

28. A abets B to commit a theft from the house of C.B finding an opportunity picks

C’s pocket while C was travelling by a bus. Give the correct answer—

(A) A is responsible for abetment o theft

(B) A is not responsible for abetment of picking of pocket

(C) A is not responsible for abetment of committing theft because theft has

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not been committed from the house

(D) All the above are correct

Ans:-A

29. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) In every robbery there are at least two persons

(B) In every robbery there is a fear of violence

(C) In every robbery there is either theft or extortion

(D) In every Dacoity there is robbery

Ans:-A

30. Which one of the following cases does not relate to intoxication?

(A) D.P.P. V/s Beard

(B) Basudeo V/s State of Pepsu

(C) R. V/s Mcnaughten

(D) R. V/s Tandy

Ans:-C

31. A snake-charmer while showing his play claims to cure the snake bite. The

deceased got himself a snake bite believing on assurance of the snake-charmer. The

snake- charmer could not cure the deceased. The snake-charmer is liable for—

(A) Murder

(B) Cheating

(C) May be liable for culpable homicide

(D) Liable for nothing

Ans:-A

32. Which one of the following is not correct?

(A) For theft property must be movable

(B) For theft property must be removed out of the possession of the owner of

property

(C) For theft property should have been removed for taking it away

(D) For theft property should be removed dishonestly

Ans:-B

33. A meets B on high roads, shows a pistol and demands B’s purse. B in consequence,

surrenders his purse. Here A has committed—

(A) Theft

(B) Extortion

(C) Robbery

(D) Dacoity

Ans:-C

34. Six persons are prosecuted for dacoity. The court released two of them for

benefit of doubt of Coinstar money transfer their identity. The rest four—

(A) Can be convicted for dacoity

(B) Cannot be convicted for dacoity

(C) Can be convicted for robbery because their number falls short of five

(D) None of the above is correct

Ans:-A

35. Which one of the following is not essential for the offence of affray?

(A) Number of persons is two or more than two

(B) Persons are members of unlawful assembly

(C) Fighting is at public place

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(D) Public peace is disturbed

Ans:-B

36. Mark the correct answer— The conditional order passed by a Magistrate under

Section 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code cannot be challenged in civil court. This

statement is—

(A) Wrong

(B) Correct

(C) Partly wrong

(D) Partly correct

Ans:-B

37. A was travelling from Bhopal to Jabalpur by Rajkot-Jabalpur Express Train. At

Itarsi A caused grievous hurt to B who was the resident of Jabalpur. Where will the

case be tried?

(A) At Bhopal from where A started his journey

(B) At Jabalpur of where B was the resident

(C) At Itarsi where A caused grievous hurt to B

(D) At the place where M.P. High Court decides

Ans:-C

38. Which of the following Court can try a murder case?

(A) Magistrate 1st Class

(B) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(C) Additional Sessions Judge

(D) Any of these Courts

Ans:-C

39. Warrant case relates to an offence punishable with—

(A) More than one year imprisonment

(B) More than three years imprisonment

(C) Death penalty, life imprisonment or imprisonment more than two years

(D) More than five years imprisonment

Ans:-C

40. Under Section 145 of the Cr. P.C. in connection with a dispute on immovable

property, the executive magistrate prior to passing his orders as regards to

possession over such property which one of the following periods he takes into

consideration?

(A) One month

(B) Two months

(C) Four months

(D) Six months

Ans:-B

41. Under Section 106 of the Criminal Procedure code which of the following courts

has power to release the offender on security for keeping the peace and for good

behaviour?

(A) Sessions Court

(B) Magistrate 1st Class

(C) Appellate or Revisional Court

(D) All of the above

Ans:-D

42. Now under Section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code what payments per month can be

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ordered for maintenance?

(A) 50% on the basis of salary of the person

(B) Upto Rs. 500

(C) Upto Rs. 3,000

(D) As the Magistrate deems necessary in the circumstances

Ans:-D

43. Which of the following cannot claim maintenance under Section 125 of the

Criminal

Procedure Code?

(A) Wife who cannot maintain herself

(B) Mother or father who cannot maintain herself or himself

(C) Major married daughter who cannot maintain herself

(D) Minor illegitimate daughter who cannot maintain herself

Ans:-C

44. For invoking Section 133 of Cr.P.C. where should not be the inconvenience or

invasion on—

(A) Public rights

(B) Public place

(C) Private place or private persons

(D) All of the above

Ans:-D

45. Under Section 29 of the Criminal Procedure Code the second class Magistrate can

pass sentence upto—

(A) 1 year

(B) 2 years

(C) 3 years

(D) All of these

Ans:-A

46. Which one of the following offences cannot be summarily tried?

(A) Grievous hurt

(B) Theft when the value of stolen property is below Rs. 200

(C) Offences relating to Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code

(D) Offence of abetment of the offences enumerated under Section 260(vii) of the

Criminal Procedure Code

Ans:-A

47. Under Chapter XXI of Criminal Procedure Code while adopting summary trial

maximum punishment cannot be passed more than—

(A) Two months

(B) Three months

(C) Four months

(D) One month

Ans:-B

48. Under Section 198 of the Criminal Procedure Code the court can take cognizance

of any offence laid down under Section 497 and 498 of the Indian Penal Code on the

complaint of—

(A) Husband of the woman

(B) Father of the woman

(C) Mother of the woman

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(D) Any of these

Ans:-A

49. Which one of the following proceedings is known as judicial proceeding?

(A) Investigation

(B) Enquiry and Investigation

(C) Enquiry and Trial

(D) Trial and Investigation

Ans:-C

50. Under Criminal Procedure Code to what maximum period an accused can be ordered

to be kept in police custody by the Magistrate?

(A) Three days

(B) Seven days

(C) Ten days

(D) Fifteen days

Ans:-D

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