2017... · a. phulaguri dhawa (1861) b. birsaite ulgulan (1899-1900) c. pabna revolt (1873) d....

www.gradeup.co

1

http://www.gradeup.com/

www.gradeup.co

2

1. Which one of the following tribal

groups is dominantly found in the

‘Blue Mountains’?

A. Lambadas B. Gonds

C. Jarawas D. Todas

2. Who among the following geographers

is related to ‘primate city’ concept?

A. August Losch B. Mark Jefferson

C. Griffith Taylor D. W. Christaller

3. Which one of the following islands is

the largest?

A. Borneo B. Madagascar

C. New Guinea D. Sumatra

4. Arrange the following Tiger Reserves

of India from North to South:

1. Dudhwa 2. Panna

3. Pench 4. Indravati

Select the correct answer using the

code given below.

A. 4, 3, 2, 1 B. 2, 1, 4, 3

C. 1, 2, 3, 4 D. 1, 3, 2, 4

5. Which one of the following proteins

given lustrous shiny appearance to silk

fibre?

A. Fibrin B. Sericin

C. Collagen D. Nectin

6. Blue Baby Syndrome is cause by the

contamination of

A. nitrite (𝑁𝑂2−) B. sulphite (𝑆𝑂3

2−) C. nitrate (𝑁𝑂3

−) D. sulphate (𝑆𝑂42−)

7. Match List –I with List-II and select

the correct answer using the code

given below the Lists:

List – I List – II

(Cell Organelle) (Function)

A. Mitochondria 1. Photosynthesis

B. Chloroplast 2. Protein

synthesis

C. Ribosomes 3. Intracellular

Digestion

B. Lysosomes 4. ATP formation

Code:

A. A B C D B. A B C D

3 1 2 4 3 2 1 4

C. A B C D D. A B C D

4 1 2 3 4 2 1 3

8. Human insulin molecule is composed

of one 𝛼-chain having 21 amino acids

and one 𝛽-chain having 30 amino

acids. How many functional insulin

genes occur in adult humans?

A. One B. Two

C. Three D. Four

9. Pearl is a hard object produced within

the soft tissues of a mollusc. Which

one of the following is the main

constituent of pearl?

A. Calcium carbonate

B. Calcium oxide

C. Calcium nitrate

D. Calcium sulphate

10. A biological community in its

environment such as a pond, an

ocean, a forest, even an aquarium is

known as

A. biome

B. community

C. abiotic environment

D. ecosystem

11. An electron and a proton starting from

rest are accelerated through a

potential difference of 1000 V. Which

one of the following statements in this

regard is correct?

A. The kinetic energy of both the

particles will be different.

B. The speed of the electron will be

higher than that of the proton.

C. The speed of the proton will be

higher than that of the electron.

D. The speed of the electron and the

proton will be equal.

12. Two wires are made having same

length 𝑙 and area of cross-section 𝐴.

Wire 1 is made of copper and wire 2 is

made of aluminium. It is given that

the electrical conductivity of copper is

more than that of aluminium. In this

context, which one of the following

statements is correct?

A. The resistance of wire 1 will be

higher than that of wire 2.

B. The resistance of wire 2 will be

higher than that of wire 1.

C. The resistance of both the wires will

be the same.

D. If same current is flown through

both the wires, the power dissipated in

both the wires will be the same.

13. A ray of light is incident on a plane

mirror at an angle of 40° with respect

of surface normal. When it gets

reflected from the mirror, it undergoes

a deviation of

A. 40° B. 100°

C. 90° D. 80°


www.gradeup.co

3

14. Infrared, visible and ultraviolet

radiations/ light have different

properties. Which one of the following

statements related to these

radiations/light is not correct?

A. The wavelength of infrared is more

than that of ultraviolet radiation.

B. The wavelength of ultraviolet is

smaller than that of visible light.

C. The photon energy of visible light is

more than that of infrared light.

D. The photon energy of ultraviolet is

lesser than that of visible light.

15. After using for some time, big

transformers get heated up. This is

due to the fact that

1. current produces heat in the

transformers

2. hysteresis loss occurs in the

transformers

3. liquid used for cooling gets heated


code given below.

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3

16S. A person is standing on a frictionless

horizontal ground. How can he move

by a certain distance on this ground?

A. By sneezing B. By jumping

C. By running D. By rolling

17. In the reaction between hydrogen

sulphate ion and water 𝐻𝑆𝑂4

− + 𝐻2𝑂 → 𝐻3𝑂+ + 𝑆𝑂4

2−

the water acts as

A. an acid B. a base

C. a salt D. an inert medium

18. How many hydrogen atoms are

contained in 1.50 g of glucose

(𝐶6𝐻12𝑂6)?

A. 3.01 × 1022 B. 1.20 × 1023

C. 2.40 × 1023 D. 6.02 × 1022

19. The paste of a white material in water

is used to maintain a fractured bone

fixed in place. The white material used

is called

A. bleaching powder

B. plaster of Paris

C. powder of zinc oxide

D. lime powder

20. Which one of types of glasses is used

for making optical instruments?

A. Pyrex glass B. Soft glass

C. Hard glass D. Flint glass

21. Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located

in the atmospheric layer of

A. ionosphere B. troposphere

C. stratosphere D. mesosphere

22. What are the main constituents of

biogas?

A. Methane and sulphur dioxide

B. Methane and carbon dioxide

C. Methane, hydrogen and nitric oxide

D. Methane and nitric oxide

23. In which two Indian States of the four

mentioned below, it is necessary to

hold certain minimum educational

qualifications to be eligible to contest

Panchayat Elections?

1. Punjab 2. Haryana

3. Karnataka 4. Rajasthan


code given below.

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 4

C. 2 and 3 D. 1 and 4

24. Which of the following statements

about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?

1. It is the abdication of responsibility.

2. It means conferring of specified

authority by a lower authority to a

higher one.

3. It is subject to supervision and

review.

4. It is a method of dividing authority

in the organization.


code given below.


C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4

25. Which of the following features were

borrowed by the Constitution of India

from the British Constitution?

1. Rule of Law

2. Law-making Procedure

3. Independence of Judiciary

4. Parliamentary System


code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4


26. Which of the following Schedules of

the Constitution of India has fixed the

number of Members of the Rajya

Sabha to be elected from each State?

A. Fifth Schedule B. Third Schedule

C. Sixth Schedule D. Fourth Schedule


www.gradeup.co

4

27. Which one of the following statements

about various horticulture crops of

India for the year 2016-17 is not

correct?

A. The area under horticulture crops

has increased over previous year.

B. Fruit production during the current

year is higher than the previous year.

C. Rate of increase in onion production

is more than potato production in the

current year in comparison to the

previous year.

D. The major tomato-growing States

are Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka,

Odisha and Gujarat.

28. The phenomenon of ‘demographic

dividend’ of a country relates to

A. a sharp decline in total population

B. an increase in working age

population

C. a decline in infant mortality rate

D. an increase in sex ration

29. Arrange the following events in

sequential order as they happened in

India:

1. Mahalanobis Model

2. Plan Holiday

3. Rolling Plan


code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 B. 3, 2, 1

C. 2, 3, 1 D. 1, 3, 2

30. The monetary policy in India uses

which of the following tools?

1. Bank rate

2. Open market operations

3. Public debt

4. Public revenue


code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

31. Devaluation of currency will be more

beneficial if prices of

A. domestic goods remain constant

B. exports become cheaper to

importers

C. imports remain constant

D. exports rise proportionately

Directions: The following five (5)

items consist of two statements,

Statement I and Statement II.

Examine these two statements and

select the correct answer using the

code given below.

Code:

A. Both the statements are individually

true and Statement II is the correct

explanation of Statement I

B. Both the statements are individually

true but Statement II is not the

correct explanation of Statement

C. Statement I is true but Statement

II is false

D. Statement I is false but Statement

II is true

32. Statement I:

Skin cancer is generally caused by the

ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II:

Stratosphere allows ultraviolet

radiation to enter the earth from the

sun.

33. Statement I:

The interior part of Maharashtra does

not receive adequate rain in the

summer season.

Statement II:

The interior part of Maharashtra lies in

the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.

34. Statement I:

Global warming signifies the rise in

global surface temperature.

Statement II:

The increase of concentration of

greenhouse gases in the atmosphere

causes the rise in global surface

temperature.

35. Statement I:

The communists left the All India

Trade Union Congress in 1931.

Statement II:

By 1928, the Communists were no

longer working with the mainstream

national movement.

36. Statement I:

The early Aryans, who were essentially

pastoral, did not develop any political

structure which could measure up to a

State in either ancient or modern

sense.


www.gradeup.co

5

Statement II:

Kingship was the same as tribal

chiefship; the term Rajan being used

for tribal chief who was primarily a

military leader and who ruled over his

people and not over any specified

area.

37. Which one of the following peasant

struggles was an outcome of British

opium policy?

A. Phulaguri Dhawa (1861)

B. Birsaite Ulgulan (1899-1900)

C. Pabna Revolt (1873)

D. Maratha Peasant Uprising (1875)


about the Sayyid brothers during the

period of Later Mughals is not true?

A. They brought Jahandar Shah to

power.

B. They wielded administrative power.

C. They followed a tolerant religious

policy.

D. They reached an agreement with

King Shahu.

39. Which of the following statements with

regard to the heterodox sect between

sixth and fourth century BC are

correct?

1. The Jain ideas were already being

circulated in the seventh century BC

by Parshva.

2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser

extent Jainism, took account of the

changes in material life and reacted

against orthodoxy, neither of these

sought to abolish the caste system.

3. The first female disciple of Mahavira

is said to have been a captures slave

woman.

4. Buddha held that nuns could attain

spiritual liberation just like a monk and

granted them an equal status in the

mendicant order.


code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 1, 2 and 4 only

D. 3 and 4 only

40. Which one of the following

combinations of year and event

concerning the French Revolution is

correctly matched?

A. 1789 : Napoleonic Code

B. 1791 : Tennis Court Oath

C. 1792 : National Convention

D. 1804 : New Constitution of France

41. Who among the following is the author

of the book, The Social Contract?

A. Voltaire B. Hobbes

C. Locke D. Rousseau

42. Who among the following is the

recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016?

A. Shankha Ghosh

B. Raghuveer Chaudhari

C. Pratibha Ray

D. Rehman Rahi

43. The Sustainable Development Goals

(SDGs), which were adopted by the

UNO in place of the Millennium

Development Goals (MDGs), 2015,

aim to achieve the 17 goals by the

year

A. 2020 B. 2030

C. 2040 D. 2050

44. Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S.

Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016,

is an exponent in

A. Kannada classical vocal

B. Kajari dance

C. Bihu dance

D. Pandavani, a traditional performing

art

45. Who among the following is the

recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke

Award, 2016?

A. Nana Patekar B. Manoj Kumar

C. Javed Akhtar D. K. Viswanath

46. The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year

2016 was given to

A. David J. Thouless

B. F. Duncan M. Haldane

C. J. Michael Kosterlitz

D. All of them

47. Which one of the following political

parties was launched by Irom

Sharmila in Manipur?

A. People’s Resurgence and Justice

Alliance

B. Manipur Resistance Alliance

C. Tribal Resistance Party

D. Revolutionary People’s Party


www.gradeup.co

6

48. Which one of the following planets was

explored by Cassini Mission launched

by NASA, which ended in September

2017?

A. Sun B. Neptune

C. Saturn D. Jupiter

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the

correct answer using the code given

below the Lists:


(Strait) (Countries)

A. Bass Strait 1. UK and France

B. Davis Strait 2. Australia and

Tasmania

C. Dover Strait 3. USA and Cuba

D. Florida Strait 4. Canada and

Greenland

Code:


2 4 1 3 2 1 4 3


3 4 1 2 3 1 4 2



below the Lists:


(Pass) (Place)

A. Zoji La 1. Himachal

Pradesh

B. Shipki La 2. Uttrakhand

C. Lipulekh 3. Jammu and

Kashmir

D. Nathu La 4. Sikkim

Code:


4 2 1 3 4 1 2 3


3 1 2 4 3 2 1 4



below the Lists:


(Concern) (Product)

A. TISCO 1. Chemicals

B. BALCO 2. Iron & Steel

C. BPCL 3. Electronics

D. BEL 4. Aluminium

Code:


2 1 4 3 2 4 1 3


3 4 1 2 3 1 4 2



below the Lists:


(National Highway) (Route)

A. NH-2 1. Delhi-Jaipur-

Ahmedabad-

Mumbai

B. NH-4 2. Thane-Pune-

Bengaluru-

Chennai

C. NH-7 3. Delhi-Agra-

Allahabad-

Kolkata

D. NH-8 4. Varanasi-

Jabalpur

-Nagpur-

Hyderabad-

Bengaluru-

Madurai-

Kanyakumari

Code:


3 4 2 1 1 2 4 3


1 4 2 3 3 2 4 1

53. One carbon credit is accepted as

equivalent to

A. 100 kg of carbon

B. 100 kg of carbon dioxide

C. 1000 kg of carbon

D. 1000 kg of carbon dioxide

54. An emulsion consists of

A. one liquid and one solid

B. one liquid and one gas

C. two liquids

D. two solids

55. Which of the following radioactive

substances enters/enter the human

body through food chain and

causes/cause many physiological

disorders?

A. Strontium-90 B. Iodine-131

C. Cesium-137 D. All of the above

56. ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

A. landscaping related to save water

B. landscaping related to save soil

C. weathering of rock surface

D. All of the above


www.gradeup.co

7

57. Joule-Thomson process is extremely

useful and economical for attaining

low temperature. The process can be

categorized as

A. isobaric process

B. isoenthalpic process

C. adiabatic process

D. isochoric process

58. Ultrasonic waves are produced by

making use of

A. ferromagnetic material

B. ferromagnetic material

C. piezoelectric material

D. pyroelectric material

59. A person throws an object on a

horizontal frictionless plane surface. It

is noticed that there are two forces

acting on this object – (i) gravitational

pull and (ii) normal reaction of the

surface. According to the third law of

motion, the net resultant force is zero.

Which one of the following can be said

for the motion of the object?

A. The object will move with

acceleration.

B. The object will move with

deceleration.

C. The object will move with constant

speed, but varying direction.

D. The object will move with constant

velocity.

60. Consider the following statements:

1. The chain reaction process is used

in nuclear bombs to release a vast

amount of energy, but in nuclear

reactors, there is no chain reaction.

2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is

controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the

reaction is uncontrolled.

3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating

reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no

question of ‘criticality’ in case of a

nuclear bomb.

4. Nuclear reactors do not use

moderators, while nuclear bombs use

them.

Which of the above statements about

operational principles of a nuclear

reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are

correct?

A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 3

C. 4 only D. 1 and 4

61. The foul smell of urine of a healthy

man having healthy food, when spilled

on floor, is mainly due to the bacterial

decomposition of

A. urea into sulphur dioxide

B. sugar into carbon dioxide

C. lipids into methane

D. urea into ammonia

62. Desalination of seawater is done by

using reverse osmosis. The pressure

applied to the solution is

A. larger than osmotic pressure

B. smaller than osmotic pressure

C. equal to osmotic pressure

D. equal to atmospheric pressure

63. Which one of the following polymers

does not contain glucose units?

A. Glycogen B. Starch

C. Cellulose D. Rubber

64. Tincture of iodine is an antiseptic for

fresh wounds. It is a dilute solution of

elemental iodine, which does not

contain

A. water B. acetone

C. alcohol D. potassium

iodine

65. The Fundamental Rights guaranteed in

the Constitution of India can be

suspended only by

A. a proclamation of National

Emergency

B. an Act passed by the Parliament

C. an amendment to the Constitution

of India

D. the judicial decisions of the

Supreme Court


about the 73rd and 74th Constitution

Amendment Act is/are correct?

1. It makes it mandatory for all States

to establish a three-tier system of

Government.

2. Representatives should be directly

elected for five years.

3. There should be mandatory

reservation of one-third of all seats in

all Panchayats at all levels for women.


code given below.


C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 only


www.gradeup.co

8

67. A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is

resorted to, for resolving the deadlock

between two Houses of the Parliament

for passing which of the following

Bills?

1. Money Bill

2. Constitutional Amendment Bill

3. Ordinary Bill


code given below.


C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3


is/are correct?

1. The Directive Principles of State

Policy are meant for promoting social

and economic democracy in India.

2. The Fundamental Rights enshrined

in Par III of the Constitution of India

are ordinarily subject to reasonable

restrictions.

3. Secularism is one of the basic

features of Constitution of any

country.


code given below.

A. 1 only B. 2 only


69. The President of India is elected by an

Electoral College comprising of elected

members of which of the following?

1. Both the Houses of the Parliament

2. The Legislative Assemblies of States

3. The Legislative Councils of States

4. The Legislative Assemblies of NCT

of Delhi and Puducherry


code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4

70. Consider the following statements

about the Scheduled Castes and the

Scheduled Tribes under the provisions

of the Constitution of India:

1. State can make any special

provision relating to their admission to

the Government educational

institutions.



the private educational institutions

aided by the State.



the private educational institutions not

aided by the State.



the minority educational institutions as

described in Article 30.

Which of the statements given above

are correct?


C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

71. Article 21 of the Constitution of India

includes

1. Rights of transgenders

2. Rights of craniopagus twins

3. Rights of mentally retarded women

to bear a child


code given below.



72. Who among the following was not a

member of the Drafting Committee of

the Constituent Assembly?

A. N.G. Ayyangar

B. K.M. Munshi

C. B.N. Rau

D. Muhammad Saadulah

73. Due to which of the following factors,

the Industrial Revolution took place in

England in the eighteenth century?

1. The discovery of coal and iron

deposits

2. The discovery of steam power

3. The introduction of railways

4. The regular supply of raw materials


code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. Which of the following indicators have

been used by the World Economic

Forum to calculate Global

Competitiveness Index for 2016-17?

1. Efficiency enhancer subindex

2. Innovation and sophistication

factors subindex

3. Life expectancy enhancer subindex


code given below.




www.gradeup.co

9

75. In India, the base year of the new

GDP series has been shifted from

2004-05 to

A. 2007-08 B. 2008-09

C. 2010-11 D. 2011-12



below the Lists:


(Type of Deficit) (Explanation)

A. Fiscal Deficit 1. Total

Expenditure-

Revenue

Receipts

& Non-debt

Capital Receipts

B. Revenue Deficit 2. Revenue

Expenditure-

Revenue

Receipts

C. Effective 3. Revenue Deficit-

Revenue Deficit Grants for

Creations of

Capital Assets

D. Primary Deficit 4. Fiscal Deficit-

Interest

Payments

Code:


1 2 3 4 1 3 2 4


4 2 3 1 4 3 2 1

77. Consider the following:

1. Tughlaqabad Fort

2. Bada Gumbad in Lodhi Garden

3. Qutub Minar

4. Fatehpur Sikri

Which one of the following is the

correct chronological order of building

the above monuments?

A. 3, 1, 4, 2 B. 3, 1, 2, 4

C. 1, 3, 2, 4 D. 1, 3, 4, 2

78. With regard to nature of Mughal State,

who among the following scholars

argued that “the peculiar feature of

the State in Mughal India was that it

served not merely as the protective

arm of the exploiting classes, but was

itself the principal instrument of

exploitation”?

A. Irfan Habib B. Satish Chandra

C. Athar Ali D. J.F. Richards

79. Match List –I with List-II and select

the correct answer using the code

given below the Lists:

List - I List - II

(Type of Land) (Meaning)

A. Urvara 1. Land watered by

a river

B. Maru 2. Fertile land

C. Nadimatrika 3. Land watered by

rain

D. Devamatrika 4. Desert land

Code:


2 1 4 3 3 4 1 2


3 1 4 2 2 4 1 3

80. Who was the editor of the journal

Indian Social Reformer that was

started in 1890?

A. K.T. Telang

B. Veeresalingam

C. N.G. Chandavarkar

D. K.N. Natarajan



below the Lists:


(Industrial Region) (Country)

A. Leipzig 1. USA

B. Detroit 2. UK

C. Lorraine 3. France

D. Cumberland 4. Germany

Code:


2 1 3 4 4 3 1 2


4 1 3 2 2 3 1 4



below the Lists:


(Mountain Range) (Location in Map)

A. Satpura

B. Vindhya

C. Aravalli

D. Mahadeo

Code:


4 2 1 3 3 1 2 4


3 2 1 4 4 1 2 3


www.gradeup.co

10

83. Which of the following statements in

respect to the Indian Peninsular

Plateau are correct?

1. The Deccan Plateau gradually rises

from North to South.

2. The Malwa Plateau dominates the

Vindhyan scarps, forming the Eastern

flank of the plateau.

3. The Western Satpuras separate the

Narmada and Tapi rivers.

4. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is

composed of Archaean granite and

gneiss rocks.


code given below.

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2 and 4 only D. 1 and 3 only

84. Which one of the following criteria got

the highest weight for determination

of shares of States in the formula

given by the 14th Finance Commission?

A. Population B. Income distance

C. Area D. Tax effort

85. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha

can be held up by the Rajya Sabha for

how many weeks?

A. Two B. Three

C. Four D. Five

86. Constitutional safeguards available to

Civil Servants are ensured by

A. Article 310 B. Article 311

C. Article 312 D. Article 317

87. A writ issued to secure the release of a

person found to be detained illegally is

A. Mandamus B. Habeas corpus

C. Certiorari D. Prohibition

88. Which one of the following cannot be

introduced first in the Rajya Sabha?

A. Constitutional Amendment

B. CAG Report

C. Annual Financial Statement

D. Bill to alter the boundaries of any

State

89. The National Commission for Women

was created by

A. an amendment in the Constitution

of India

B. a decision of the Union Cabinet

C. an Act passed by the Parliament

D. an order of the President of India

90. Who among the following was the

Chief Justice of India when Public

Interest Litigation (PIL) was

introduced in the Indian Judicial

System?

A. M. Hidayatullah B. A.S. Anand

C. A.M. Ahmadi D. P.N. Bhagwati

91. Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar

was first responsible for the

compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests

of epic and Puranic texts?

A. Harsha B. Govindachandra

C. Lakshmidhara D. Kalidasa

92. Who among the following scholars

argued that “capital created

underdevelopment not because it

exploited the underdeveloped world,

but because it did not exploit it

enough”?

A. Bill Warren B. Paul Baran

C. Geoffrey Kay D. Lenin

93. Which river is praised in the fifth

century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram?

A. Cauvery

B. Godavari

C. Saraswati

D. Ganges


about the Harappan Culture is not

correct?

A. It witnessed the first cities in the

subcontinent.

B. It marks the first use of script,

written from right to lift.

C. It marks the earliest known use of

iron as a medium for the art of

sculpting.

D. It marks the earliest known use of

stone as a medium for the art of

sculpting.

95. Harshacharita has references to

various presents sent by a ruler

named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana.

Bhaskara belonged to

A. Haryanka Dynasty of Magadha

B. Varman Dynasty of Assam

C. Nanda Dynasty of North India

D. None of the above


www.gradeup.co

11

96. Which of the following lakes is/are

situated in Ladakh?

1. Tso Kar 2. Pangong Tso

3. Tsomgo 4. Tso Moriri


code given below.


C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 2 and 4 only

97. ‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of

discussion recently. Why?

A. Potato plant that could grow in high

altitude

B. Place in equatorial Africa, where

snow is found

C. New innovative technology to meet

global warming

D. A country under threat of

submergence due to ice melting and

sea level rise


related to latitude are true?

1. Rainfall, temperature and

vegetation vary with latitude.

2. The difference between the longest

day and the shortest day increases

with latitude.

3. Indira Point is located

approximately at 6°45’ N latitude.


code given below.





below and Lists:


(Lake) (Type of Lake)

A. Bhimtal 1. Lagoon

B. Ashtamudi 2. Landslide

C. Gohna 3. Tectonic

D. Lonar 4. Crater

Code:


3 1 2 4 3 2 1 4


4 2 1 3 4 1 2 3


is/are correct?

1. Himalayan rivers have their origin

in the snow-covered areas, hence are

dry in winter season.

2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau

have reached maturity.

3. Himalayan rivers depict all the

three stages of normal cycle of

erosion.


code given below.





below the Lists:


(States of NE India) (Location in

Map)

A. Tripura

B. Mizoram

C. Nagaland

D. Manipur

Code:


2 1 4 3 2 4 1 3


3 1 4 2 3 4 1 2


regarding Uniform Civil Code as

provided under Article 44 of the

Constitution of India is not correct?

A. It is Fundamental Right of every

Indian citizen.

B. The State shall endeavour to secure

it for citizens throughout the territory

of India.

C. It is not enforceable by any Court.

D. It is not enforceable by a Court yet

the Constitution requires that as a

principle it should be fundamental in

the governance of our country.

103. Which of the following was/were

founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?

1. Atmiya Sabha 2. Brahmo Samaj

3. Prarthana Samaj 4. Arya Samaj


code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2 only



www.gradeup.co

12



below the Lists:


(Harappan Site) (Modern Name)

A. Dholavira 1. Saurashtra

B. Rakhigarhi 2. Hisar

C. Bhirrana 3. Kadir Island

D. Bhogavo 4. Haryana

Code:


1 4 2 3 1 2 4 3


3 2 4 1 3 4 2 1


about the Gupta period in Indian

History is not correct?

A. Sanskrit language and literature,

after centuries of evolution, reached

what has been described as a level of

classical excellence through royal

patronage.

B. The status of women was redefined.

They were entitled to formal education

and hence there were women

teachers, philosophers and doctors.

Early marriage was prohibited by law

and they were given the right to

property.

C. Decentralization of administrative

authority was impacted by increased

grants of land and villages with fiscal

and administrative immunities to

priests and temples.

D. Land grants paved the way for

feudal developments and emergence

of serfdom in India, resulting in the

depression of the peasantry.


about the All India Services is correct?

A. The All India Services may be

created by an Act of the Parliament.

B. The endorsement of the Rajya

Sabha is not essential for the creation

of the All India Services.

C. The rules of recruitment to the All

India Services are determined by the

UPSC.

D. The conditions of service to the All

India Services may be altered by the

UPSC.


about emergency provisions under the

Constitution of India is not correct?

A. The powers of the Union Executive

extend to giving directions to the

States concerning the exercise of their

powers.

B. The Union Executive can issue a

provision relating to reduction of

salaries of employees of the State

Governments.

C. Governors have no emergency

power like the President of India.

D. If the Governor of a State is

satisfied that a situation has arisen

whereby the financial stability or credit

of the Sate is threatened, he may

declare financial emergency in the

State.

108. The National Handloom Day is

observed on

A. 7th June B. 17th July

C. 7th August D. 17th September

109. Venus, the first environmental

research satellite, was launched in

August 2017 by which one of the

following countries?

A. India B. Russia

C. China D. Israel

110. Which one of the following was the

theme of the World Environment Day,

2017?

A. Green Economy: Does it include

you?

B. Connecting People to Nature

C. Think, Eat, Save

D. Many Species, One Planet, One

Future

111. The all-women expedition of Indian

Navy to circumnavigate the globe on

the sailing vessel, INSV Tarini, is

scheduled to have four stopovers.

Which one of the following is not one

of them?

A. Fremantle

B. Lyttelton

C. Port Stanley

D. Durban


www.gradeup.co

13

112. Why was constitutional amendment

needed for introducing GST?

A. States were not willing to agree

with the Union for introduction of GST

without amendment in the

Constitution.

B. GST was to be implemented on

concurrent base and Article 246 was

inadequate for such a case.

C. The Empowered Committee of

Finance Ministers had recommended

for constitutional amendment.

D. The GST Council had recommended

for constitutional amendment so that

its power enhances.

113. Where is world’s first Partition Museum

inaugurated recently?

A. New Delhi B. Lahore

C. Amritsar D. Islamabad

114. The Setu Bharatam Programme of the

Government of India is a programme

for

A. building bridges across major rivers

for transport of goods

B. building bridges for safe and

seamless travel on national highways

C. building roads to connect coastal

areas

D. training of highway engineers at the

entry level and service level


about the Global Environment Facility

Grant Agreement signed by India in

August 2017 with the World Bank for

‘Ecosystems Service Improvement

Project’, is not correct?

A. The size of the project is bout USD

25 million?

B. The duration of the project is 15

years.

C. The project will entirely be financed

by the World Bank out of is GEF Trust

Fund.

D. The Ministry of Environment, Forest

and Climate Change will implement

the project.

116. UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in

poverty alleviation, stands for

A. Union Basic Income

B. Undefined Basic Income

C. Unconditional Basic Income

D. Universal Basic Income

117. Which one of the following authorities

has recently launched the mobile apps

‘My FASTag’ and FASTag Partner’?

A. Telecom Regulatory Authority

B. National Highways Authority

C. Airports Economic Regulatory

Authority

D. National Disaster Management

Authority

118. ‘Pragati’ scholarship scheme of the

Government of India is meant for

A. higher education of girls

B. technical education of girls

C. secondary education of girls

D. elementary education of girls

119. Which one of the following is not a

feature of the Saansad Adarsh Gram

Yojana (SAGY)?

A. It focuses on community

participation.

B. It is to be guided by a Member of

the Parliament

C. It aims at creating infrastructure for

the village.

D. A Village Development Plan would

be prepared for every identified Gram

Panchayat.

120. Which one of the following is not

included in the National Air Quality

Index?

A. Sulphur B. Nitrogen dioxide

C. Lead D. Methane

***


www.gradeup.co

14


2017... · a. phulaguri dhawa (1861) b. birsaite ulgulan (1899-1900) c. pabna revolt (1873) d....

Documents