2011 guide questions on penology officer exam

7/29/2019 2011 Guide Questions on Penology Officer Exam

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2011 Guide Questions on Penology Officer Exam. Compiled, Edited and Updated by INSP MICHELLE NG-

BONTO, Legislative Liaison Officer, BJMP-NHQ. Sharing this reviewer will bring you Good Karma. Kindly

Share this reviewer to our fellow jail officers who will be taking the exam. Godbless & Godspeed!!

2011 GUIDE QUESTIONS ON PENOLOGY OFFICER EXAM (Updated as of 03 March 2011)

Nota Bene:

The actual Penology Officer Exam will cover 150 Items plus 10 items on

Examinees Descriptive Information.

You need to finish the exam at the maximum rate of 3 hours, by spending only 1.2 minutes of your time

reading, comprehending and answering each item of the exam.

This Reviewer is NOT FOR SALE. This is in continuance of the advocacy campaign of the proponent when

she was designated as the Chief, Plans & Program Div of BJMP-NCR way back 2009. The aim of this

questionnaire is to prepare your mental and physical stamina on the day of the exam. It is strongly

suggested that you read the latest policies and issuances of the BJMP, the BJMP Manual and laws suchas RA 6713, RA 9263.

PART I.

A. JAIL MANAGEMENT CONCEPTS AND APPLICATIONS (30%) (Commitment, Classifications of

Inmates/Reception Procedures/Classification of Disciplinary Boards & Punishable Acts/Treatment of

Inmates with Special Needs)

1. Jail overcrowding can be solved:

a. By constructing more jails

b. By legislative action

c. By finding alternatives to jail sentence

d. All of the above

2. Alternatives to jail sentence:

a. Must include at least some time in jail

b. Must be applicable only for minors

c. Are not permitted in our country

d. May include fines or community service

3. An inmate told the jail officer while escorting him to court, Why dont you just shoot me so that

everybody will be happy. Then the inmate burst into tears. What should the jail officer do?

a. Tell the inmate that shooting him is prohibited

b. Find a valid excuse to shoot him

c. Take the inmate immediately to the hospital since he obviously has mental problems

d. Tell his immediate supervisor or warden what the inmates said and describe his emotional stress


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4. Some symptoms of depression are:

a. Insomnia

b. Severe Depression c. Excessive sleep

d. Difficulty in thinking

5. Potential suicides can be detected during the admission if:

a. All inmates are interviewed by competent psychiatrist

b. The jail has clearly written set of rules in the booking area c. The jail has screening form for inmates

to accomplish

d. If our admitting or booking officer have been properly trained to ask inmates the right questions and

encourage them to answer truthfully

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2011 Guide Questions on Penology Officer Exam. Compiled, Edited and Updated by INSP MICHELLE NG-BONTO, Legislative Liaison Officer, BJMP-NHQ. Sharing this reviewer will bring you Good Karma. Kindly


6. An inmate giving away personal belongings is most likely:

a. Addict

b. Mentally ill c. Drunk

d. Contemplating suicide

10. It is proper to assume that inmate who attempts suicide:

a. Has been assaulted or threatened by another inmate b. Is just faking it

c. Is mentally ill and must be hospitalized immediately d. None of the above

7. A jail officer responding to a suicidal inmate should:

a. Suggest to the inmate possible solution to his problems

b. Talk and joke with inmate to take his mind off the problems

c. Use reverse psychology and ordering the inmate to go ahead with his plan

d. Try to persuade the inmate but back-off if the inmate becomes upset.

8. If the inmates appears to be suicidal at the time of his admission:

a. Refer him to mental health professional immediately b. Refuse to admit him

c. Place him immediately in a separate cell


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d. Let him join with sympathetic and non-violent inmates

9. Inmates who are threatened by other inmates are likely to:

a. Complain to the jail warden

b. Complain to the Officer on duty c. Walk away and do nothing

d. Back out at those inmates who threaten them

11. A newly admitted inmate screams and tells you that he must be released immediately because

his cellmate is an alien from Jupiter is plotting to kill him. This inmate is probably:

a. Paranoid

b. In need of sedation

c. Suffering from anxiety d. Hallucinating

12. Inmates withdrawing from drugs or alcoholic abuse:

a. Should be diagnosed immediately

b. Should be separated/segregated from other inmates

c. Can be very dangerous and attack jail officers without warning d. Exhibit paranoid fears, delusion

and grandeur

13. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of three (3) years and one(1) day to death, is known as:

a. Provincial Prisoner b. Insular Prisoner

c. City Prisoner

d. Municipal Prisoner

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14. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of six (6) months and one

(1) day to three (3) years, is known as a:


c. City Prisoner



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15. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of one (1) day to six (6)

months, is known as a:


c. City Prisoner


16. A Prisoner who is sentenced to a prison term of one (1) day to three (3)

years, is known as a:


c. City Prisoner


17. The following are the classification of detainees, except:

a. Undergoing Investigation b. Awaiting Trial/Under Trial c. Political Detainees

d. Awaiting Final Judgement

18. The following enumerates the security classification for inmates, except:

a. High Risk Inmates

b. High Profile Inmates c. Radical Inmatesd. Ordinary Inmates

19. Each jail is mandated to establish a Classification Board for Inmates. Who among the following

serves as the Chairman of the Classification Board?

a. Jail Warden

b. Deputy Warden

c. Chief, Custodial/Security Office c. IWD Officer

20. Which among the following is not a member of the Classification Board?

a. Chief, Custodial/Security Office b. IWD Officer

c.Jail Chaplain

d. Inmates Representative

21. Which among the following constitutes authorized disciplinary punishment for the inmates?


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a. Transfer of confinement from one jail facility to another within the area b. Temporary or permanent

cancellation of recreational privileges

c. Close confinement in a cell d. All of the above

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22. The following constitutes Minor Offenses of inmates, except:

a. Rendering personal service ot fellow inmate b. Littering

c. Making groundless complaints d. Loittering

23. Which among the following inmates infraction constitute Less Grave

Offenses?

a. Failure to render assistance to an injured personnel or inmate b. Malingering

c. Posession of pornographic literature d. All of the above

B. CUSTODIAL CONCEPTS AND APPLICATIONS (45%)(Custody, Security & Control/Emergency Plans, Movement & Transfer of

Detainees & Prisoners/Inmates Rights & Priveleges/IWD Programs )

24. Strip searches must be done by:

a. An officer of similar sex b. A trustee inmate

c. Immediate supervisor

d. Any available BJMP personnel

25. When conducting a frisk strip search, the BJMP officer should always:

a. Subject to inmate to punishment b. Search the body thoroughly

c. Vary his procedures in searching d. Be systematic and thorough

26. Strip search should be conducted:


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a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are witnesses b. At the wardens office

c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail personnel

d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others to avoid further embarrassment

27. In the conduct of initial frisk search, the things that must be looked into are:

a. Addresses the telephone numbers of close and known associates b. Deadly weapons

c. Drugs

d. All of the above

28. Frisk searches should be conducted only :

a. After visitation

b. Upon admission

c. After pulling an inmate from the cell prior to transfer d. All of the above

29. A plastic drinking straw maybe used by a drug user:

a. to roll a marijuana cigarette

b. As a weapon to demand drugs c. Keep silent and do nothing

d. To sniff drugs thru the nostrils

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30. The most effective way to combat drug smuggling is:

a. To closely monitor all activities of inmates

b. To watch out for inmates behaving suspiciously c. To conduct drug tests on inmates

d. To search inmates cell regularly

31. Which of the following is true?


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a. In a written report, the jail guard must describe the taste of the substance he finds

b. Taste an unknown substance alone

c. A jail officer should never taste an unknown substance

d. Taste an unknown substance in the presence of witnesses

32. Inmates try to hide drugs in:

a. A place where it cannot be stolen b. A place readily accessible

c. A place where drugs will remain dry d. All of the above

34. Which of the following is not a step in the booking process?

a. Fingerprinting the inmate b. Searching the inmate

c. Inventory of the inmates property

d. Questioning the inmate on the details of his crime

35. Which inmates should be informed about jail rules?

a. All inmates

b. Only those who break the jail rules c. Only those who can read and write d. Only those who are

recidivists

36. Who must be searched upon admission in jail?

a. Only those suspected of carrying deadly weapons or contrabands b. Only those admitted following

an arrest

c. Only those who have not been searched by the transport officer d. All of the above


a. Attorney visiting inmates cannot be searched b. Personnel need not be searched

c. Routine frisks of all visitors are permissible

d. Brother uniformed personnel should not be searched

37. When is it legal to incarcerate an individual who has not been charged with a crime?

a. When the individual is a minor

b. When the individual is suspected of having committed a crime c. When the individual is mentally ill

d. It is never legal.


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38. If a medical staff officer tells you that the arriving inmate is too ill to be admitted to the jail, you

should:

a. Release the inmate immediately.

b. Formally accept the inmate and arrange for a jail officer to take the inmate to the hospital

c. Tell the transport officer to take the inmate to the nearest hospital

d. Make the inmate sign a form relieving the jail of any legal responsibility

39. Which of the following is not true of health screening?

a. It eliminates the use for medical examination after the inmates have been admitted

b. It helps detect the health problems of inmates

c. It helps protect the inmates and personnel from threat of contagious disease

d. It helps reduce the risk that the jail will be found liable for negligent care

40. Why is it important to use alternative routes in escorting inmates?

a. It will help jail officers find the shortest and quickest route b. It will keep all escorts alert

c. It will make the movements of the escorts less predictable d. None of the above

41. Which members of the escort team should be briefed on the route to be taken?

a. All officers assigned to the escort b. The driver of the escort cars

c. Only the driver of the lead vehicle d. The primary and back up drivers

42. Which of the following should be done first before picking up the inmates to be escorted?

a. Check the documents needed

b. Search thoroughly the vehicle to be used for contraband that may aide in escape

c. Make sure inmates are not allowed access to a phone d. All of the above


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43. When escorting an inmate on foot, it is important to remember:

a. To walk several steps behind the inmate to decrease the chance of assaulting you

b. To walk side-by-side with the inmate

c. To walk in front of the inmate to be able to control what lies ahead

d. To walk slightly behind taking cognizance of the weak side of the inmate

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44. It is important for the transport officer to be aware that:

a. Restraining devices are not necessary when inmates being escorted are manageable

b. Restraining devices are tools which must be properly maintained and made available

c. Restraining devices are optional when transporting inmates d. None of the above

45. When escorting an inmate in an uncaged vehicle:

a. the second officer should be armed and sit beside the driver in the front seat

b. the second officer should be armed and sit behind the driver c. the second officer should be

unarmed and sit in the front seat

d. the second officer should sit in the back seat but should leave all

weapons in the front seat

46. In a two (2) vehicle escort, which car should transport the inmate?

a. the first vehicle b. the last vehicle

c. the car in the middle

d. whichever of the three cars would do

47. When driving in an escort convoy, which among the following procedure is correct?

a. all drivers to drive fast to minimize danger time


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b. all drivers to drive at safe speed maintaining proper distance

c. all drivers to drive at speed and remain very close to the vehicle in front

d. driver to drive at a safe speed leaving room for non-convoy vehicles to get between the cars

48. In a three vehicle escort, which car should transport the inmate?

a. the first vehicle b. the last vehicle

c. the car in the middle

d. whichever of the three cars would do

49. Which among the following statement is true with regards to moving or transferring an inmate

from one facility to another?

a. Hired vehicle maybe utilized in transporting inmates however, the driver should avoid stopping

along the highway to deter rescue attempts

b. The carpeta of the inmate must be forwarded to the facility where the inmate will be confinedc. The inmates Carpeta must be properly received by the Records

Custodian

d. All of the Above

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50. What is the best way to develop and maintain a positive attitude with regard to the escort

personnel ability?

a. Do not think of the situation to avoid stress

b. Have confidence on the escort teams abilities to successfully complete the escorting task

c. Believe in the saying that whatever is meant to be will be d. Dont worry as you cannot control the

situation

51. What is the role of the advance party in all escort convoy?


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a. To drive the lead car in the escort convoy

b. To proceed to the drop-off site and arrange for the clear entry of the transport vehicle

c. To watch the car before the inmate is replaced

d. To go to the drop-off site and stay inside the facility until the inmate had been transported

52. The best definition for a contraband would be:

a. Anything that an inmate could use as a weapon

b. Anything in the inmates cell not issued by the jail authorities

c. any article, item, or thing prohibited by law and/or forbidden by jail rules that would pose as security

hazards or endanger the lives of inmates

d. Any item that an inmate can use to harm himself or others

53. Mere possession of this contraband is said to be unlawful in itself and such constitutes illegal

contraband.

a. Dangerous Drugs

b.Weapons and Potential Weapons c. Explosives

d. All of the above

54. This category of contraband enumerates items which may not be classified as illegal under

the law but are forbidden by jail rules i.e. cellphone, money or other commodities of exchange such as

jewelry.

a. Illegal contraband

b. Nuisance Contraband c. Liquor

d. Pornographic materials

55. Which of the following would not be considered a contraband if found in an inmates cell?

a. A can of insecticide b. Bottle of wine

c. Blades borrowed from jail personnel d. None of the above

56. Which is true of trustees?

a. Trustees are not likely to bring contraband into the jail. b. Trustees help cut down contraband

circulation.

c. Trustees can offer valuable help in searching cells.

d. As they have freedom to move about the jail premises, trusties require more frequent searches than

other inmates


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57. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Each inmate should be frisk every time he enters or leaves a secure area

b. Search only inmates when you have reason to suspect that he may be carrying contraband

c. Searching inmate after another officer has just done so is an infringement of the inmates rights

d. Search only inmates upon their admission

58. The most practical way of preventing visitors from passing contraband to inmate is:

a. Watch the inmate closely throughout the visit b. Permit only trusties to have visitors

c. Strip search both inmate and visitor before every visit d. Conduct searches carefully before and after

the visit

59. A jail officer who finds contraband in an inmates cell:

a. Should stop the search and immediately bring the item to the attention of the supervisorb. Should stop the search and immediately question the inmate

c. Should confiscate the item and continue to search for additional contraband items

d. Should leave the cell in disarray

60. An officer planning to search the inmates cell:

a. Should give the inmates advance notice b. Should ask the permission of inmates

c. Should permit inmates to remain the cell to ensure the officer does not do damage

d. Should remove the inmates from the cell before beginning the search

61. This is the type of body search conducted using flat palms to pat down the outer clothing of the

person to look for any recognizable contraband.

a. Strip Search

b. Pat Frisk or Pat Down Search c. Visual Body Cavity Search

d. Rub Search


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62. This type of body search is said to be intrusive in nature as it require the subject to bare. Inmates

maybe subjected to this type of body search upon their admission or re-admission to the facility or if

there are reasons to suspect that the inmate has contraband.

a. Strip Search

b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search c. Visual Body Cavity Search

d. Rub Search

63. Body search of this type pats the subjects body over the clothing in a more thorough manner

where the genital, buttocks, and breasts are carefully searched for the presence of contraband.

a. Strip Search

b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search c. Cavity Search

d. Rub Search

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64. Body search of this type is by far the most invasive search that maybe done on an individual

necessitating manual internal inspection of the body to look for contraband such as illegal drugs, money,

jewelry, or weapons.

a. Strip Search

b. Pat - Frisk or Pat - Down Search c. Visual Body Cavity Search

d. None of the above

65. Area Search maybe carried out in jails through the use of the following techniques, except:

a. Strategic b. Tactical c. Random d. Practical

66. What is the most effective way to maintain control of jail keys?

a. Never allow keys to be used in inmate areas

b. Only a central control officer have to keep the office

c. Keep all keys in one central control area and only distribute them to officers while they are on duty

d. All officers are responsible for holding the keys at all times

67. What is the proper procedure for discarding broken tools?

a. Before throwing them, break them so that they are of no use to inmates

b. Before throwing them, wrap them in paper so inmates will not know what they are

c. Have an officer carry them and dispose of them far from the jail


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d. Throw them in the trash in an area of the jail where inmates have no access

68. It is said that the most secure and efficient method of controlling keys is the maintenance of a

system of Key Control. In the jail setting, which area is the most ideal place to be designated as Key

Control Center or primary issue point?

a. Wardens Office b. Records Office

c. Desk Officers Area d. Admin Office

69. Which among the following does not constitute Key control rules?

a. Wardens must issue rules relative to key control b. Account all keys every shift change

c. Carry only keys necessary for a shift

d. Storing of jails keys together with cuff keys

70. In cases where a jail or cuff key is lost, the proper thing for a duty personnel to do is to:

a. Ask the trustees if a key was found

b. Do a frisk search of all trustees in the area

c. Immediately notify supervisor if a jail or cuff key is lost d. Do a cell search

71. Which is a good way of preventing keys from being stolen/lost?

a. Turning all keys after your shift b. Checking the keys at all times c. Welding the key rings shut

d. Leaving the keys secured in the designated key control area

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72. How should one carry the keys in the presence of inmates?

a. Keep all keys visible to determine at once if a key is missing

b. Keep all your keys in your hands for quick access when needed

c. Carry them as inconspicuously as possible so inmates will not be tempted to take them away

d. Dangle them in your belt to let the inmates know that you are in - charge

73. As a security measure, this type of counting procedure is conducted at least 4 times within a 24

hour period, ensuring beyond doubt that every inmate is accounted for.


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a. Mandatory Formal Count b. Census or Informal Count c. Bedbook Count

d. Emergency or Lockdown Count

74. This type of counting procedure is conducted as a security measure following a jail disturbance,

riots or escape incidents.

a. Mandatory Formal Count b. Bedbook Count

c. Census or Informal Count

d. Emergency or Lock-down Count

75. It is a counting procedure that is infrequent and in the nature of irregular check wherein

inmates are required to report to the nearest jail personnel present for accounting purposes.

a. Mandatory Formal Count b. Census or Informal Count c. Bedbook Countd. Emergency or Lock-down Count

76. The following statements constitute due observance of Dining Room

Security Measures, except:

a. Inmates shall march in columns along designated routes under the supervision of duty personnel

while other personnel are stationed along the route to direct the movement of inmates to the messhall

b. As a general precaution, inmates shall only be allowed to use individual mess utensils made of

plastic

c. The food service supervisor is not required to be present during meals considering that the food is

already served

d. Checking and accounting of all utensils after every meal

77. Which among the following statement is not true in the observance of security procedures

during meal service?

a. A jail officer should enter the inmates quarter to distribute food only when another jail officer is

available to handle keys and control the entrance door

b. A jail officer may enter the inmates quarter to distribute food alone

c. Food may still be served by the duty jail officer provided precautionary doors were locked to pre-empt

being overpowered by inmates

d. Security must always be considered in the service of food inside cells

78. What should a jail officer do in the event that a mail being censored contains unusual slang and

sentences with double meanings?

a. The censored mail shall be distributed accordingly, as if nothing happened


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b. The censored mail shall be marked and the inmate addressee shall be under careful watch

c. The contents of the censored mail should be carefully studied

and analyzed to determine the real meaning d. None of the above

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79. With leave of court, inmates maybe allowed to view the remains of their deceased relative.

Under what ground can the warden ask the court to reconsider and revoke the order?

a. The deceased relative is lying-in-state in a place beyond thirty kilometer (30) radius from the place of

confinement of the inmate

b. The detainee has a record of escape

c. the detainee is classified as high-risk/high profile and the jail has inadequate resources to ensure theinmates safety/security

d. all of the above

80. A trustee is an inmate:

a. Who is in charge of other inmates

b. Who has the trust of the jail personnel

c. Who is assigned to a job in a jail who may be dependable d. None of the above

81. A general rule concerning supervision of inmates is:

a. They can be trusted to do a job

b. They should be supervised and be relied upon to do a good job

c. They should be supervised more than those in the general population d. None of the above

82. Which of the inmates should jail officer recommend for disciplinary segregation?

a. Inmates who refuse to abide by jail rules and regulations b. Inmates who are seriously ill

c. Inmates who were former uniformed personnel d. All of the above

83. A jail officer once seized as a hostage should remember that:

a. The longer the incident lasts, the more the dangerous it becomes b. The hostage-taker will control

and order him


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c. The jail officer can probably talk to the hostage-taker for his release d. He will be killed if his co-

jailers will rescue him

84. The situation whereby a positive emotional bond develops between the hostage and the

hostage-taker and both feet that is us against them is called:

a. Transference b. Delusions

c. Retribution syndrome d. Stockholm syndrome

85. A jail officer taken as a hostage should:

a. Tell the hostage taker that he is a best jail officer b. Show that he fears the situation

c. Remind the hostage-taker that nothing will happen

d. Try not to remind the hostage-taker that he is a jail officer

86. When should a jail officer-hostage negotiate with the hostage-taker?

a. Throughout the entire incident until the hostage-taker surrenders b. During the first three hours of

the incident

c. When the jail officer-hostage feels that the negotiations will fail d. Never

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87. The most dangerous period for the hostage during the hostage-taking incident is:

a. Five hours into the incident when the hostage-taker is hungry

b. When the commanding officer orders the hostage-taker to surrender c. First two hours of the

incident

d. During the lengthy negotiation

88. To cope with the possibility of being seized as a hostage, many jail officers display a reaction

called:

a. Stockholm Syndrome b. Retribution Syndrome

c. Positive Emotional Bond Syndrome d. Deny and repress

91. In interacting positively with inmates, jail officers should:


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a. Show favoritism when warranted by an inmates good conduct b. Dont criticize management

decisions

c. Avoid any implications of favoritism d. None of the above

92. A jail officer in order to develop good working relationship with his peers should:

a. Help spread rumors concerning personal problems of officers b. Attend all duties and criticize

management decisions

c. Strictly implement jail rules

d. Offer encouragement and support to other officers and let them feel that they are part of the group

89. Jail officer comportment means:

a. How the officer presents himself in carrying out his duties

b. How the officer shows how he always feel good about himself c. How the officer exercises his

discretionary authority


90. The jail officer in order to provide an appropriate role model for inmates and lessen

susceptibility to being manipulated should:

a. Get emotionally involved with inmates he supervises

b. Present an image of pride in his work and high level of integrity c. Use corporal punishment to

inmates as authorized by jail rules d. Always feel good about himself

93. If a jail officer is tempted to cover-up the infraction of his fellow officer, he must be aware that:

a. One infraction can increase or lead to greater liabilities

b. His fellow officer will return the favor if he commits an infraction himself

c. Cover-up might be picked up by media

d. Covering for fellow jail officers will foster Esprit de Corps

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94. The proper way for a jail guard on duty to react if an attorney is creating disturbances because

he cannot see his client inmate due to jail activity is:


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a. Threatens the lawyer with arrest

b. Shout at him and if it does not work force him out of jail

c. File formal complaint in court and demanding that the lawyer concerned be no longer allowed

to represent the inmate because of his disrespectful conduct

d. Maintain emotional control and call for a supervisor to deal with the lawyer

95. If a jail officer believes that there are rules develop by the management which will cause serious

problems in supervising an angry inmate population, he should:

a. Criticize the new rules in his peers only

b. Criticize the new rules his both his co-jail officers and inmates he supervise

c. Ignore the new rules

d. Offer suggestions to the management and explain how the rules may cause the problems and

proposed have the new rules can be change in some respects

96. A jail officer to be respected by his peers, he must:

a. Follow the code of ethics and good standards and look for ways to perform his job better

b. Make his record of work be at par with his peers c. Share stories to enter his peers and inmates

d. Give in to the requests of your peers

97. The primary goal of emergency preparedness plans is:

a. Securityb. Protect jail properties c. Reduce facility liability d. Reduce threat to life

98. The best jail emergency plan to have is:

a. Emergency that doesnt happen b. A natural disaster

c. A man-made disaster d. Reduce threat to life

99. When responding to an emergency situation, the primary concern of jail officers is:

a. Personal safety

b. Safety of their family c. Safety of inmates

d. Compliance with jail rules

100. Jail officers should participate in jail emergency response drills:


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a. On a yearly basis

b. Only after the incident occurred to prevent the incident from happening again

c. At a slower than normal rate to ensure its correct implementation d. As if their lives depended upon

their actions

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101. A proper safety and security equipment inspections:

a. Must be conducted annually

b. Not necessary unless the equipment is usedc. Has a significant impact on the outcome of jail emergency operation

d. Should be done by equipment specialist as officers are not qualified to inspect equipment

102. The best reason why a jail officer needs to have thorough knowledge on jail emergency

procedure:

a. It is important in reducing liability to say you did the right thing b. It is a requirement of jail policies

and operating procedures

c. Officers are requires to act promptly and effectively during life threatening situationsd. Officers are required to act promptly and effectively during life threatening situations

103. By studying actual jail emergencies, jail officers can:

a. Plan for the safety of their families

b. Improve their emergency response techniques

c. Gain expertise in providing post-incident counseling d. Set up If I Die Plan for their spouses

104. The most important component of emergency plan during typhoon is;

a. Assuring inmates that they have access to communication facilities b. Assuring inmates that they

have adequate food during the typhoon

c. Assuring that communications and other logistical equipment is available and in good working

condition

d. Assuring inmates that the emergency plan is approved by the officer


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105. When planning for the national calamities emergencies, the most important factor to be

considered is:

a. Security

b. Inventory of Supplies

c. Water, Light and sanitations needs of inmates d. Adequate number of emergency lights

106. The visibility of jail officers during calamities tends to:

a. Lessen the fear of inmates about their own safety b. Frighten the inmates

c. Lead to riots when inmates feel they are being intimidated d. Violate their civil rights

107. Critical incidents are events which:

a. Require careful evaluation and judgment

b. Involve a great number of personnel and logistical resources c. Are short term and stress free

d. Do not involve physical damage or death

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108. Review a critical incident should be conducted:

a. Only if deemed necessary by the management b. As soon as the incident is over

c. Within eight hours at the start of the incident d. As soon as caused have been determined

109. Documenting events surrounding a critical jail incident is:

a. A good idea

b. The responsibility if investigators only

c. Necessary if litigation is likely to happen

d. Extremely necessary including all phases of incidents

112. Policies and procedures relating to critical incidents must:

a. Be clear, concise and understandable

b. Need to be reviewed regularly and revised as necessary c. Need to be accessible to all jail personnel


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d. All of the above

113. Stress resulting from critical incident is:

a. Treatable

b. Dangerous and must be dealt with quickly and efficiently

c. Often found even in those who project a super-officer image d. All of the above

110. A critical incident is a learning experience for:

a. Top management b. Top community

c. Everyone involved in handling the incident

d. Those who developed policy relating to the incident

111. The preparation or planning for critical incident is:

a. Mandated by law

b. A waste of resources as it does not happen often c. A costly venture which small jail cannot afford

d. An area where networking with other jails and other correctional agencies can be very beneficial

114. Drills designed to test critical incident-related policies:

a. Are necessary in all jail facilities on a regular basis b. Are realistic in small jails but not practical in bigjails c. Is usually little value as it does not happen often

d. Are dangerous and risky to inmates

115. Which among the following is not considered as Natural Calamities?

a. Fire

b. Landslide c. Epidemics d. Flood

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116. Planning for earthquake is difficult from planning of other natural disaster because:


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a. Earthquakes usually last only a few seconds b. Earthquakes do not usually happen

c. Earthquakes strike without warning

d. Earthquakes do not happen twice in the same place

117. Which of the following is not a common cause of injuries in an earthquake?

a. Panic

b. Cracks opening in the earth surface c. Fire and explosions

d. Falling debris and other objects

118. Preparing a jail for a serious earthquake does not involve:

a. Developing a plan for evacuation

b. Knowing location of power shut-offs c. Securing heavy objectsd. Constructing an earthquake shelters

119. As soon as the earthquake starts, jail officers must:

a. Lock all inmates in their cells b. Turn-off all lights

c. Take cover and order inmates to do the same d. Begin evacuating the inmates

120. Search and rescue procedures after an earthquake are dangerous because:

a. Inmates may panic or refuse to cooperate

b. Officers are likely to trip over scattered object c. Member of the rescue may be disoriented

d. After shocks may caused damage structures to collapse

121. Preparing a jail for a serious earthquake does not involve:

a. Developing a plan for evacuation

b. Knowing location of power shut-offs c. Securing heavy objects

d. Constructing an earthquake shelters

122. As soon as the earthquake starts, jail officers must:

a. Lock all inmates in their cells b. Turn-off all lights

c. Take cover and order inmates to do the same d. Begin evacuating the inmates


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123. Search and rescue procedures after an earthquake are dangerous because:

a. Inmates may panic or refuse to cooperate

b. Officers are likely to trip over scattered object c. Member of the rescue may be disoriented

d. After shocks may caused damage structures to collapse

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124. Which of the following should jail officers not exhibit when responding to a crisis situation?

a. Authority

b. Compassion c. Respect

d. Sarcasm

127. Which of the following is a valid reason for providing privileges to inmates?

a. reduced inmates boredom and idleness b. Reduced stress of incarceration

c. Have something to take away if they misbehave d. All of the above

125. What is a difference between inmate right and inmate privilege?

a. The terms are essentially the same

b. Right can only be removed by the jail warden while privilege can be removed by any jail officer

c. Privileges are enumerated in the philippine constitution which can only be eliminated when there is a

right to do so

d. Inmate rights are enumerated in the Philippines constitution and jail rules and regulations while

privileges are benefits granted to inmates over and above statutory requirements.

126. Which of the following is not a source of inmate rights?

a. Philippine Constitution b. BJMP Manual

c. Jail Policies and Regulations

d. Recommendations of the Inmates Organization

128. If a particular inmate violates a particular jail regulation by fighting with another inmate, what

must the jail warden do?


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a. There is nothing the Jail Warden can do

b. Curtail the inmates privileges until he complies the jail rules c. Afford the inmate due process

d. Curtail the recreational periods of the inmate until the complies with jail rules

129. What can a paralegal do in a jail?

a. Defend the inmate in court

b. Defend jail personnel in court c. Write legal briefs

d. Review and understand legal commentaries and opinion

130. Why should firearms not be allowed in jails routinely?

a. The officer and his firearm may be taken hostage b. Equipment could be destroyed by inmatesc. They may discharge accidentally

d. Jail officer may not be fully trained on the use of firearms

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131. The most important duty of a Jail Officer is to:

a. Search every inmates cell regularly

b. Carefully inspect all jail premises for security searches and take action to remedy any security defects

c. Assure that all inmates meals are served on time d. Makes certain that all visitors are searched

132. Security in the jail setting strictly means:

a. Maintaining effective communications b. Keeping inmates safe

c. Neutralizing inmates deviant behavior

d. Preventing escapes and maintaining peace and order

133. Why is the chain-of-command important?

a. Not necessary in small jails b. For communications

c. To have orderly operations and to establish decision-making responsibilities


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d. To have a rank structure

134. The most effective way for shifts to communicate with each other is:

a. Tell an inmate

b. Pass information on to the supervisor

c. Tell another jail officer on the next shift

d. Document relevant information in a written logbook

135. The most important aspect of jail operation is:

a. Annual increase of subsistence allowance of inmates b. Inmates Security and Safety

c. Programs for Inmates d. Food Service

136. To be effective a classification system in jail must:

a. Always include women and minors in the classification team b. Be designed specifically for each jail

c. Segregate inmates on the basis of gang affiliations d. Classify inmates by origin

137. An inmate should be disciplined:

a. In the presence of other inmates to strengthen its impart b. When all the facts have been granted

c. When it is the second offense of the inmate d. Immediately

138. The goal of disciplining process in the jail is:

a. Teach the inmates to respect jail officers b. To improve inmates behavior

c. Make the inmates behave through fear and intimidation d. Show the inmates who the boss are

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139. The following are considered rights of inmates, except:

a. The right to be treated as human being b. The right to be visited by counsel

c. The right to vote unless disqualified by law

d. The right to receive visitors during visiting hours


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140. The following are among the privileges given to inmates, except:

a. To wear their own clothes while in confinement b. To receive visitors during visiting hours

c. To be entitled to GCTA

d. To communicate with her/his respective embassy

141. As part of the SOP on Admission of Inmates, the Desk Officer shall:

a. Check the credentials of the person bringing the inmate to determine his/her/their identity and

authority

b. Shall ask for the information and medical certificate issued by government hospital

c. Shall verify the authenticity of the Commitment Order d. All of the above

142. As part of the Jail Booking Procedure, the admitting officer shall:

a. Ensure that the Inmate is fingerprinted and photographed

b. Subject the Inmate to strip-search to check for any markings, cuts, bruises and same shall be indicated

in the jail booking report

c. Apprise the inmate in a dialect known to him of the provisions of Art

29 of the RPC as amended by RA 6127 d. All of the above

143. As laid down in the SOP for the Admission and Releasing of Inmates, the person responsible for

the verification of the authenticity of the Release Order, upon receipt thereof, is none other than:

a. Property Custodian

b. Records /Admin Officer c. Desk Officer

d. Jail Warden

144. The person responsible for the processing of inmates release , verification of data on Inmates

Carpeta to that of the Release Order and routing of release papers to proper signatories is none other

than:



d. Jail Warden

145. The person responsible for the receipt of property and deposited item of inmate and of

returning the same, with proper logbook entry is none other than:



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d. Jail Warden

146. By telling ot hers of the stress, you:

a. Will make your coping with the stress easier b. Will get you in trouble with your officemates c. Will

make you look very weak

d. All of the above

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147. Jail officers who suffers from stress:

a. Should shift to less stressful work

b. Should eat larger amount of food to relieve their stress c. Should not discuss their stress with co-

employees

d. May exhibit both physical and emotional reactions to the stress

152. The first step in coping with stress is:

a. Complaining to your immediate superior b. Denying all the stress you feel

c. Taking a leave of absenced. Observing how you react to stressful situations

148. Which of the following is false:

a. Working in jail is a difficult job

b. It is possible to completely eliminate stress in life c. Feeling stress is not a sign of weakness

d. One way to eliminate stress is a change of environment

149. A jail officer who suppresses his feelings:

a. Endangers inmates and personnel in jail

b. Helps in making the jail environment calm c. Learns to cope up with stress

d. Becomes more relaxed as time passes

150. An example of defense mechanism is:

a. Blaming others for your mistake b. Judo Karate

c. Rapid Heartbeat


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d. Helping others in stress

151. Which of the following will not help reduce stress a. Asking assistance from friends and family

b. Developing ways to solve problems c. Doing exercises

d. Rationalizing your behavior

153. If you were not included in the promotion, a positive way to cope with such feeling is to:

a. Treat inmates more harshly than usual b. Complain to your jail warden

c. Keep silent and do nothing

d. Discuss the situation with your supervisor


a. Most male jail officers do not want female officers working in jail

b. Female officers tend to have soothing effect on the jail environment c. Female officers need more

protection from inmatesd. Female officers tend to increase tension in jails

155. When you are in a situation where you are interviewing an inmate in your office and after telling

him something, the inmate refused to listen and starts shouting at you. As a jail officer, you suddenly

felt like going away and leaving him. Such reaction is also called:

a. Fight

b. Stress coping c. Flight

d. Negative coping

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156. Your duty jail officer informed you that two (2) inmates are arguing in the mess hall. Your heart

begins to beat faster. Your body is at what stage?

a. Flight b. Alarm

c. Resistance d. Anger

157. Officers dealing with opposite sex should:


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a. Never do a search without the presence of other officer of the inmates

sex

b. Observe all basic rules of inmate supervision without exception c. Feel free to used all methods to

keep inmates under control

d. Never do a strip search except in the presence of witnesses

158. The best type of interpersonal relationship can be described as:

a. Warm and intimate ones

b. Keeping feelings to yourself

c. Vent your frustrations to your peers d. Gripe a lot

C. INMATES WELFARE AND DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS (15%)

159. Morning Meeting is found in what BJMP program?

a. Livelihood Program component

b. Jail disciplinary Program component

c. Therapeutic Community Modality Program d. Community Relations Service Program

160. The following are the purpose of Morning Meeting, except:

a. To start the day

b. To demonstrate common concerns and solve immediate problems c. Enhance sense of communityd. To confront the person who made you feel bad

161. Which among the following statements is not included in the guiding principles of IWDP?

a. In accordance with the UN Standard in the Minimum Treatment of

Inmates

b. Responsive and dynamic, providing treatment that is holistic and responsive in nature

c. Provides for retributive treatment

d. Creation is based on mutual trust and confidence

162. This kind of IWD service takes the form of subsistence such as food, clothing, hygienic

supplies,etc.

a. Health Services

b. Provisions for Basic Needs c. Livelihood Services


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d. Educational Services

163. This IWD activity is concerned with the development of work values, individual worth and

dignity, emotional catharsis and individual creativity.

a. Religious Services b. Livelihood Services

c. Sports and Recreation Services d. Educational Services

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164. This program consists of a set of physical, psychosocial, intellectual, vocational and spiritual

activities of interventions which facilitates inmates enhancement and wellbeing.

a. Counseling Program

b. Psycho Diagnostic Program

c. Inmates Welfare and Development Program d. Peer Counselling

D. BJMP ADMINISTRATIVE MATTERS (10%)

(Latest Policies, Issuances/Pertinent Laws)

165. What is the corresponding disciplinary measure imposed under the BJMP Standard Operating

Procedures, once a visitor is caught in possession of a merely Prohibited and nuisance contraband? an

Illegal Contraband for the first time?

a. The visitor shall be filed an appropriate case in court b. The visitor shall be subjected to pay fines

c. The visitor shall be given a warning and the contraband shall be confiscated and turned over to the

Property Custodian for proper disposal d. The visitor shall be considered a delinquent visitor and shall be

banned from entering the facility

166. Under the BJMP Standard Operating Procedures, a visitor caught in possession of an Illegal

Contraband shall be:

a. Denied immediate entry to the facility b. Shall be arrested by the jail authorities

c. shall be turned-over to the nearest police station for filing of appropriate cases

d. All of the above


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167. Prior to classification and segregation of female inmates in relation to the BJMP SOP on Pregnant

inmates, the jail administration is mandated to conduct :

a. Random Pregnancy tests to Female inmates prior to segregation b.Mandatory Pregnancy test to

Female inmates prior to segregation c.Voluntary Pregnancy Test to Female inmates prior to segregation


168. Infants whose mothers are detained in BJMP jails are among those covered by the policy on

Pregnant Inmates and their Infants. Under this policy, an infant is defined as:

a. A child in his/her toddler years

b. A child from Zero (0) to Twelve (12) Months Old

c. A Child from Zero (0) to Seventy Two (72) Hours of Birth d. None of the Above

169. It is defined as the is force that a person uses which would create a substantial risk of causing

death or serious bodily harm. It is said to be the last resort in the use of force continuum.

a. Non-Deadly Forceb. Deadly Force

c. Weaponless COntrol d. Impact Weapons

170. It is the use of physical force towards an inmate with any device other than deadly force or

firearm designed to temporarily incapacitate an inmate.

a. Deadly Force

b. Non - Deadly Force c. Weaponless COntrol d. Impact Weapons

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171. Which among the following is an example of an impact weapon?

a. Night Sticks b. Firearm

c. Pepper gun spray

d. Restraining Devices

172. Acts, which includes negotiation, persuasion and/or verbalization that is resorted to when the

mere presence of jail officers is not enough to contain the situation requiring the personnel to give

orders to ensure compliance by the inmates.

a. Verbal tussle


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b. Verbal Containment c. Verbal Abuse

d. Verbal altercation

173. A situation of high probability that a hazard, condition or activity caused by an inmate or group

of inmates which will be injurious to themselves, to jail personnel and visitors is so likely to occur

almost immediately and without warning.

a. Imminent Danger b. Immediate Danger c. Hostile Intent

d. hostile Act

174. Any condition or practice in a place of employment where such a danger exists which could

reasonably be expected to cause death or serious physical harm immediately or before the happening of

such danger can be eliminated through the procedures.

a. Imminent Danger b. Immediate Danger c. Hostile Intent

d. hostile Act

175. Which of the following best explains the accountability of public officials and employees to the

people?

a. It is provided in the Constitution

b. It is expected of very public employee

c. They must prove that they are deserving of trust of the people d. They are guided by norms, conduct

and discipline

176. Which of the following is not a ground for impeachment of public officials?

a. Treason b. Bribery

c. Traffic Violations

d. Humiliating the under privileged

177. Which of the following cases best explains the need for a policy on discipline?

a. Chartering red tape

b. Betraying public trust

c. Fabricating public documents

d. Humiliating the under privileged

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178. Which of the following acts is not meritorious?

a. Serving everyone regardless of party affiliation?

b. Responding to letters and request upon receipt thereof within 15 days

c. Acting immediately on public transactions d. Receiving token gifts from clients

179. As a public official you must observe norms of conduct in the performance of your official

duties. Which of the following norms you should refrain from practicing?

a. Political party affiliation b. Simple living

c. Professionalism

d. Justness and sincerity

180. Which of the following has the sole power to try and decide all cases of impeachment?

a. House of Representatives b. Senate

c. Ombudsman

d. Sandiganbayan

181. Public officers and employees are accountable to:

a. the private sector

b. the underprivileged c. the people

d. the government

182. Which of the following has the exclusive power to initiate all cases of impeachment?

a. House of Representatives b. Senate

c. Ombudsman

d. Sandiganbayan

183. If you are administratively disciplined, the object is not to:

a. improve public service

b. preserve the peoples faith and confidence in the government c. punish you

d. emphasize the positive aspect of personnel discipline


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184. Which of the following lessons you do not consider as the result of being preventively

suspended:

a. the value of exemplary performance b. the value of quality outputs

c. the behavior of being non-productive

d. the quality of high standards of behavior

185. Which among the following are not considered Public Officials under

Republic Act 6713?

a. Elective and Appointive Officials

b. Employees in the career or non-career service whether or not they receive compensation

c. Military and Police Personnel d. None of the above

25



186. In an organization, the resource management system needs to have check and balance in order for

an organization to function smoothly. In BJMP, what particular office is responsible for this function?

a. I & I

b. Legal Service

c. Internal Audit Unit d. Inspectorate Unit

187. Who appraise the Chief, BJMP on the on-going investigation of erring personnel?

a. Chief, Legal Service

b. Director for Investigation and Prosecution c. Chief, Inspectorate Unit

d. All of the above

188. The doctrine of Command Responsibility was institutionalized in all government offices,

particularly at all levels of command in the PNP and other law enforcement agencies. The supervisor or

officer is held liable of this offense if he has:

a. Knowledge that a crime or offense shall be committed by his subordinates or by others within

his AOR

b. Knowledge that a crime or offense is being committed by his subordinates, or by others within

AOR

c. Knowledge that a crime or offense has been committed by his subordinates or by others within

his AOR.

d. All of the above


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189. Which one among the following functions is discharged by the Warden?

a. Draft and promulgate rules, policies, programs and standards on jail management.

b. Exercise close supervision over all directorates, regional offices, provincial offices including

district, city and municipal jails.

c. Ensure the security and development of inmates. d. All of the above.

190. The third highest official of the BJMP is:

a. Chief Directorial Staff

b. Deputy Chief for Operations

c. Deputy Chief for Administration d. Director for Logistics

191. With the enactment of Republic Act No. 9263, the rank of Superintendent is appointed by:

a. Secretary, DILGb. Chief, BJMP

c. Regional Director d. None of the above

192. The appointing authority for Jail Officer 2 is:

a. Chief, BJMP

b. Regional Director

c. Undersecretary for Public Safety d. None of the above

26




193. The required training for the rank of Jail Officer 1 is:

a. PSJSC b. PSSSC c. JBRC

d. PSOOC

194. Chief Superintendent is the rank required to hold the helm of Directorates at the National

Headquarters. Which of the following Directorates is not a Program Director?

a. Directorate for Program Development b. Directorate for HRRM


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c. Directorate for Logistics

d. Directorate for Operations

195. What non-work related factor contributes to employees being non- productive/ non-performer in

our bureau?

a. Lack of training

b. Personal problems

c. Lack of work orientation d. All of the above

195. Punctuality and attendance form part of an employees performance evaluation. As an immediate

superior, when do you rate your subordinate the numeral rating of 6?

a. Not more than 9-12 days absent

b. Not more than 13-16 days absent c. Not more than 5-8 days absent

d. Not more than 4 days absent197. Which of the following designations chaired the National Personnel

Selection and Promotion Board ( NPSPB)?

a. CDS b. DCA c. DCO

d. DHRRM

198. Which of the following designations act as Chairman of the Grievance

Committee in the National Headquarters?

a. CDS b. DCA c. DCOd. Director for HRRM

199. Which among the following designations is not a member of the

Regional PRAISE Committee?

a. Chief, Logistics Div

b. Chief, Comptrollership Div c. Chief, Operations Div

d. Chief, Program Devt Div

200. The suspended personnel for three (3) months do not enjoy the:

a. Mid/Year End Bonus b. RCA

c. Longevity Pay



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27




201. The following personnel is qualified to receive his Terminal Leave

Benefits (TLB) except personnel who:

a. Opt to retire before age 56

b. Resign from the service with no leave credits c. Left his station without official leave

d. Apply and qualify for CDD

202. It is the bureaus policy to consider the entry of individuals who meet the criteria under the

Minimum Qualification Standards, except in cases of:

a. Individuals who are exceptionally skilled

b. Individuals whose technical expertise is in the field of penologyc. Applicants who have previous government service but more than 40 years old when number of years

served is deducted.

d. Individuals whose technical know-how is urgently needed by the

Bureau

203. Under the Merit Selection & Promotion Plan (MSPP), a qualified next- in-rank personnel and/or

any aggrieved party who is not considered for promotion to the next higher position may present his

case to :

a. Directorate for I & Ib. Legal Service

c. Grievance Machinery d. Inspectorate Unit

204. The effective date of appointment shall be the date of :

a. issuance of such appointment b. actual assumption to office

c. on-the-job training d. None of the above

205. Records management is defined as the application of systematic and scientific control of record

information which is required in the operation of an organization. Which of the following activities do

not involve records management?

a. Creation of records b. Storage of records

c. Disposition of records d. Auction of records

206. Records management plays a vital function to any organization.

Which one among the following is not considered as function of records management?


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a. Program the records file cycle b. Simplify correspondence

c. Ensure improved quality of information

d. Aid management in its fundamental responsibilities

207. is the organizations operation wherein exchanges of written ideas between two

sources occur.

a. Report Management b. Records Creation

c. Policy Creation

d. Directives Creation

208. Which of the following is not considered as problem in handling records?

a. Cost of keeping and maintaining records b. Lack of specific records policy

c. Increased production of records by means of office automation, photocopier, etc.

d. Makes essential information easily accessible




209. Easy and quick access to records define a sound records management. Which of the

following is adopted for effective records management?

a. Records Custodian adopts records Classification system b. Records Custodian adopts recordscharged-out cards

c. Records Custodian disposes records without documentation

d. Records Custodian maintains records in a dark room

210. Under RA 6713, government agencies should act promptly on letters , telegrams or other means of

communication within how many days?

a. Within Ten (10) days

b. Within fifteen (15) Days c. Within Thirty (30) days d. None of the Above

211. Under RA 6713, what is the maximum number of signatory which should be contained in papers

and documents in order to be processed expeditiously?

a. One ( 1) Signatory b. Two (2) Signatory

c. Three (3) Signatory d. Four (4) Signatory


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212. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall always uphold the public interest

over and above personal interest.

a. Commitment to public interest b. Justness and Sincerity

c. Responsiveness to the Public d. Professionalism

213. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall extend prompt, courteous, and

adequate service to the public, simplify and systematize policy, rules and procedures, avoid red tape and

develop an understanding and appreciation of the socio-economic conditions prevailing in the country.

a. Commitment to public interest b. Justness and Sincerity

c. Responsiveness to the Public d. Professionalism

214. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall at all times be loyal to the Republic and

to the Filipino people, promote the use of locally produced goods, resources and technology andencourage appreciation and pride of country and people.

a. Nationalism and Patriotism b. Commitment to Democracy

c. Commitment to public interest d. Justness and Sincerity

215. Norms which holds that public officials and employees shall commit themselves to the democratic

way of life and values, maintain the principle of public accountability, and manifest by deeds the

supremacy of civilian authority over the military. They shall at all times uphold the Constitution and put

loyalty to country above loyalty to persons or party.

a. Nationalism and Patriotism b. Commitment to Democracy

c. Commitment to public interest d. Justness and Sincerity

29




216. Married male employees with more than one (1) legal spouse are entitled to avail of Paternity

Leave. Regardless of whichever spouse gives birth, the maximum number of deliveries which can be

availed of is:

a. Two (2) deliveries

b. Three (3) deliveries c. Four (4) deliveries d. Five (5) deliveries


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217. Which of the following statement is false with regard to availment of the three

(3) day Special Leave Privileges?

a. It maybe availed of for personal milestones including death anniversaries b. Parental Obligations such

as attendance in school programs

c. It may only be availed of in a continuous and not in intermittent manner d. It maybe availed of during

domestic emergencies, calamity, accident, hospitalization

218. When an official or employee who is on leave without pay for One (1) Year, fails to report for work

at the expiration of the leave applied for, he shall be considered:

a. AWOL

b. Automatically separated from the service

c. Shall be furnished with a Return to Work Order d. Shal be considered dropped from the Rolls

219. Study Leave is a time off-from work with pay for those qualified officials and employees who are

taking e.g. board exam or completion of masters degree. What is the maximum number of months that

maybe availed of, under the Study Leave Program?

a. Three (3) Months b. Four (4) months c. Five (5) Months

d. Six (6) Months

220. Period of Grant is the number of months availed of under the Study Leave Program. What is the

equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for One (1) month?

a. Three Months b. Six (6) Months c. One (1) Year

d. Two (2)Years

221. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for

two to three (2-3) months?


d. Two (2)Years

222. What is the equivalent service obligation rendered by an employee who availed of Study Leave for

more than three (3) months?


d. Two (2)Years


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30




PART II. WARDENSHIP MANUAL NOTES

KINDS OF WARDEN AND LEADERSHIP STYLES

(Culled from BJMP Wardenship Manual Notes)

223. Which of the following role is true among jail wardens?

a. Warden as leader and mentor b. Warden as spokesperson

c. Warden as figurehead d. All of the above

225. Which among the following shows good traits of the warden as a

Leader and a Mentor?

a. A Warden which uses Diplomacy and goodwill with other units through pleasant and

collaborative shoulder-rubbing with other government agencies, NGOs and civic groups

b. One who Seeks inflow of information in his office and updates to come up with wise decisions and

relevant actions

c. Serves as symbolic image of the jail which will stand for the unit in ceremonial and civic activities

inside and outside the workplace

d. A warden that leads and tries not to drive by initiating jail activities,

coordinates efforts and motivates personnel to produce great results.

224. When a warden is said to be a figurehead, he deems to perform functions such as:

a. Diplomacy and goodwill with other units through pleasant and collaborative shoulder-rubbing

with other government agencies, NGOs and civic groups

b. Seeks inflow of information in his office and updates to come up with wise decisions and relevant

actions

c. Symbolic image of the jail which will stand for the unit in ceremonial and civic activities inside and

outside the workplace


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d. All of the above

226. Which among the following does not cater to Inmates Welfare and

Development?

a. Education and skills training b. Medical and dental services c. Wok programs


227. In planning, wardens must be able to draft a SMART plan. A SMART

plan means:

a. A wise plan that can provide solution to jail problems

b. A plan that will provide options to the warden in finding ways to address jail incidents

c. A plan that is specific, measurable, attainable, result oriented and time bounded.

d. All of the above

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228. An action-hungry warden, who gives oneself to hardwork ,highly dedicated and a serious

worker who will not give in to bribing or any anomalous deals, is said to be a:

a. Warden by Lusot b. Warden by Kayod c. Warden by Libro d. Warden by Oido

229. A kind of Warden who capitalizes on a loophole to avoid too much work, or as an excuse for

failure. This kind of warden is also fond of making shortcuts thru unconventional and illegal ways to

attain the objectives is what kind of warden?

a. Warden by Lusot b. Warden by Kayod c. Warden by Libro

d. Warden by Ugnayan

230. This type of warden operates by the dictates of the book what the manuals and other

formal documents say. He/she is systematic, thorough, and analytical.




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231. This type of warden is said to be one having a vast field of practical experiences to compensate

for the lack of formal management education.

a. Warden by Lusot b. Warden by Kayod c. Warden by Libro d. Warden by Oido

232. A hybrid of all types of wardens deemed as a gifted reconciler of all philosophies and beliefs who

adopts various styles of management depending on the need and conditions of the organization. This

type of warden is participatory and coordinative.



233. It is said to be the art of influencing and directing people in a manner that wins their obedience,

confidence, respect and enthusiastic cooperation in achieving a common objective:

a. Planning

b. Coordinating c. Leadership

d. Directing

==================================================== Life is my teacher. And I will always

be its humble student

- Michelle Ng Bonto

2011 guide questions on penology officer exam

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