10362mpf iii kurs en _v1
TRANSCRIPT
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
1/104
1. These rod shaped bacteria, growing on the simple nutrient medium are Gram
positive, non spore forming, non motile. Volutin granules are found inside of the
cells. In the smears often have parallel - fence appearance:
A) Corynebacterium xerosis
B) Bacillus anthrasis
C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Bacillus cereus
E) Streptococcus mitis
2. In the treatment of disbacteriosis in order to restore the normal microflora apply:
A) bacteriophages
B) eubiotics
C) nutrient medium
D) antimetabolites
E) antibiotics
3. Belong to the bacteria, not fermenting carbohydrates:
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Clostridium perfringensC) Staphylococcus epidermidis
D) Vibrio cholerae
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. The mechanism of the appearance of the rash in measles is associated with:
A) a reproduction of the virus in the epidermis
B) cutaneous tropism of the virus
C) the hemolytic activity of the virus under action of T-lymphocytes
D) hemagglutinating properties of the virus
E) interaction of T-lymphocytes with infected endothelial cells
5. Is opportunistic bacteria:
A) Shigella sonnei
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Salmonella Typhi
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
2/104
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
6. It is characteristic of Giardia lamblia trophozoites:
A) is not motile
B) has an apical complex
C) has pseudopodia
D) has four nucleus
E) is motile
7. Is not used in microbiological diagnosis of leptospirosis:
A) microscopic technique
B) skin-allergic method
C) serological method
D) bacteriological method
E) biological method
8. Is used for treatment of diseases, caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A) Penicillin
B) metronidazole
C) quinolone drugs
D) sulfonamides
E) fluconazole
9. DNA contains:
1.Hepatitis A virus;
2.The hepatitis B virus;
3.Hepatitis C virus;
4.Hepatitis D virus;
5.Hepatitis E virus;
A) 2, 4
B) 2, 5
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 5
E) only 2
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
3/104
10. In the hemolyse zone of staphylococci, isolated after blood agar cultivation of
specimen, taken from the nasal cavity a small, semi-transparent satellit colonies
were observed. These colonies may be belong to:
A) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Bordetella pertussis
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Staphylococcus epidermidis
11. İgG detection to Toxoplasma gondii (in the absence of appropriate İgM) in
newborn blood serum confirms:
A) the presence of appropriate antibodies in the mother B) infection through the birth canal
C) infection through breast milk
D) intrauterine infection
E) postvaccinal immunity
12. In the diagnosis of coccidioidomycosis in skin-allergic test is used:
A) blastomycin
B) histoplasmin
C) spherulin
D) mycotoxin
E) trichophytin
13. Is used in diagnosis of Haemophilus influenzae infections:
A) biological method
B) skin-allergic test
C) bacteriological method
D) radioimmune method
E) molecular genetics method
14. Are used for diagnosis of tuberculosis:
1.Widal reaction;
2.Mantoux test;
3.Wright reaction;
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
4/104
4.Ziehl-Neelsen method;
5.Fernandes test;
6.Prays’ method;
A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 1, 4, 6
D) 2, 3, 6
E) 2, 4, 6
15. The causative agent of chancroid is:
A) Treponema pallidum
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
E) Haemophilus ducreyi
16. It is characteristic of picornavirus:
A) reproduction occurs in the nucleus of the host cell
B) the genomic RNA acts as a ribosomal RNA in the reproduction
C) genome contains double-stranded, non-segmented DNA
D) has a helical capsid
E) the genomic RNA acts as a messenger RNA in the reproduction
17. The main features of pathogens of nosocomial infections:
1.Antibiotic resistance;
2.Acid resistance;
3.High virulence;
4.The antigenic variability;
5.Antagonism;
6.Tropism to certain organs;
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 5, 6
D) 2, 3, 5
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
5/104
E) 1, 2, 5
18. Does not belong to the clinical manifestations of diseases, caused by
Gardnerella:
A) chancroid
B) bacterial vaginosis
C) salpingo-oophoritis
D) non-specific urethritis
E) endometritis
19. Is used in the diagnosis of trachoma:
A) skin-allergy test
B) microscopic technique
C) complement fixation test
D) agglutination test
E) bacteriological method
20. Is causative agent of whooping cough:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Klebsiella pneumoniaeC) Bordetella pertussis
D) Burkholderia mallei
E) Chlamydia trachomatis
21. Is applied to determine of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxicity:
A) agglutination reaction
B) immunofluorescence reaction
C) Coomb’s reaction
D) complement fixation test
E) the gel precipitation test
22. The main reason of absence of effective vaccines against acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome is:
A) the duration of the incubation period of the disease
B) the difficulties of the virus obtaining
C) the difficulties of the virus cultivation
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
6/104
D) the ability to integrate viral genome into the host cell
E) the impossibility of biological modeling of disease
23. Exotoxin of this bacterium has a high dermonecrotic effect, causes limfositosis,
insulin production, increases sensitivity to histamine and serotonin:
A) Bacillus anthrasis
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Yersinia pestis
D) Brucella melitensis
E) Bordetella pertussis
24. Rotavirus infection is transmitted with:
A) fecal-oral mechanism
B) air-drop way
C) vector borne mechanism
D) parenteral mechanism
E) air-dust way
25. After this disease continuous immunitet is formed, reinfection is observed
rarely:
A) whooping cough
B) syphilis
C) brucellosis
D) gonorrhea
E) tuberculosis
26. Is used for treatment of leprosy:
A) isoniazid
B) sulfonamides
C) dapsone
D) metronidazole
E) penicillin G
27. In which case may develop the primary bubonic form of tularemia?
A) when infected through all ways
B) when infected with air-drop
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
7/104
C) when infected with contact
D) when infected through food
E) when infected with air-dust
28. Is used for treatment of whooping cough:
A) erythromycin
B) toxoid
C) the immune serum containing antibodies against causative agents
D) the immune serum containing antibodies against pertussis-toxin
E) the combined vaccine (DTP vaccine)
29. Belong to the paramyxoviruses:
1.Rubella virus;
2.Mumps virus;
3.Cytomegalovirus;
4.RS-virus;
5.Measles virus;
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 5
E) 1, 2, 3
30. Is used for differentiation of Brucella species:
A) the breakdown of carbohydrates
B) the capsule
C) the growth on simple nutrient media
D) formation of hydrogen sulfide
E) antimicrobial susceptibility
31. Respiratory infections, caused by this virus, in children in many cases
accompanied by conjunctivitis:
A) cytomegalovirus
B) RS-virus
C) rubivirus
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
8/104
D) adenovirus
E) influenza virus
32. The pathogenicity factors of Brucella include:
A) capsule and endotoxin
B) capsule and exotoxin
C) endotoxin and hydrogen sulfide
D) endotoxin and exotoxin
E) plasma coagulase və hyaluronidase
33. Does not belong to the normal flora of the human organism:
A) Listeria
B) lactobacilli
C) enterococci
D) streptococci
E) Candida
34. Used in the diagnosis of sepsis:
A) bacteriological examination of blood
B) microscopy of thick smear of blood
C) serological examination of blood
D) microscopy of thin smear of blood
E) dark-field microscopy of blood
35. Is used in diagnosis of brusellosis:
1.Microscopic method;
2.Wright reaction;
3.ELISA;
4.Burne test;
5.Widal reaction;
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 5
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 2, 3, 4
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
9/104
36. Coxsackie virus is transmitted with:
A) transplacental route
B) parenteral mechanism
C) vector borne mechanism
D) fecal-oral route
E) air-dust route
37. Is used for treatment of brusellosis:
A) tetracyclin and streptomycin
B) flukonazole and metronidazole
C) fluconazole and chloramphenicol
D) seftriaxone and erythromysin
E) seftriaxone and metronidazole
38. Morphological characters that are visible in smear from culture Leishmania
obtained in the NNN medium:
A) crescent shape, without flagella
B) rounded shape, without flagella
C) has pseudopodia, changeable shapeD) elongated fusiform, have flagella
E) coiled shape, have flagella
39. Is not transmission way of tularemia:
A) through aerogenic
B) through placenta
C) by vector
D) through contact
E) through food
40. Is used in the diagnosis of psittacosis:
A) immunoblotting
B) detection of antibodies in blood serum
C) biological method
D) ring presipitation test
E) microscopy of sputum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
10/104
41. Used in the diagnosis of hepatitis B:
A) immunofluorescence
B) enzyme immunoassay
C) complement fixation test
D) passive hemagglutination reaction
E) hemagglutination inhibition test
42. Is used in serological diagnosis of tularemia:
A) neutralization reaction
B) agglutination reaction
C) precipitation reaction
D) immunoblotting
E) Coomb’s reaction
43. It is used for the prevention of poliomyelitis:
A) live vaccine
B) toxoid
C) subvirion vaccine
D) antitoxin
E) immune serum
44. Legionella pneumophila is cultivated on:
A) charcoal yeast extract agar
B) Sabouraud’s medium
C) bile broth
D) liver agar
E) charcoal-casein agar
45. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:
A) X-Mucor musedo, Y-Candida albicans, Z-Madurella
B) X-Penicillum notatum, Y-Aspergillus fumigatus, Z-Mucor musedo
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
11/104
C) X-Cryptococcus neoformans, Y-Malassezia furfur, Z-Madurella
D) X-Aspergillus flavus, Y-Malassezia furfur, Z-Madurella
E) X-Aspergillus terreus, Y-Piedraia hortae, Z-Histoplasma capsulatum
46. Is used for diagnosis of nocardiosis:
A) bacteriological and serological method
B) serological and biological method
C) microscopic and bacteriological method
D) Montenegro test
E) Frey test
47. Drug of choice in treatment of legionellosis:
A) penicillin G
B) erythromysin
C) immune serum
D) metronidazole
E) antitoxin
48. In the smear from culture, growing on penicillin containing nutrient medium,
protoplast chains have necklace appearance. This feature is characteristic for: A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Bacillus anthrasis
D) Yersinia pestis
E) Listeria monocytogenes
49. Colonies of Bacillus anthrasis on solid nutrient medium:
A) red colonies with metallic shine
B) a lion’s mane or medusa head appearance
C) molar teeth appearance
D) fried egg appearance
E) bordered towel appearance
50. Is correct for the genome of hepatitis B virus:
A) consists of a circular single-stranded RNA
B) consists of a linear double-stranded DNA
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
12/104
C) consists of a circular single-stranded DNA
D) consists of a linear single-stranded DNA
E) consists of a circular double-stranded DNA
51. Exotoxin of Bacillus anthrasis include:
A) tracheal toxin
B) protective antigen
C) pertussis toxin
D) scarlatina toxin
E) capsule antigen
52. On the neck skin of 18-year-old boy appeared hypo- or hyperpigmented discrete
spots. In microscopy of scraping from skin lesion were detected round and oval
yeast cells, short, curved, not branching hyphae. The estimated disease is:
A) white piedra
B) tinea corporis
C) psoriasis
D) pityriasis versicolor
E) black piedra
53. Do not belong to opportunistic fungi:
1.Histoplasma;
2.Candida;
3.Cryptococcus;
4.Aspergillus;
5.Blastomyces;
6.Mucor;
A) 1, 5
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 6
D) 1, 3
E) 2, 4
54. Is not correct for anthrax:
A) skin form of disease is more common
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
13/104
B) can be disseminate in all of the disease forms
C) the source of infection is human
D) clinical signs depend on transmission way
E) the source of infection are animals
55. Exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa:
A) increases the glycogen amount in cells
B) inhibits the synthesis of cyclic AMF in cells
C) increases the of cyclic AMF amount in cells
D) increases amount of aromatic amino acids in cells
E) inhibits of protein synthesis in cells
56. On the hand’s back surface of the of 40-year-old butcher is formed covered with
black colored carbuncle, around the carbuncle red color edema is observed.
Microscopic examination of the carbuncle exudate Gram positive rod shaped
bacteria have been found. The estimated causative agent is:
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Yersinia pestis
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Bacillus anthrasis
E) Listeria monocytogenes
57. Cryptococcus neoformans:
A) has a septate mycelium and arthroconidia
B) has a septate mycelium and sporangiospores
C) is rounded yeast cells with capsule
D) has a septate mycelium and airy spores
E) has a mycelium with macroconidia covered with spikes
58. The herpes simplex viruses type II persist in:
A) sacral ganglions
B) trigeminal ganglions
C) dorsal ganglions
D) Peyers patch
E) skin and mucosa
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
14/104
59. Opportunistic Corynebacterium spp. is called:
A) basili
B) Clostridium
C) Listeria
D) diphtheroids
E) Pseudomonas
60. The mitis type of Corynebacterium diphtheriae forms on nutrient medium:
A) a lion’s mane resembling colonies
B) colonies with bordered towel appearance
C) red colonies with a metallic brightness
D) small-sized S-colonies with hemolysis zone
E) grayish black color large-size R-colonies
61. Selective medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:
A) casein-coal agar
B) Endo medium
C) Klauberg’s medium
D) Lovenstein-Jensen’s medium
E) Sabouraud’s medium
62. Which statement is true?
A) hepatitis D virus contain HBs antigen
B) hepatitis D virus contain DNA
C) hepatitis D virus is nonenveloped
D) hepatitis D virus infection complicates hepatitis C
E) hepatitis D virus contain HBc antigen
63. The most common complication of measles:
A) pleuritis
B) splenomegaly
C) hepatitis
D) pneumonia
E) nephritis
64. Is not transmission way of diphtheria:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
15/104
A) through air-drop
B) through indirect contact
C) through air-dust
D) by vector
E) through direct contact
65. Clinical signs of giardiasis:
A) jaundice
B) dyspeptic disorders
C) lymphadenopathy
D) stomatitis
E) fever
66. Is the most dangerous complications of diphtheria:
A) dermatitis
B) hepatitis
C) rhinitis
D) myocarditis
E) conjunctivitis
67. Is accompanied by toxemia:
A) dysenteriae
B) anthrax
C) listeriosis
D) scarlet fever
E) diphtheria
68. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:
A) Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria
E) Gram negative, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
69. Is applied to determine of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin in clinical
specimens:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
16/104
A) immunochromatographic method
B) coagglutination reaction
C) Elek’s test
D) immune lysis reaction
E) the gel precipitation test
70. In the diagnosis of this disease is used agglutination of sheep erythrocytes with
patient sera:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) all the bacterial infections
C) ricketsiosis
D) actinomycosis
E) all the viral infections
71. After application of diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine (DTP vaccine) is
formed:
A) antibacterial immunity against diphtheria
B) toxoid against pertussis
C) antibacterial immunity against tetanus
D) antitoxic immunity against diphtheria
E) antitoxic immunity against pertussis
72. Listeria monocytogenes is:
A) Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram negative, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria
D) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram positive, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
73. The result of mutations, occurring in the gene KatG of Mycobacterium
tuberculosis:
A) resistance to streptomycin
B) resistance to isoniazid
C) formation of non acid fast mycobacteria
D) destruction of mycobacteria
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
17/104
E) appearance of atypical mycobacteria
74. Listeriolysin-O, which is the main pathogenicity factors of Listeria
monocytogenes:
A) neutralizes free oxygen radicals inside of phagosome
B) inactivates elongation factor EF-2 in ribosome
C) forms the pores in cytoplasmic membrane of cells
D) causes destruction of neuromediators inside of synapses
E) destroys of phagolysosome membrane
75. Belong to diseases, caused by Haemophilus influenzae:
1.Gas gangrene;
2.Chancroid;
3.Erysipelas;
4.Epiglottitis;
5.Meningitis;
A) 4, 5
B) 1, 3
C) 3, 4D) 2, 4
E) 2, 5
76. Clostridium botulinum is:
A) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
77. This bacteria has subterminal spores giving the bacilli "tennis racket"
appearance:
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium tetani
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Clostridium botulinum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
18/104
E) Bacillus anthracis
78. Pathogenetic mechanism of infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus:
A) Epstein-Barr virus suppresses the ability of B-lymphocytes proliferate
B) infected T-lymphocytes contribute to the lymphoma
C) T-killer cells contribute to the proliferation of infected B-lymphocytes
D) T-killer contribute to the proliferation of infected macrophages
E) virus-infected B-lymphocytes become a target for T-killer cells
79. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium botulinum include:
A) enotoxin
B) exotoxin
C) flagella
D) plasma coagulase
E) capsule
80. Is used in the specific prevention of diphtheria:
A) triple vaccine (DTP vaccine)
B) antitoxin
C) BCG vaccine
D) interferon
E) bakteriophage
81. Is used for detection of Clostridium botulinum exotoxin in pathological
specimens and food products:
A) Elek test
B) gel precipitation reaction
C) biological probe
D) coagglutination reaction
E) immune lysis reaction
82. Is used for the specific prevention of botulism:
A) immunoglobulin
B) recombinant vaccine
C) antitoxin
D) interferon
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
19/104
E) bakteriophage
83. Picornaviruses’ genome consist of:
A) a segmented, single-stranded, negative RNA
B) a segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA
C) non-segmented, double-stranded DNA
D) non-segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA
E) a segmented, double-stranded DNA
84. Is Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria:
A) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Clostridium tetani
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Bacillus anthracis
85. For diagnosis of the amebiasis is used:
A) complement fixation test
B) microscopic technique
C) inhibition of hemagglutination
D) skin-allergic test
E) bacteriological method
86. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium tetani include:
A) enotoxin
B) capsule
C) flagella
D) plasma coagulase
E) exotoxin
87. Mechanism of tetanospasmin action:
A) blockade of neuromediators’ production at synapses
B) polyclonal stimulation of T-helpers
C) inactivation of elongation factor EF-2 in ribosomes
D) activation of adenyle cyclase inside the cells
E) osmotic lysis of cells
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
20/104
88. HBs antigen of hepatitis B virus is located:
A) in envelope
B) in the core
C) in the capsid
D) between the capsid and envelope
E) in the nucleocapsid
89. Why is not formed immunity after tetanus?
A) due to lack of immunogenicity of toxin
B) due to lack of antigenicity of toxin
C) toxigenic dose of toxin is less than immunogenic dose
D) immunogenic dose of toxin is less than toxigenic dose
E) due to the formation of infectious immunity
90. Papillomaviruses are:
A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
C) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
91. Is used in the specific prevention of tetanus:
A) tetanolysin
B) tetanospasmin
C) penicillin G
D) bakteriophage
E) antitoxin
92. Clostridium perfringens is:
A) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
93. Paramyxoviruses include:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
21/104
1.RS-virus;
2.Cytomegalovitus;
3.Rubella virus;
4.Measles virus;
5.Parainfluenza virus;
6.Mumps virus;
A) 2, 3, 4, 6
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 3, 4, 5, 6
D) 2, 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 4, 5, 6
94. It is not biological action effect of Clostridium perfringens toxin:
A) lethal effect
B) necrotic effect
C) cytotoxic effect
D) contraction of muscles
E) hemolytic effect
95. Enteroviruses include:
A) foot and mouth disease virus
B) rotavirus
C) Epstein-Barr virus
D) ECHO viruses
E) hepatitis C virus
96. Is used in diagnosis of gas gangrene:
A) Wright and Coomb’s reaction
B) microscopic and bacteriological methods
C) gel precpitation reaction
D) serological and skin-allergic methods
E) bacteriological and skin-allergic tests
97. Is used in the specific prevention of gas gangrene:
A) intrferon
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
22/104
B) antitoxin
C) tetanospasmin
D) tuberculin
E) bakteriophage
98. Is correct for mycoplasma:
A) is membrane parasites
B) forms a spore and capsule
C) is obligate intracellular parasites
D) does not grow on artificial nutrient media
E) grows on simple nutrient media
99. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium difficile include:
A) exotoxin
B) flagella
C) endotoxin
D) spora
E) keratinase
100. The main transmission way of botulism:
A) through contact
B) by vector
C) through air-drop
D) through placenta
E) through food
101. 35-year-old man went to the doctor complaining of attacks of abdominal pain,
diarrhea, and temperature, which have developed on the 12th day after taking
antibiotics. When stool microscopy were identified a large Gram positive bacteria. In
the routine bacteriological examination detected no pathogens. The estimated
causative agent is:
A) Salmonella Enteritidis
B) enteroviruslar
C) Clostridium difficile
D) rotaviruslar
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
23/104
E) Shigella dysenteriae
102. Is used for treatment of psevdomembranous colitis:
A) ceftriaxone
B) clindamycin
C) ampicillin/sulbactam
D) metronidazole
E) amoxicillin/clavulanic acid
103. For the prevention of poliomyelitis administered orally:
A) toxoid
B) recombinant vaccine
C) subvirion vaccine
D) live vaccine
E) inactivated vaccine
104. Is environmental tier of Bacteroides fragilis group bacteria:
A) oral cavity
B) the upper respiratory tract
C) large intestine
D) lower respiratory tract
E) the skin surface
105. It is motile microorganism, the body is coiled in 8-12 regular spiral:
A) Borrelia
B) Campylobacter
C) Treponema
D) Helicobacter
E) Leptospira
106. The distinguishing cultural character of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
A) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows rapidly
B) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
C) grows slowly on cell culture
D) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
E) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows on simple medium
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
24/104
107. The cultivation medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis::
1.Klauberg’s medium;
2.Lowensteyn-Jensen’s medium;
3.Wilson-Bleur medium;
4.Middlebrook medium;
5.Kitt-Tarotsi medium.
A) 4, 5
B) 2, 5
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 2
E) 2, 3
108. Detection in blood serum of the patients with hepatitis B, spherical and
filamentous particles is due to:
A) productive infection
B) malignancy
C) integrative infection
D) vaccinationE) abortive infection
109. The 6 weeks culture filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in glycerol broth
R.Koh evaporated at 70°C to 1/10 of the original volume. As a result:
A) virulence of tubercle bacilli is weakened
B) virulence of tubercle bacilli is increased
C) cord factor was obtained
D) tuberculin was obtained
E) BCG vaccine was obtained
110. On the structure scheme of influenza virus with number 1 is designated:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
25/104
A) glycoprotein spikes
B) nucleocapsid
C) M protein
D) envelope
E) capsid
111. Is not transmission way of tuberculosis:
A) through placenta
B) through contact
C) by vector
D) through air-drop
E) through food
112. In microscopic examination of Ziehl-Neelsen stained sputum smear of the
patient with pneumonia acid fast bacteria have been found. The estimated causative
agent is:
A) Legionella pneumophila
B) Bordetella pertussis
C) Klebsiella pneumoniae
D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
113. Is not used for diagnosis of tuberculosis:
A) microscopic method
B) serological method
C) complement fixation test
D) skin-allergic method
E) polymerase chain reaction
114. From urine of the patient with cystitis have been obtained Gram negative,
motile rod shaped bacteria, which forms bluish colonies on meat-peptone agar. The
estimated causative agent is:
A) Proteus mirabilis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Clostridium perfringens
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
26/104
D) Klebsiella oxytoca
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
115. Rabies virus enters the central nervous system:
A) with the blood
B) with macrophages
C) through the lymph
D) through the peripheral nerves
E) with red blood cells
116. Is not correct for Mantoux test:
A) is positive in healthy people
B) is negative in immunosuppression case that accompanied tuberculosis
C) is positive in people, infected with tuberculosis
D) tuberculin positive patient are at risk of devoloping disease from reactivation of the
primary infection
E) is positive after BCG vaccination
117. Is not used for specific chemotherapy of tuberculosis:
A) rifampinB) tetracyclin
C) ethambutol
D) isoniazid
E) pyrazinamide
118. Is used for differentiation Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium
bovis:
A) bile sencitivity test
B) antibiotic sensitivity test
C) niacin test
D) catalase test
E) opthochin test
119. Is used in the treatment of diseases, caused by Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma:
A) tetracyclines and macrolides
B) beta-lactam antibiotics
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
27/104
C) metronidazole and amoxicillin
D) acyclovir and interferon
E) ampicillin and streptomycin
120. Mycobacterium leprae is:
A) spore forming, non motile, rod shaped bacteria
B) non spore forming, motile, rod shaped bacteria
C) non spore forming, non motile, sherical shaped bacteria
D) non spore forming, non motile, rod shaped bacteria
E) non spore forming, motile, helical bacteria
121. Entamoeba histolytica:
A) has only the trophozoite form
B) is not motile
C) has the trophozoite and cyst forms
D) does not form cysts
E) has an apical complex
122. The source of leprosy is:
A) infected animals
B) midge
C) infected people
D) armadillo
E) the objects of the environment
123. Is correct for leprosy:
A) the lepromatous type develops in persons with normal immunity
B) is infected fecal-oral mechanism
C) is not infected from human to human
D) source of infection is the objects of the environment
E) the tuberculoid type develops in persons with normal immunity
124. The distinguishing cultural character of Mycobacterium leprae:
A) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
B) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows on simple medium
C) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
28/104
D) does not grow on nutrient medium
E) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows rapidly
125. Is used for diagnosis of leprosy:
A) bacteriological method
B) Wright reaction
C) Widal reaction
D) Mantoux test
E) microscopic method
126. Used to detect of non treponemal antibodies in diagnosis of syphilis:
1.Indirect immunofluorescence reaction;
2.Indirect hemagglutination reaction;
3.İmmunoelectrophoresis;
4.VDRL-test;
5.RPR-test;
A) 1, 3
B) 3, 4
C) 4, 5
D) 2, 4
E) 3, 5
127. Gram positive, spore forming, non motile rod shaped bacteria. After breeding
did not disperse, as a result form a branched mycelium similar structures:
A) actinomycetes
B) mycobacteria
C) mycoplasma
D) bacilli
E) fungi
128. Around of the causative agents entering through mucus membrane and
damaged skin is formed specific granuloma. After destruction of this granuloma
form hearths and the roads connecting of the pathological process with external
environment and allowing to an outflow of pus .What disease pathogenesis isdescribed here?
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
29/104
A) leprosy
B) anthrax
C) venereal lymphogranuloma
D) tuberculosis
E) actinomycosis
129. Which statement is not true?
A) hepatitis C virus has 6 genotypes
B) hepatitis C virus does not replicate in chicken embryos
C) hepatitis C virus is transmitted by parenteral
D) hepatitis C virus contain DNA
E) hepatitis C virus is enveloped
130. Is used for diagnosis of actinomycosis:
A) biological method
B) serological method
C) Fernandes test
D) bacteriological method
E) Ascoli test
131. In the scalp of schoolchild observed baldness with flaking. In microscopic
examination the mycelium with septa and gas bubbles were found inside hair. This
process is called:
A) crusted ringworm
B) pityriasis versicolor
C) psoriasis
D) onychomycosis
E) sporotrichosis
132. Ecology of Nocardia spp:
A) human
B) carnivorous animals
C) environmental objects
D) herbivore animals
E) birds
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
30/104
133. Localisation of the pathological process in nocardiosis:
A) liver
B) hair and nails
C) lungs
D) gastro-intestinal tract
E) kidneys
134. Brazilian purpuric fever caused by:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis D-K type
B) aegypticus biotype of Haemophilus influenzae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae b type
E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
135. The causative agent of syphilis is:
A) Haemophilus ducreyi
B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C) Nocardia brasiliensis
D) Treponema pallidum
E) Chlamydia trachomatis
136. Human immunodeficiency virus is:
A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
B) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
C) DNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
D) RNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped
E) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
137. The virulent strains of Treponema pallidum:
A) is cultivated on Lowenstein-Jensen’s medium
B) is cultivated on Kitt-Tarotsi medium
C) is cultivated on blood agar
D) does not grow on nutrient medium
E) is cultivated on Klauberg’s medium
138. Syphilis is transmitted:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
31/104
A) with air-drop mechanism
B) with contact mechanism
C) with alimentary way
D) by vector
E) with fecal-oral mechanism
139. Is dameged by Epidermophyton:
1.The skin;
2.Hair;
3.Nails;
4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;
A) only 1
B) 1, 2, 3
C) only 1 and 3
D) only 2 and 3
E) 1, 2, 4
140. Is characteristic for secondary syphilis:
A) rashes
B) gummas
C) gentle chancre
D) hard chancre
E) chancroid
141. Bacteriological examination of stool of the patient with symptoms of bloody
diarrhea were not isolated pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms. Correct
physician’s tactics in this case, would be:
A) microscopic examination of stool
B) repeated bacteriological examination of stool
C) confirmation of the diagnosis by the biological method
D) determination of serum antibodies to the causative agent of bacillary dysentery
E) confirmation of the diagnosis by the skin-allergic test
142. Is not correct for immunity after syphilis:
A) when re-infection of the disease begins with symptoms of second period
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
32/104
B) there are no cases of re-infection
C) is not possible development of superinfection in active periods of the disease
D) is not possible development of superinfection in latent syphilis
E) when re-infection does not develop a chancre
143. Is diagnostic method in primary syphilis:
A) bacteriological
B) microscopic and biological
C) microscopic
D) serological and skin-allergic
E) microscopic and bacteriological
144. Does not form cyst:
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Entoamoeba histolytica
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Balantidium coli
E) Giardia lamblia
145. Used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis in RPR (rapid plasma reagin)-testpositive patients:
A) bacteriological investigation of blood for detection causative agent
B) dark-field microscopy of blood for detection causative agent
C) detection of antibodies in blood serum using of indirect hemagglutination reaction
D) detection of antibodies in blood serum using VDRL-test
E) immunofluorescence reaction for detection causative agent
146. The most sensitive method for diagnosis of whooping cough:
A) Elek test
B) Mantoux test
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) immunoblotting
E) Wright reaction
147. It is motile microorganism, the body is coiled in 3-10 large, irregular spiral:
A) Leptospira
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
33/104
B) Treponema
C) Helicobacter
D) Borrelia
E) Campylobacter
148. Borrelia is cultivated on:
A) Kitt-Tarotsi medium
B) Klauberg’s medium
C) Lowenstein-Jensen medium
D) chicken embryo
E) casein-charcoal agar
149. Does not belong to human papillomavirus infection:
A) cutaneous warts
B) cervical papilloma
C) verrucous laryngitis
D) infectious erythema
E) skin papilloma
150. Is correct for the transmission mechanism of epidemic relapsing fever:
A) rubbing of the infected lice hemolymph to damaged skin
B) rubbing of the infected lice feces to damaged skin
C) sucking blood by infected mosquitoes
D) sucking blood by infected ticks
E) sucking blood by infected flies
151. The source of infection in mycetoma is:
A) infected birds
B) infected people
C) soil
D) mosquitoes
E) infected animals
152. The main clinical symptom of relapsing fever:
A) atypical pneumonia
B) ulcerative colitis
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
34/104
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
35/104
E) tropical malaria
157. Is not correct for leptospirosis:
A) sick animals are secreted pathogen with urine
B) people is infected through water contaminated by urine of infected animals
C) the entrance gate of infection are damaged skin and mucous membranes
D) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted with contact
E) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted by lice
158. Is used in the microbiological diagnosis of leptospirosis:
A) microscopy of blood smears stained by Giemsa method
B) microscopy of sputum smears stained by Ziehl-Neelsen
C) microscopy of sputum smears stained by Giemsa method
D) microscopy of the spot elements stained by Giemsa method
E) microscopy of smears prepared from wound secretions
159. Biological action effect of Clostridium botulinum exotoxin is:
A) paralysis of muscles
B) cell necrosis
C) contraction of muscles
D) osmotic lysis of cells
E) immunostimulation
160. Is used in the treatment of leptospirosis:
A) immune serum
B) metronidazole
C) antitoxic serum
D) Penicillin G
E) azidothymidine
161. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:
A) X-Salmonella Typhi; Y-Shigella flexneri; Z-Yersinia enterocolitica;
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
36/104
B) X-Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Clostridium diffisile;
C) X-Clostridium diffisile; Y-Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Z-Yersinia pseudotuberculosis;
D) X-Clostridium diffisile; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Shigella flexneri
E) X-Shigella flexneri; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Salmonella Typhimurium;
162. Does not belong to the pathogenicity factors of Rickettsia:
A) a microcapsule
B) exotoxin
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) pili
E) Omp-protein
163. Is correct for epidemic spotted fever:
A) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted by flies
B) the source of infection are sick birds, is transmitted with air-drop way
C) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted by lice
D) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted by mosquitoes
E) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted with fecal-oral mechanism
164. In the saliva of mosquitoes infected with Plasmodium parasites are found:
A) schizonts
B) oocyst
C) merozoites
D) ookinete
E) sporozoites
165. The causative agent of endemic spotted fever is:
A) Coxiella burnetii
B) Borrelia recurrentis
C) Rickettsia typhi
D) Rickettsia prowazekii
E) Borrelia duttoni
166. The clinical manifestations of brusellosis include:
A) polyarthritis
B) pyelonephritis
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
37/104
C) dermatitis
D) pneumonia
E) conjunctivitis
167. Coxiella burnetii is:
A) Gram-negative bacteria, is cultivated on simple nutrient media
B) Gram-positive bacteria, is cultivated on simple nutrient media
C) the bacteria without cell walls, is cultivated on simple nutrient media
D) the bacteria without cell walls, is cultivated on enriched nutrient media
E) an obligate intracellular parasite, is cultivated in chicken embryo
168. Is not correct for Q-fever:
A) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted through alimentary way
B) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted with aerogenic mechanism
C) is infected by eating meat and milk of infected animals
D) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted by the bite of ticks
E) the source of infection are environmental objects, is transmitted with aerogenic
mechanism
169. In the scalp of schoolchild appeared scaling, itching and symptoms of alopecia. In order to confirm the diagnosis, damaged hair:
A) treated with acid and inoculated on lecithin meat-extract agar
B) treated with acid and inoculated on agar Endo
C) treated with acid and examined under microscope
D) treated with alkali and examined under microscope
E) treated with acid and inoculated on meat-extract agar
170. Is not a correct for trachoma:
A) the source of infection are sick people, transmitted through contact
B) is caused by A, B, Ba and C serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis
C) is accompanied by conjunctivitis
D) is observed intracellular inclusion in the conjunctiva epithelium
E) the source of infection are infected animals, transmitted by vector
171. Mycelial form of Histoplasma capsulatum:
A) are oval capsulated yeast cells
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
38/104
B) have macroconidia similar to banana
C) have pseudomycelia
D) have macroconidia with spikes on the surface
E) are represented the mycelium and yeast cells
172. What serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause urogenital chlamydiosis?
A) L1, L2, L3
B) A-D
C) A, B, Ba, C
D) K-L
E) D-K
173. When passing through the birth canal of infected mother, newborn may
become infected with:
A) inclusion conjuctivitis
B) poliomielit
C) rubella
D) toxoplasmosis
E) mumps174. In the human organism rabies virus can be detected in:
A) feces
B) urine
C) blood
D) sputum
E) saliva
175. What serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma
venereum?
A) K-L
B) D-K
C) L1, L2, L3
D) A, B, Ba, C
E) A-D
176. The main pathogenicity factors of Haemophilus influenzae is:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
39/104
A) extoxin
B) spora
C) fibrinolysin
D) lecithinase
E) capsule
177. Chlamydia psittaci causes:
A) chicken pox
B) poliomyelitis
C) infectious mononucleosis
D) Q-fever
E) psittacosis
178. Chlamydia psittaci causes:
A) lobar pneumonia
B) atypical pneumonia
C) lymphogranuloma venereum
D) urogenital chlamydiosis
E) pneumocystic pneumonia
179. Is not character for tetanus:
A) muscular spasms
B) opisthotonus
C) sardonic smile
D) trismus
E) rashes
180. Mycoplasma is cultivated on:
A) simple medium
B) meat-peptone broth supplemented with glucose
C) brain-heart agar supplemented with serum
D) blood agar with glucose
E) Kitt-Tarotsi medium
181. Paramyxoviruses don’t include:
A) parainfluenza virus
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
40/104
B) mumps virus
C) RS-virus
D) influenza virus
E) measles virus
182. Pathogenicity of mycoplasma is due to:
A) blockage of protein synthesis in the host cell
B) accumulation of cyclic AMP in the host cell
C) destruction of neurotransmitters at the synapse
D) polyclonal stimulation of T-helper cells
E) damaging of the host cell membrane
183. Causes urogenital infection:
A) Leptospira interrogans
B) Coxiella burnetii
C) Mycoplasma hominis
D) Chlamydia psittaci
E) Borrelia burgdorferi
184. The causative agent of relapsing fever is:
A) Borrelia
B) Nocardia
C) Treponema
D) Neisseria
E) Chlamydia
185. Is used for detection of mycoplasmas in smears, prepared from the
pathological material:
A) simple stain
B) Gram stain
C) wet microscopy
D) immunofluorescence
E) Neisser stain
186. Determine the X, Y, Z viruses:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
41/104
A) X-herpes simplex virus type II; Y-herpes simplex virus type I; Z-Epstein-Barr virus;
B) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-cytomegalovirus;
C) X-Epstein-Barr virus; Y-herpes simplex virus type I; Z- herpes simplex virus type II;
D) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-Epstein-Barr virus;
E) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-varicella zoster virus
187. Ureaplasmas differ from other mycoplasmas:
A) the ability to grow on simple nutrient media
B) the ability to break down urea
C) the lack of cell wall
D) a capsule
E) intracellular parasitism
188. Is used for detection of Ureaplasma in smears, prepared from pathological
material:
A) immunofluorescence
B) wet microscopy
C) Neisser stain
D) Gram stain
E) dark-field microscopy
189. Used for prevention of influenza:
A) toxoid
B) inactivated vaccine
C) immune serum
D) immunoglobulin
E) antitoxic serum
190. The causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is:
A) Trichophyton rubrum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
42/104
B) Piedraia hortae
C) Epidermophyton floccosum
D) Malassezia furfur
E) Aspergillus flavus
191. Is pathogenetic mechanism of psevdomembranous colitis:
A) normal intestine microflora disbalance as a result of antibiotic treatment
B) Candida fungi growing inside of intestine as a result of antibiotic treatment
C) necrosis of the intestines mucous membrane as a result of siga-toxin action of Shigella
dysenteriae
D) psevdomembrane formation as a result of the multiplication of enteroviruses in the
intestinal epithelium
E) invasiveness of enteroinvasive Escherichia coli to intestinal epithelium
192. Causes flaking of the scalp:
A) Epidermophyton floccosum
B) Malassezia furfur
C) Piedraia hortae
D) Trichophyton rubrum
E) Aspergillus flavus
193. Is caused by Gardnerella vaginalis:
A) venereal lymphogranuloma
B) gonorrhea
C) suppurative conjunctivitis
D) bacterial vaginosis
E) chancroid
194. The cultivation conditions of dermatophytes:
A) at 250C, a few weeks
B) at 370C, 1-2 days
C) at 370C, a few weeks
D) at 250C, 1-2 days
E) for 370C, a few months
195. The most surface proteins of human immunodeficiency virus:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
43/104
A) p17 and p24
B) p17 and p10
C) gp41 and gp120
D) gp141, p17 and p24
E) gp40 and gp141
196. Does not belong to Herpesviridae family:
A) herpes simplex virus
B) cytomegalovirus
C) varicella zoster virus
D) measles virus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
197. Is dameged by Microsporum:
1.The skin;
2.Hair;
3.Nails;
4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;
A) 3, 4
B) only 4
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 4
E) 2, 3
198. Middle-aged woman addressed to the doctor with the complaint to dimness and
fragility of fingers nail plate. A microscopic examination of the nail plate showed
mycelium with septa. This process is called:
A) tinea pedis
B) tinea cruris
C) tinea capitis
D) onychomycosis
E) ectothrix
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
44/104
199. On the plantar skin of middle-aged woman appeared cracks accompanied by
itching and flaking. In microscopy of scraping from skin lesion were found
mycelium with septa. This process can be caused by:
A) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Sporothrix
B) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Candida
C) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Aspergillus
D) Microsporum and Candida
E) Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
200. Microscopic examination of the stool allows diagnosis in the case:
A) rotavirus infection
B) enteric fever
C) amoebic dysentery
D) bacillary dysentery
E) escherichiosis
201. The causative agent of crusted ringworm is:
A) Epidermophyton mentagrophytes
B) Trichophyton tonsurans
C) Trichophyton violaseum
D) Microsporum canis
E) Trichophyton schoenleini
202. The most common complications of mumps:
A) Reye's syndrome
B) sinusitis
C) orchitis and oophoritis
D) conjunctivitis
E) deafness and blindness
203. The main reason of the new subtype occurrence of influenza virus is:
A) complementation
B) transduction
C) drift
D) shift
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
45/104
E) phenotypic mixture
204. The damage of the subcutaneous tissue, muscle and fascia is typical for:
A) superficial mycosis
B) tinea
C) subcutaneous mycosis
D) pityriasis versicolor
E) mycotoxicoses
205. The main clinical symptom of Lyme disease:
A) erythema migrans
B) atypical pneumonia
C) ulcerative colitis
D) maculopapular rash
E) attacks of fever
206. In a smear from the sporotrichosis lesion can be detected:
A) branched mycelium without septa
B) branched mycelium with microconidia
C) small cigar-like yeast cells
D) branched mycelium with macroconidia
E) branched mycelium with septa
207. Used in prevention of AIDS:
A) subvirion vaccine
B) toxoid
C) recombinant vaccine
D) antitoxic serum
E) there is not any specific prevention
208. In which case, the bacteria isolated from the bacteriological examination of
sputum play an etiologic role?
A) bacteria isolated from a 100-fold dilution of sputum
B) bacteria isolated from 103-10
4 fold dilutions of sputum
C) bacteria isolated from 106-107 fold dilutions of sputum
D) bacteria isolated from a 10-fold dilution of sputum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
46/104
E) all of the isolated bacteria
209. Causative agents of chromomycosis penetrate into the body through:
A) mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract
B) the bites of infected animals
C) the bites of bloodsucking insect
D) mucosa of the respiratory tract
E) skin microtrauma
210. Belong to systemic mycosis:
1.Aspergillosis;
2.Tinea;
3.Pneumocystosis;
4.Coccidioidomycosis;
5.Histoplasmosis;
6.Blastomycosis;
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 4, 5
E) 4, 5, 6
211. In middle-aged men was observed disease, that began with a painful swelling
of the left leg, and subsequently led to the deformation and formation of fistula with
purulent content. In suppurative content were found solid consistency granules
with diameter about 2 mm. The estimated disease is:
A) mycetoma
B) leishmaniasis
C) histoplasmosis
D) blastomycosis
E) chromomycosis
212. Is used for differentiation Mycobacterium tuberculosis and opportunistic
mycobacteria:
A) niasin test
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
47/104
B) bile sencitivity test
C) antibiotic sensitivity test
D) opthochin test
E) catalase test
213. Patogenesis of whooping cough:
A) as a result of destruction of causative agents in the blood pertussis-toxin is released
B) the causative agents enter to bronchial epithelium and multiplies
C) the causative agents enter to blood from bronchial mucous
D) the causative agents adheres to epithelial surface of bronchi and multiplies
E) the causative agents adheres to epithelial surface of intestine and multiplies
214. Coccidioides immitis spherules:
A) are formed on nutrient media
B) are formed in the external environment
C) are tissue form of the fungus
D) contain ingested leucocytes
E) contain ingested erythrocytes
215. Main causative agents of opportunistic infection in acquired immunodeficiencysyndrome:
1.Pneumocystis jiroveci;
2.Trichomonas vaginalis;
3.Candida albicans;
4.Virus rubella;
5.Cytomegalovirus;
6.Cryptosporidium hominis;
A) 2, 3, 4, 6
B) 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 3, 5, 6
D) 1, 2, 5, 6
E) 1, 2, 4, 5
216. The primary focus of infection in coccidioidomycosis is formed in:
A) the intestine
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
48/104
B) the central nervous system
C) the skin
D) the lung
E) the liver
217. Is used in the treatment of spotted fever:
A) penicillin G
B) toxoid
C) acyclovir
D) antitoxic serum
E) tetracycline
218. Progressing as a result of the epidermal tissue hyperplasia in place of the
introduction of the pathogen through the skin microtrauma, and tend to the spread
of granulomatous nodes similar to cauliflower observed in:
A) leishmaniasis
B) histoplasmosis
C) chromomycosis
D) gas gangrene
E) blastomycosis
219. Infection with Histoplasma capsulatum happens:
A) by vector borne
B) as a result of inhalation of spores
C) through the bites of infected animals
D) through the milk and meat from infected animals
E) by ingestion of spherules
220. Cause acute intestinal infection:
1.Rubivirus;
2.Rotavirus;
3.Adenovirus;
4.Morbillivirus;
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
49/104
C) 3, 4
D) 2, 3
E) 2, 4
221. Microscopic examination of sputum in histoplasmosis allows to reveal:
A) mycelium with septa and macroconidia
B) oval yeast cells
C) aseptate mycelium with arthroconidia
D) pseudomycelium
E) mycelium with septa and arthroconidia
222. Is cultivation medium for Clostridium perfringens:
A) Klauberg’s medium
B) Sabouraud’s medium
C) Kitt-Tarotsi medium
D) casein-charcoal medium
E) bile broth
223. During the multiplication of malaria parasites in human organism tissue the
schizogony occurs in: A) macrophages
B) liver
C) lymph
D) neutrophils
E) erythrocytes
224. Does not form pseudomycelia:
A) Candida tropicalis
B) Candida parapsilosis
C) Candida krusei
D) Candida albicans
E) Candida glabrata
225. Is used in serological diagnosis of brusellosis:
A) ELISA
B) Wassermann reaction
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
50/104
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
51/104
C) mycelium and yeast cells
D) elongated budding yeast cells
E) oval yeast cells
231. It is found as encapsulated yeast cells in smears of pathological material:
A) Cryptococcus neoformans
B) Aspergillus flavus
C) Coccidioides immitis
D) Sporothrix schenckii
E) Candida albicans
232. Rabies is transmitted:
A) the fecal-oral route
B) by vector borne
C) through air-drop route
D) through animal products
E) through the bites of infected animals
233. Are located intracellularly in the infected organism:
A) staphylococci
B) borrelia
C) Candida
D) mycoplasma
E) brusella
234. The main clinical manifestation of cryptococcal infection in humans with
immune deficiencies is:
A) hepatitis
B) endocarditis
C) dermatitis
D) arthritis
E) meningitis
235. The causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis is:
A) Entamoeba histolytica
B) Trichomonas vaginalis
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
52/104
C) Balantidium coli
D) Leishmania tropica
E) Toxoplasma gondii
236. As a result of bronchial colonization by Aspergillus fungi hyphae without
invasion in human with atopy can be developed:
A) aspergilloma
B) aflatoxicosis
C) sarcoma
D) invasive aspergillosis
E) allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis
237. Is used in the diagnosis of urogenital chlamydiosis:
A) immunoelectrophoresis
B) immunofluorescence
C) complement fixation test
D) precipitation reaction
E) agglutination test
238. Diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine (DTP vaccine) include: A) immune serum against tetanus
B) tetanus toxoid
C) immune serum against diphtheria
D) pertussis toxoid
E) immune serum against pertussis
239. The pathogenesis of Pneumocystis pneumonia:
A) an inflammation of the bronchial mucosa
B) the formation of cavities in the lungs
C) atopic reactions to Pneumocystis jirovecii
D) respiratory failure, due to bronchospasm
E) blockade of gas exchange in the alveoli
240. In bacteriological examination 0.005 ml urine was inoculated with a loop on a
solid nutrient medium. Determine the degree of bacteriuria, if after incubation had
grown 100 colonies:
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
53/104
A) 2x104
B) 5x103
C) 105
D) 5x102
E) 2x105
241. Used in the treatment of Pneumocystis pneumonia:
A) ketoconazole
B) penicillin G
C) fluconazole
D) metronidazole
E) biseptol
242. Is used for treatment of anthrax:
A) antitoxin
B) fluconazole
C) ciprofloxacin
D) azidothymidine
E) metronidazole
243. Tissue cysts of Toxoplasma gondii:
A) consist of trophozoite clusters without special envelope
B) excreted with cats feces
C) located intracellularly in the intestinal epithelium of cats
D) located extracellularly in the intestinal epithelium of cats
E) consist of sporozoite clusters surrounded with a special envelope
244. Is not characteristic for Giardia lamblia:
1.The sucking disc;
2.Apical complex;
3.Cyst;
4.Pseudopodia;
5.Pseudocysts;
6.Flagella;
A) 1, 3, 4
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
54/104
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
55/104
C) the the biliary tract
D) the mucosa of the small intestine
E) the mucosa of duodenum
250. Clinical manifestation of mucous membrane candidiasis is:
A) leukoplakia
B) Koplik's spots
C) herpangina
D) blastomycosis
E) thrush
251. Native feces microscopy of patient with blood-mucous diarrhea detected motile
parasites 30m in size having pseudopodia, ecto- and endoplasm, containing
absorbed erythrocytes. The estimated causative agent is:
A) Toxoplasma gondii
B) Giardia lamblia
C) Entamoeba histolytica
D) Balantidium coli
E) Trichomonas vaginalis
252. RS-virus is detected in cell culture:
A) using enzyme immunoassay
B) on the base of the cytopathic effect
C) using precipitation reaction
D) using haemagglutination reaction
E) using the polymerase chain reaction
253. Human immunodeficiency virus is cultivated on:
A) chorionic-allantois membrane of chicken embryo
B) Hela cell culture
C) the culture of T-cells and monocytes
D) Vero cell culture
E) the culture of B cell and hybridomas
254. Drag of choice for treatment of amebiasis:
A) metronidazole
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
56/104
B) ofloxacin
C) fluconazole
D) tetracycline
E) chloramphenicol
255. Herpesviruses are:
A) DNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
C) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
D) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
256. Trichomonas vaginalis:
A) is not motile
B) is binuclear
C) has sucking disc
D) is motile
E) forms a cyst
257. Causes intestinal infestation:
A) Giardia lamblia
B) Trypanosoma cruzi
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Trichomonas vaginalis
E) Leishmania donovani
258. Clostridium difficile is:
A) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria
C) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
E) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
259. The causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis:
A) Trichomonas hominis
B) Trichomonas tenax
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
57/104
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Tripanosoma cruzi
E) Trichomonas vaginalis
260. The measles virus is different from the other paramyxoviruses with:
A) hemagglutinating ability
B) containing F-protein
C) cultivation conditions
D) transmission ways
E) the ability to form intranuclear inclusion
261. Drag of choice for treatment of trichomoniasis:
A) tetracycline
B) fluconazole
C) ofloxacin
D) chloramphenicol
E) metronidazole
262. Pneumocystis jirovecii:
A) causes cytopathic changes in the cell culture
B) is obligate intracellular parasite
C) is cultivated on Sabouraud’s medium
D) is cultivated on simple nutrient media
E) is a part of the normal microflora
263. Sexual reproduction of plasmodium called:
A) merulation
B) sporogony
C) mitosis
D) meiosis
E) schizogony
264. Leptospira is cultivated on:
A) coal-casein agar
B) liquid media supplemented with glucose
C) liquid media supplemented with serum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
58/104
D) Kitt-Tarotstsi medium
E) glycerol broth
265. Is not transmission way of anthrax:
A) through air-dust
B) through contact
C) through food
D) through air-drop
E) by vector
266. The causative agent of tropical malaria is:
A) Plasmodium malariae
B) Plasmodium gondii
C) Plasmodium ovale
D) Plasmodium falciparum
E) Plasmodium vivax
267. Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted by:
A) air-drop
B) fecal-oral
C) vector-borne
D) alimentary
E) parenteral
268. Malaria is transmitted:
A) through contact
B) through all ways
C) by vector
D) through fecal-oral route
E) through airborne droplets
269. Paramyxoviruses include:
A) influenza virus
B) Epstein-Barr virus
C) mumps virus
D) Coxsackie virus
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
59/104
E) parainfluenza virus
270. Which cell component of tubercle bacilli gives to him antigenic property and
causes antibodies production and delayed type hypersensitivity?
A) lipids
B) lipopolysaccharide
C) capsule
D) flagella
E) proteins
271. Sexual reproduction of Toxoplasma occurs in:
A) the environment
B) the midges body
C) the human body
D) the mosquito body
E) the cats body
272. Is used in diagnosis of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections:
A) biological method
B) skin-allergic testC) serological method
D) molecular genetics method
E) bacteriological method
273. Trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii:
A) have the crescent shape
B) have sucking disc
C) heart-shaped, have flagella
D) have pseudopodia
E) are found in promastigotes and amastigote forms
274. In the serum of 28 year-old woman with signs of prolonged fever and
lymphadenopathy were detected antibodies to human immunodeficiency virus by
ELISA. Tactics of a doctor in this case:
A) clarification of the diagnosis by immunoblotting
B) antiretroviral therapy
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
60/104
C) to conduct repeat testing
D) clarification of the diagnosis using of hemagglutination inhibition test
E) clarification of the diagnosis using virus neutralization test
275. Used in the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis:
A) agglutination of parasites
B) serologic method
C) the hemeabsorption reaction
D) the Ascoli thermoprecipitation reaction
E) bacteriological method
276. Does not belong to the diseases, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) oral hairy leukoplakia
C) infectious erythema
D) oropharyngeal carcinoma
E) Burkitt’s lymphoma
277. Grayish-white pseudomembrane froming at the entrance gate of infection is
hardly breaked from mucous membrane with swab and occurs bleeding in this time.This sign is characteristic for:
A) listeriosis
B) scarlet fever
C) influenza
D) candidiasis
E) diphtheria
278. They are characteristic for Leishmania tropica:
1.Pseudopodia;
2.Apical complex;
3.Cyst;
4.The sucking disc;
5.Pseudocysts;
6.Flagella;
A) 3, 4, 5
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
61/104
B) 1, 2, 4
C) 2, 3, 6
D) only 4
E) only 6
279. The main causative agent of urinary tract infections:
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Salmonella Typhimurium
D) Clostridium septicum
E) Escherichia coli
280. Amastigote forms of Leishmania:
A) are rounded shape
B) have pseudopodia
C) located intracellularly in the mosquito organism
D) are motile
E) form a cyst
281. Reoviruses are:
A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
D) DNA containing with spiral capsid, enveloped
E) RNA containing, with spiral capsid nonenveloped
282. In the cheek of 16-year-old boy appeared infiltrative node which has turned to
wound with granulomatous tissue after 2 months. In Giemsa-stained smear
prepared from the ulcer were identified rounded parasites 2-5 m in size. The
estimated causative agent is:
A) Trypanosoma cruzi
B) Plasmodium ovale
C) Leishmania tropica
D) Leishmania donovani
E) Toxoplasma gondii
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
62/104
283. They are characteristic for Entamoeba histolytica:
1.Pseudopodia;
2.Apical complex;
3.Cyst;
4.The sucking disc;
5.Pseudocysts;
6.Flagella;
A) 1, 4
B) 1, 5
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 5
E) 3, 4
284. Is used in the microbiological diagnosis of spotted fever:
A) serological method
B) bacteriological method
C) skin-allergic method
D) toxin neutralization reaction
E) microscopic technique
285. Belongs to Herpesviridae family:
1.Rubella virus;
2.Varicella Zoster virus;
3.Cytomegalovirus;
4.Poxvirus;
5.Epstein-Barr virus;
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 5
E) 1, 2, 3
286. In the serum of patients with hepatosplenomegaly found İgM to the hepatitis A
virus. What does find this condition?
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
63/104
A) infection with hepatitis A through airborne-droplets
B) chronic hepatitis A
C) a complication of hepatitis A
D) currently hepatitis A
E) parenteral infection with hepatitis A
287. It is cytopathic effect for Herpesviruses:
A) Guarnieri bodies
B) Negri bodies
C) vacuolization
D) giant cells, or symplasts
E) have not cytopathic effect
288. Detection of IgM in the newborn blood against cytomegalovirus indicates:
A) intrauterine infection of the fetus
B) the presence of appropriate antibodies in the mother’s blood
C) immune serum are injected to mother
D) immunization of mother
E) mother is infected by medical staff
289. Clinically significant bacteriuria:
A) the presence of 105 and more bacteria in 1 ml urine
B) the presence of bacteria in the urine
C) the presence of 10 and more bacteria in 1 ml of urine
D) the presence of 1 and more bacteria in 100 ml urine
E) the presence of 2 or more bacteria in urine
290. The herpes simplex viruses type II are transmitted by:
A) sexual way
B) vector-borne way
C) air-drop way
D) parenteral way
E) fecal-oral mechanism
291. Does not belong to atypical mycobacteria:
A) Mycobacterium scorfulaceum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
64/104
B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex
C) Mycobacterium smegmatis
D) Mycobacterium kansasii
E) Mycobacterium africanum
292. Does not belong to clinical findings of herpes simplex virus type II infection:
A) sevical cancer
B) aseptic meningitis
C) neonatal herpes
D) infectious mononucleosis
E) genital herpes
293. Drug of choice in treatment of tularemia:
A) streptomycin
B) antitoxin
C) penicillin G
D) immune serum
E) immunoglobulin
294. Hepatitis A virus is:
A) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
B) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
D) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
E) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
295. Varicella-Zoster virus causes:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) checken-pox
C) herpes simplex
D) smallpox
E) measles
296. Human immunodeficiency virus is infected with:
A) fecal-oral route
B) parenteral route
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
65/104
C) vector-borne
D) air-drop route
E) products of animal origin
297. After a childhood varicella, which causative agent persists in the body, in
adulthood may develop:
A) semi-acute encephalitis
B) zoster
C) Burkitt's lymphoma
D) measles
E) Q-fever
298. Is not transmission way of listeriosis:
A) through contact
B) by vector
C) through placenta
D) through food
E) through air-dust
299. Typically for acute gonorrhea: A) detection of diplococci inside of numerous leucocytes in the smear
B) detection of "clue cells" in the smear
C) detection of intracellular inclusions in the smear
D) detection of motile causative agents in the native smear
E) detection of numerous leukocytes and gram positive bacteria in the smear
300. Epstein-Barr virus causes:
A) infectious mononucleosis
B) mumps
C) herpes simplex
D) gerpangina
E) herpes zoster
301. Poliovirus infection is transmitted with:
A) transplacental way
B) vector borne mechanism
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
66/104
C) parenteral mechanism
D) fecal-oral mechanism
E) air-dust way
302. Detection of heterophile antibodies in the blood serum in infectious
mononucleosis is associated with:
A) cytotoxic effect of T-lymphocytes to infected B-lymphocytes
B) the antigenicity of the causative agent
C) polyclonal stimulation of infected B-lymphocytes
D) characteristics of the reproduction of pathogenic virus
E) polyclonal stimulation of infected T-lymphocytes
303. Does not belong to normal microflora of human organism:
A) Actynomyces
B) Nocardia
C) Neisseria
D) Bacteroides
E) streptococci
304. Entering with water aerosoles through of respiratory tract causes heavy, local,or lobar pneumonia, which accompanied with high mortality:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Chlamydia psittaci
C) Legionella pneumophila
D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
E) Bordetella pertussis
305. Causes congenital infection:
A) influenza virus
B) cytomegalovirus
C) rabies virus
D) mumps virus
E) smallpox virus
306. An early indicator of hepatitis B infection:
A) HBc antigen
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
67/104
B) HBc and HBe antigen
C) HBe antigen
D) HBe antigen
E) HBs antigen
307. Adenoviruses are:
A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
C) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
D) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
308. Polyomaviruses are:
A) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
C) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
309. Used for the treatment of candidiasis:
1.Metronidazole;
2.Chloramphenicol;
3.Amphotericin B;
4.Fluconazole;
5.Nystatin;
6.Acyclovir;
A) 3, 4, 5
B) 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 6
D) 1, 2, 3
E) 4, 5, 6
310. Adenoviruses persist in:
A) trigeminal ganglions
B) bone marrow
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
68/104
C) tonsils
D) T-lymphocytes
E) dorsal ganglions
311. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is:
A) Gram negative, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
B) Gram negative, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria
C) Gram positive, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
D) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming curved bacteria
E) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria
312. Impossibility of the cultivation of papillomaviruses in cell culture is associated:
A) with helical capsid
B) with dermo tropism of viruses
C) the ability of the virus to tumor transformation
D) with the passing of viral replication phase in different layers of the epidermis
E) to the fact that they are RNA-containing viruses
313. Determine the virus according to the structure’s scheme:
1 2 3
A) 1-poliovirus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;
B) 1-adenovirus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;
C) 1-human immunodeficiency virus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;
D) 1-human immunodeficiency virus; 2-parvovirus; 3-measles virus;
E) 1-herpesvirus; 2-adenovirus; 3-rotavirus;
314. The intranuclear Cowdry inclusion is characteristic for:
A) herpes simplex virus
B) cytomegalovirus
C) varicella zoster virus
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
69/104
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) human herpes virus type 8
315. Parvoviruses are:
A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
B) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
C) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid
E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid
316. In microscopic examination of the urethral discharge smear from patients with
urethritis were observed in a small number leukocytes and epithelial cells. The
estimated causative agent is:
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Coxiella burnetii
C) Chlamydia psittaci
D) Mycoplasma hominis
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
317. Caused by Parvovirus:
1.Skin papilloma;
2.Aplastic anemia;
3.Infectious erythema;
4.Zoster;
5.Hydrops fetalis;
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 3, 4, 5
E) 1, 2, 4
318. The genotypes of hepatitis C virus is determined using:
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) immunofluorescence
C) passive hemagglutination reaction
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
70/104
D) enzyme immunoassay
E) hemagglutination inhibition test
319. Causes endotoxin shock:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Clostridium perfringens
D) Escherichia coli
E) Bacillus cereus
320. After removal of the surface H-glycoprotein by detergent, influenza virus:
A) loses the ability to budding through the membrane
B) the virus reproduction is broken at the level of nucleic acid synthesis
C) after entering to the host cell, the virus loses the ability to deprotenization
D) can not interact with the host cell
E) stops the viral proteins synthesis
321. Does not belong to pathologies caused by Trichomonas vaginalis:
A) prostatitis
B) gastritis
C) urethritis
D) vesiculitis
E) cervicitis
322. Which subtype of influenza viruses causes the “Avian influenza”?
A) H2N2
B) H3N2
C) H5N2
D) H5N1
E) H1N1
323. Is characteristic for primary syphilis:
A) gentle chancre
B) gummas
C) rashes
D) chancroid
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
71/104
E) hard chancre
324. In which case is developed skin form of anthrax?
A) when infected with air-dust
B) when infected with contact
C) when infected through food
D) when infected through all ways
E) when infected with air-drop
325. The most serious complication of influenza is:
A) Reye’s syndrome
B) bronchitis
C) antritis
D) conjunctivitis
E) Reyno syndrome
326. Hepatitis C virus is:
A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped
C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped
D) DNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped
E) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped
327. The detection method of the influenza virus in chicken embryos:
A) an enzyme immunoassay
B) immunoblotting
C) polymerase chain reaction
D) hemagglutination reaction
E) precipitation reaction
328. Is dameged by Trichophyton:
1.The skin;
2.Hair;
3.Nails;
4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;
A) only 1
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
72/104
B) 1, 2, 4
C) only 1and 3
D) only 2 and 3
E) 1, 2, 3
329. Is not correct for the diagnosis of aspergillosis:
A) microscopic detecting of Aspergillus mycelium in the sputum smear is possible
B) detection of Aspergillus in the sputum in all cases confirms the diagnosis of invasive
aspergillosis
C) serological diagnosis of invasive aspergillosis in patients with immune deficiency is not
informative
D) contamination of the pathological material by Aspergillus species should be excluded
E) for obtaining of Aspergillus cultures can be used Sabouraud’s medium
330. The characteristic cytopathic effect of paramyxoviruses:
A) Paschen bodies
B) Guarnieri inclusion
C) Negri bodies
D) vacuolization
E) syncytia formation
331. Requires for growth X and V factors:
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Clostridium perfringens
332. The surface proteins of paramyxoviruses are:
1.P-protein;
2.HN-protein;
3.L-protein;
4.G-protein;
5.F-protein;
6.NP-protein;
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
73/104
A) 1, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 3, 4, 6
D) 2, 5, 6
E) 2, 4, 5
333. The reason of hydrophobia in rabies is:
A) paralysis of the thirst centers
B) damaging of the oral mucosa
C) fear of wild animals
D) painful spasms of the pharynx muscles
E) anuresis
334. For prevention of persons, who had contact with hepatitis A is used:
A) inactivated vaccine
B) recombinant vaccine
C) live vaccine
D) toxoid
E) immunoglobulin
335. Is detection method of parainfluenza virus in cell culture:
A) polymerase chain reaction
B) hemadsorption
C) precipitation reaction
D) complement fixation test
E) enzyme immunoassay
336. Tinea affects:
A) the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair
B) hairs, internal organs, muscles
C) the skin, subcutaneous tissue, fascia
D) fascia, muscle, horny layer of the epidermis
E) subcutaneous tissue, muscles, nails
337. The main clinical manifestations of respiratory-syncytial infection include:
A) rhinitis and runny nose
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
74/104
B) meningoencephalitis
C) bronchiolitis and pneumonia
D) false croup and laryngitis
E) pleuritis
338. Is correct for nosocomial infections:
A) mainly are caused by pathogenic fungi
B) mainly are caused by pathogenic protozoa
C) mainly are caused by opportunistic pathogens
D) mainly are caused by pathogenic anaerobes
E) mainly are caused by pathogenic viruses
339. What changes can occur in reovirus under the action of antiviral drugs:
A) denaturation of the sigma-1 protein
B) a thickening of external capsid
C) loss of μ-1 protein
D) loss of external capsid
E) association of the genome segments
340. Early reproduction of mumps virus occurs in:
A) lower respiratory tract
B) alveolus of lung
C) upper respiratory tract
D) central nervous system
E) gastrointestinal system
341. Cause the invasion of Entamoeba histolytica in the intestinal epithelium:
A) pseudopods
B) proteolytic enzymes of amoebae
C) quadrinuclear amoebae cysts
D) precystic form of amoebae
E) uninuclear amoebae cysts
342. For prevention of mumps is used:
A) toxoid
B) immune serum
-
8/18/2019 10362mpf III Kurs en _v1
75/104
C) recombinant vaccine
D) antitoxic serum
E) live vaccine
343. Bordetella pertussis is cultivated on:
A) coal-casein agar
B) alkaline peptone medium
C) meat-peptone agar
D) Endo medium
E) Sabouraud medium
344. Paramyxoviruses include:
A) measles virus
B) influenza virus
C) rubella virus
D) Epstein-Barr virus
E) poliovirus
345. Is correct for Corynebacterium diphtheriae exotoxin:
A) forms the pores in sytoplasmic membrane of cells
B) causes polyclonal stimulation of T-helpers
C) inactivates the elongation factor EF-2 in ribosome
D) activates the adenyle cyclase inside the cells
E) causes