1 What is total AM transmitter power if carrier power 100W modulated with

modulation index m=0.7

A 149W B 170W

C 124.5W D 135W

2 What is percentage power saving if AM transmitter with modulation index

m=0.5 is replaced by SSBSC transmitter with same modulation index

A 83.30% B 94.40%

C 96% D 88.88%

3 In television 4:3 represents

A Interlace ratio B Form factor

C Aspect Ratio D None of above

4 To permit selection of 1 out of 32 equi-probable events, number of bits

required is

A 32 B 8

C 5 D 4

5 Value of Intermediate frequency (IF) for FM receiver is …

A 455 KHz B 10.7 MHz

C 70 MHz D 118.7 MHz

6 Amplitude limiter is used in FM receiver because

A It limits audio signal B It prevents overloading

C It removes distortions D It removes amplitude variations

7 Which circuit is used in FM receiver but not in AM Receiver

A RF amplifier B Mixer

C Amplitude limiter D AGC

8 Demerits of balance slope detector for FM receiver

A Poor linearity B No amplitude limiting

C Tuning is difficult D All of above

9 AM receiver is tuned to 600 KHz with quality factor Q=100, IF value 455

KHz. Image rejection in dB

A -20dB B -30dB

C -35.5dB D -46.5dB

10 Crystal oscillator can be used in

A Varactor diode modulator B Transistor reactance modulator

C Armstrong modulator D FET reactance modulator

11 Bit rate is ___________ Baud rate in QPSK system

A equal to B three times

C two times D less than

12 What is the separation of phasors in 8-PSK system?

A 900 B 45

0

C 22.50 D 15

0

13 Number of possible symbols in QAM system are

A 2 B 4

C 8 D 16

14 Muting (squelch) circuit is basically…

A Low pass filter circuit B High pass filter circuit

C Level activated switch D Frequency converter circuit

15 Double conversion receiver has

A Two RF amplifier stage B Two IF

C Two detectors D Two audio amplifier stage

16 Sampling rate required to sample CD quality audio signal is ….

A 8000 samples/sec B 16000 samples/sec

C 20000 samples/sec D 44100 samples/sec

17 Oversampling results into ….

A Large transmission bandwidth B More transmission power

C Low SNR D Distorted speech

18 Synchronization is necessary in …

A PAM system B PWM System

C PPM System D None of above

19 Nyquist bandwidth required to transmit information signal with bandwidth

10 KHz coded with total 128 quantization levels is …

A 1280 Kbps B 140 Kbps

C 70 Kbps D 64 kbps

20 Companding is used to …

A Save transmission bandwidth B Remove noise

C Achieve uniform SNR for all

amplitudes D Achieve amplitude limiting

21 Uplink frequency range for GSM-900 band is…

A 890-915 MHz B 935-960 MHz

C 890-960 MHz D 890-910 MHz

22 Duplex distance for GSM-1800 band is …

A 45 MHz B 95 MHz

C 25 MHz D 50 MHz

23 Following is not component of GSM architecture….

A Main switching center B Base station controller

C Master station controller D Base trans receiver

24 If PN chip rate is 30x105 and message bit rate is 1000, Processing gain of

DSSS system is ..

A 3000 B 6000

C 30000 D 60000

25 Frequency range of Ku Band is …

A 2 GHz - 4 GHz B 4 GHz - 8 GHz

C 8 GHz - 12 GHz D 12 GHz - 18 GHz

26 What is the cut-off frequency of ractangular waveguide having dimension

1.5cm x 1 cm in dominant mode TE10.

A 1 GHz B 5 GHz

C 10 GHz D 15 GHz

27 Data rate at the output of GSM speech codec is …

A 104 kbps B 64 kbps

C 13 kbps D 2.2 kbps

28 CELP Speech coder is based on ….

A Waveform coding B Parametric coding

C Channel coding D Hybrid coding

29 Improvement in SNR of uniform PCM system if 9 bit is used instead of 8 bit

in quantization…

A 1 dB B 3 dB

C 6 dB D 12 dB

30 In adaptive delta modulation …

A Step size is variable B Slope over load error

eliminated

C Granular noise is less D All of above

31 The spectral density of real valued random process has

A an even symmetry B a conjugate symmetry

C an odd symmetry D no symmetry

32 The stationary process has

A Ensemble average equal to

time average B

All Statistical properties

dependent on time

C All statistical properties

independent of time D Zero variance

33 A random process obeys Poisson's distribution. It is given that the mean of

the process is 5. Then the variance of process is ..

A 0 B 0.5

C 1 D 5

34 Thermal noise is independent of …

A Temperature B Center frequency

C Bandwidth D Boltzmann's constant

35 A system has receiver noise resistance of 50 Ω. It is connected to an

antenna with input resistance of 50 Ω. Noise figure of the system is ..

A 1 B 2

C 0 D None of above

36 Calculate output SNR in dB for three identical links. SNR of one link 60 dB

A 57 dB B 180 dB

C 51.23 dB D 55.23 dB

37 Positive RF peak of AM signal rise to 12V and drop to minimum value of 4V.

Modulation index is …

A 0.25 B 0.33

C 0.5 D 0.66

38 Resonant frequency of RF amplifier is 1 MHz, bandwidth is 10 KHz. Q factor

will be ….

A 0.1 B 10

C 50 D 100

39 Balance modulator is used to generate …

A AM Signal B DSBSC Signal

C PM Signal D PWM Signal

40 Maximum modulating frequency in AM system increases from 10 KHz to 20

KHz, Modulation index ..

A doubled B halved

C remains constant D increase by 10

41 Primary function of multiplexing in communication system

A

To select one radio channel

from a wide range of

transmitted channels

B

To allow a number of signals to

make use of a single

communications channel

C To reduce the bandwidth of a

signal. D

To match the frequency range

of a signal to a particular

channel.

42 Optical fiber uses ______ portion of Electromagnetic waves

A UHF B Ultraviolet

C Between Infrared and

Ultraviolet D Infrarred

43 Glass fiber has core refractive index n1=1.5 and cladding refractive index

n2=1. Multipath dispersion would be …. (c=3x108 m/s)

A 2.5 ns/m B 2.5 µS/m

C 5 ns/m D 5 µS/m

44 In CDMA systems

A Entire bandwidth can be used

at a time B

Entire bandwidth is used on

time sharing basis

C Entire bandwidth is divided

into narrow bands D None of above

45 Following is not usual classification of optical fiber

A Single mode step index B Multi-mode step index

C Multi-mode graded index D Single mode graded index

46 The energy gap Eg of PIN Photo detector should be _____photon energy of

light (hf)

A Equal to B Smaller than

C Greater than D Independent of

47 Numerical aperture (NA) and acceptance angle θ of fiber optic cable related

by equation

A NA=sinθ B NA=tanθ

C NA=sin-1

θ D NA=(1-sin2θ)

1/2

48 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with

modulation index m=0.5

A 0.625 W B 1.25 W

C 2.5 W D 5 W

49 What is total SSB transmitter power if carrier power 10W modulated with

modulation index m=0.5

A 0.625 W B 1.25 W

C 2.5 W D 5 W

50 Cluster of cells is the collection of adjacent cells with

A Same operating spectrum B Different operating spectrum

C both A & B D None of above

51 In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19

A Case 1 has more SIR B Case 2 has more SIR

C Case 1 and Case 2 has equal SIR D No effect of N on SIR

52 In GSM system case 1: cluster size N=7 case 2: cluster size N=19

A Case 1 has more channel

capacity B

Case 2 has more channel

capacity

C Case 1 and Case 2 has equal

Channel capacity D

No effect of N on channel

capacity

53 In AM systems if modulation index increases from 0.5 to 0.75…

A Bandwidth increases by 1.5 B Bandwidth decreases by 1.5

C Bandwidth remains constant D None of above

54 In FM system, if modulation index increases from 5 to 10 ….

A Transmission power doubles B Transmission power halved

C Transmission power 1.41 times D Remains same

55 In GSM system 5 MHz bandwidth is allocated to network operator,

Assuming frequency reuse factor 1/5, maximum number of simultaneous

channels that can exists in one cell is …

A 15 B 25

C 40 D 200

56 The main objective of cell in cellular mobile system is

A hand-off possibilities B frequency resue

C simple modulation requires D higher bandwidth

57 Which of following mobile systems is second generation mobile

communication system?

A AMPS B GSM

C IMT-2000 D NAMTS

58 Basic purpose of cell splitting in GSM mobile systems is ..

A Reduce handoffs B Reduce channel capacity

C Increase channel capacity D Reduce bandwidth

requirement

59 Frequency reuse ratio in mobile communication is given by…

A Q=R/D B Q=RxD

C Q=D/R2 D Q=D/R

60 A cellular system has 12 macro-cells with 10 channels per cell. Each macro

cell is splitted into 3 microcells. Find out total available channels after

splitting

A 40 B 120

C 360 D 30

61 Major development under the way in the field of telecommunications..

A Data & Voice convergence B Fixed and mobile convergence

C Internet D Satellite communication

62 One of following is not part of 2.5G technologies in mobile communication

A GPRS B EDGE

C CDMA2000 1xRTT D IS95

63 Which one of following enhances data capability of 2G mobile network?

A TACS B GSM

C GPRS D ISDN

64 Population inversion phenomenon found in

A LED B Photodiode

C LASER D FET

65 Optical fiber having core refractive index n1=1.4 and cladding refractive

index n2=1.05. Its numerical aperture will be …

A 0.926 B 0.8

C 0.35 D 0.15

66 Normalized frequency of step index fiber is 28 at 1300 nm wavelength.

What are total app. number of guided mode supported by fiber?

A 50 B 100

C 200 D 400

67 The SAFER+ algorithm is used to provide security in which wireless

technology?

A Bluetooth B ZigBee

C UWB D WiMAX

68 Which numbers appear in the International Mobile Equipment Identity

(IMEI)?

A Mobile Country Code B Mobile Network Code

C Equipment Serial Number D None of above

69 The term STN (Super Twisted Nematic) refers to _________.

A The layered structure of the

display B

The nature of the liquid crystal

itself

C The control signal applied to

the display D

The application of display

backlighting

70 Disadvantage of STN (Super Twisted Nematic) is ….

A Consumes more power B Operates slowely

C Higher cost D Less life time

71 For random variable x, probability density function p(x) is given by:

p(x)=1/2 for -1 ≤ x ≤ 1 and p(x)=0 otherwise. Mean and variance

respectively ….

A 1/2 and 2/3 B 1 and 2/3

C 1 and 4/3 D 2 and 4/3

72 Probability density function of the envelope of narrowband Gaussian noise

is…

A Rayleigh B Poisson

C Gaussian D Rician

73 Spectral density expresses ….

A Average voltage B Average current

C Average frequency D Average power as a function of

frequency

74 Aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using

A Integrator B Differentiator

C Predictor D Equalizer

75 In PCM system, quantization noise depends on …

A Sampling interval B Number of quantization levels

C Frequency of information

signal D None of above

76 In PCM system, sampling rate is determined by

A Parsevals Theorem B Nyquist Theorem

C Fourier Transform D Hysenberg Theorem

77 Frequency range of telephonic quality speech is

A 20 Hz to 20 KHz B 500 Hz to 10 KHz

C 300 Hz to 3.4 KHz D 300 Hz to 5 KHz

78 Range of Very High Frequency (VHF) is

A 3-30 MHz B 30-300 MHz

C 300-3000 MHz D 3-30 GHz

79 Process of transmitting two or more information signals on same channel is

called …

A Modulation B Multiplexing

C Detection D Telemetry

80 Which one of the following requires synchronizing signal?

A PPM B PWM

C PAM D All of above

81 Quantization noise occurs in…

A PWM B PPM

C PCM D AM

82 Which one of following system is digital?

A PAM B PWM

C PCM D AM

83 Which one of following pulse modulation system is analog?

A PWM B PCM

C DM D ADM

84 In delta modulation, granular noise occurs when modulating signal

A remains constant B increases rapidly

C decreases rapidly D None of above

85 For uniform quantization, 32 levels can be represented by

A 4 bit B 5 bit

C 8 bit D 32 bit

86 In QAM system following both identity are varied

A Amplitude and frequency B Frequency and phase

C Amplitude and Phase D Baud rate and phase

87 In PCM systems, if transmission path is long….

A High power transmitter are

used B Sensitive receivers are used

C Repeaters are used D Pulse amplitude increases

88 An amplifier having noise figure of 20 dB and available power gain of 15 dB

followed by mixer circuit having noise figure of 9 dB. The overall noise

figureas referred to input in dB is…

A 21.53 B 11.07

C 10.44 D 0.63

89 A parallel tuned circuit is resonated with 200 MHz with Q of 10 and

capacitance of 10 pF. Temperature of circuit is 170 C. What is noise voltage

observed across circuit by wideband voltmeter?

A 1 µV B 2 µV

C 8 µV D 16 µV

90 What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in ideal

systems?

A BN > B3dB B BN = B3dB

C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5*π*B3dB

91 What is the relation between Noise Bandwidth and 3-dB bandwidth in Low

pass filter?

A BN > B3dB B BN = B3dB

C BN =0.5* B3dB D BN = 0.5*π*B3dB

92 What is internal noise power (Pn) of microwave amplifier operating with a

bandwidth of 500 MHz and noise figure of 2.5 dB?

A 0.5 pW B 0.557 pW

C 1 pW D 1.557 pW

93 Noise voltage source has resistance of 10 Ω. Its power density spectrum is

0.24x10-5

. Corresponding available power density is ..

A 2.6x10-5

B 0.025

C 26x10-5 D 6x10-8

94 If resistance value doubled and temperature maintained at constant level,

available thermal noise power per unit bandwidth will

A remains constant B Increase two times

C Increase four times D Decrease to half

95 What will be thermal noise voltage developed across resistor of 10 Ω. The

Bandwidth of measuring instrument is 1 MHz. Ambient temperature 270

C

A 0.40 µV B 1.28 µV

C 0.16 µV D 1.19 µV

96 Which one of following is suitable detector to detect information signal

from modulated signal (5+10cosωmt)coswct

A Envelope detector B Synchronous detector

C Ratio detector D None of above

97 Plot of modulation index versus carrier amplitude in FM yields ….

A Horizontal line B Vertical line

C Parabola D Hyperbola

98 Image rejection in super-heterodyne receiver occurs at ..

A RF Stage B Mixer Stage

C IF stage D Detector stage

99 Modulation index of AM wave changes from 0 to 1, transmitter power …

A Increase by 100% B Increase by 50%

C Increase by 25% D Does not change

100 Which one of following modulation scheme requires minimum bandwidth

and minimum power?

A VSB B SSBSC

C DSBSC D AM

101 For FDM systems used in telephone, which of the following system used

A AM B FM

C SSB D DSBSC

102 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by symmetrical square

wave of period 100 µS . Which of the following frequencies will not present

in the modulated signal?

A 990 KHz B 1010 KHz

C 1020 KHz D 1030 KHz

103 1 MHz sinusoidal carrier is amplitude modulated by sine wave of period 100

µS for one cycle . Which of the following frequencies will not present in the

modulated signal?

A 990 KHz B 1000 KHz

C 1010 KHz D 1020 KHz

104 In amplitude modulation system, total power is 600 W and power of carrier

is 400 W. Modulation index is…

A 0.25 B 0.5

C 0.75 D 1

105 Carrier is amplitude modulated by three message signal with modulation

index 0.2, 0.4 and 0.5 What is total modulation index?

A 1.1 B 0.67

C 0.55 D 0.25

106 Total rms antenna current of AM radio transmitter is 6 A. It reduces to 5 A

when modulating signal is removed. What is modulation index?

A 0.94 B 0.83

C 0.69 D 0.33

107 AM signal has carrier power 1 KW. In each sideband, there is 200 Watt.

What is modulation index?

A 0.201 B 0.404

C 0.8 D 0.894

108 In low level amplitude modulation, amplifier following modulated stage

must be ..

A Non-linear amplifier B Linear amplifier

C Class C amplifier D Harmonic amplifier

109 FM signal with modulation index 10 is passed through frequency tripler,

output signal have modulation index

A 3.33 B 10

C 30 D 10

110 Bandwidth of FM signal does not depends on…

A Modulating frequency B Carrier frequency

C Maximum amplitude of

modulating signal D Peak frequency deviation

111 Following problem will occur if we keep value of IF too high in receiver

A Poor adjacent channel

rejection B Poor sensitivity

C Tuning is difficult D Poor fidelity

112 Following diode is used in AM detector circuit

A Silicon diode B Point contact diode

C Tunnel diode D PIN diode

113 Standard bandwidth of IF amplifier in FM receiver is ..

A 10.7 MHz B 50 KHz

C 100 KHz D 200 KHz

114 Basic reason behind linearity of phase discriminator is…

A Tuned circuit is used B Primary to secondary phase

relationship is linear

C RFC is used D Parallel combination of RC

115 Following FM detector uses large capacitor to achieve amplitude limiting

A Diode detector B Phase discriminator

C Ratio detector D PLL Detector

116 UHF 900MHz frequency band is used in cellular mobile communication

because….

A Below 900 MHz, band is not

available B

Good Sky wave Propogation at

900 MHz.

C

Line of sight and reflected

signal ensure the reception at

mobile handset

D None of above

117 GSM cellular mobile communication system uses …

A CDMA and FDMA B FDMA and TDMA

C Only FDMA D Only TDMA

118 WLAN services uses

A Long distance communication

at high data rate B

Short distance communication

at high data rate

C Long distance communication

at low data rate D

Short distance communication

at low data rate

119 As per IEEE 802.11g standard WLAN devices which are 50 meter apart can

send and receive data up to ….

A 64 kbps B 2 MBPS

C 11 MBPS D 54 MBPS

120 GPRS is….

A Circuit switched and packet

switched service B

Packet switching for mobile

users for data transfer

C Voice telephony services D useful for sending SMS

121 UMTS offers data speed …

A 384 kbps on move and 2.048

Mbps on stationary B

64 Kbps on move and 1 Mbps

on stationary

C 2.1 MBPS on move and 8 MBPS

on stationary D None of above

122 IEEE 802.16 WiMAX standard offers maximum data rate ….

A 2 MBPS B 8 MBPS

C 54 MBPS D 75 MBPS

123 Bluetooth module communicates using ….

A transmitter B receiver

C radio module D transponder

124 IEEE 802.15.1 Bluetooth system has typical frequency hop rate of ______

hops per second

A 512 B 800

C 1600 D 3200

125 IEEE 802.11 WLAN physical layer with 2 MBPS with base band modulation

DSSS uses carrier modulation scheme _____________.

A BPSK B QPSK

C DQPSK D QAM

126 The size of file transferred in 10 seconds using WLAN system operating at

2Mbps considering ideal transfer data rate.

A 2 MB B 2.5 MB

C 10 MB D 20 MB

127 Which technology is used by IEEE 802.15.1 WPAN standard to separate

piconets

A DSSS B OFDM

C FHSS-CDMA D FHSS-TDMA

128 In close loop power control, base station sends power control messages to

mobile handset at every ….

A 1 ms B 10 ms

C 100 ms D 500 ms

129 WCDMA uplink uses spreading factor up to ….

A 16 B 32

C 64 D 512

130 Data modulation used in WCDMA for reverse channel is …

A BPSK B QPSK

C DQPSK D QAM

131 WCDMA uses chip rate of ….

A 2 Mcps B 8 Mcps

C 3.84 Mcps D 16 Mcps

132 Voice encoding technique used in WCDMA …

A LPC B RELP

C Adaptive CELP D DPCM

133 Maximum EIRP for class-III mobile phone in WCDMA is …

A +23 dBm B +13 dBm

C +9 dBm D +3 dBm

134 After spread spectrum modulation, bandwidth of spreaded signal

A remains constant B increases

C increases significantly D decreases

135 Minimum Eb/No value required for proper system operation depends on ..

A Performance of coding method B Bit error rate

C Tolerance of digitised voice D All of these

136 CDMA IS-95 technology uses one of following multiple access technique

A FDMA B FHSS

C DSSS D THSS

137 In DSSS system, code rate is 48 Mcps and information signal rate 4.8 Kbps,

Processing gain in dB is …

A 4.8 dB B 48 dB

C 40 dB D 60 dB

138 In FHSS system total bandwith is 500 MHz, individual channel bandwidth is

5 KHz. What is processing gain in dB?

A 5 dB B 50 dB

C 4 dB D 40 dB

139 Each carrier of CDMA IS-95 carrier occupies bandwidth of

A 200 KHz B 600 KHz

C 1.25 MHz D 10 MHz

140 Once link with nearest base station is established in CDMA, open loop

power setting is adjusted in 1 dB increments after every ______ by

command from base station.

A 1 second B 1.25 second

C 10 ms D 1.25 ms

141 MAHO is implemented in mobile communication in order to

A reduce co-channel interference B reduce transmission power

C reduce inter-cell interference D reduce near-far problem

142 Which one out of following offers high spectrum efficiency with constant

amplitude ?

A FSK B QPSK

C GMSK D QAM

143 The frequency hoping system used in GSM allows to change transmission

frequency once in every ______ .

A 1.25 ms B 120 ms

C 4.615 ms D 125 µs

144 Modulation data rate in GSM is ….

A 200 kbps B 270.833 kbps

C 64 kbps D 2 Mbps

145 Spectrum efficiency in GSM is ….

A 1 bps/Hz B 1.35 bps/Hz

C 2 bps/Hz D 4 bps/Hz

146 Grey list in mobile communication means …

A Mobile numbers are VIP B Mobile numbers are not

allowed permanantly

C Mobile numbers are not

allowed momentarily D Mobile purchased without bills

147 Broadcast Control Channel (BCCH) is by BTS to broadcast ….

A Frequency of operation in cell B Channel availability

C Congestion information D All of above

148 The number of time slots available per RF channel in GSM system is ..

A 3 B 4

C 8 D 16

149 The standard interface that connects BTS to BSC is called …

A Um Interface B A-bis

C A D D

150 The difference in free space propagation loss between two location 2 km

and 8 km from transmitter is …

A 3 dB B 6 dB

C 12 dB D 15 dB

151 Wireless medium compared to wired medium

A Quite reliable for voice and

data communication B

Not reliable for voice and data

communication

C Offers more bandwidth D Requires less power

152 In mobile radio propagation path loss exponent γ is …

A 2 B 3

C 4 D 5

153 Cellular network is reconfigured with frequency reuse pattern of 7 instead

of 4. Increase in overall system capacity is approximately

A 28 times B 7 times

C 4 times D 1.7 times

154 Cells using same set of frequencies are called

A neighboring cells B adjacent channel cells

C Co-channel cells D Clusters

155 The distance between the centers of two hexagonal cells, if radius of cell is

2 km

A √3 B 2√3

C 4√3 D 4

156 Mobile communication system is designed with cell size of 2 km2. Cluster

size N=7. What is will be area of one cluster?

A 3.5 km2 B 7 km

2

C 14 km2 D 14√3 km

2

157 Service area is covered with 10 clusters each having 7 cells in it. 16 channels

are assigned to each cell. The number of channels per cluster are ..

A 1120 B 112

C 70 D None of above

158 Mobile communication system has an allocated number of 1000 voice

channels. If service area is divided into 20 cells with a frequency reuse

factor of 4. System capacity is ….

A 1000 B 5000

C 10000 D 20000

159 In regular hexagonal geometry pattern, the number of cells in cluster

formed by i=2 and j=2 are ….

A 4 B 8

C 12 D 16

160 Propagation considerations recommends cell shape _____________ and for

system design cell shape used is ______________.

A circular, circular B circular, hexagonal

C hexagonal, hexagonal D hexagonal, circular

161 If cell site antenna height is doubled, there will be

A Reduction in path loss by 6 dB B Reduction in path loss by 3 dB

C Reduction in path loss by 12 dB D No change in path loss

162 In wireless communication, transmitter power is 10W. Transmitter antenna

gain is 3 dB. EIRP is.

A 10 W B 20 W

C 30 W D 3.33 W

163 PLL can be used to demodulate

A AM B FM

C PM D PCM

164 Two sinusoids of same amplitude and frequencies of 10 KHZ and 11 KHz are

added together and applied to ideal frequency detector. Output of the

detector is ….

A 21 KHz sinusoid B 1 KHz sinusoid

C 210 KHz sinusoid D 1.1 KHz sinusoid

165 In commercial FM broadcasting, modulating frequency is limited to ..

A 3.4 KHz B 5 KHz

C 15 KHz D 20 KHz

166 Modulating frequency in FM is increased from 10 KHz to 20 KH, bandwidth

A Gets doubled B Does not change

C Increase by 20 KHz D Increase by 10 KHz

167 In single tone FM discriminator, So/No is

A proportional to deviation B proportional to cube of

deviation

C inversely proportional to

deviation D

Proportional to square of

deviation

168 If modulating frequency is 20 KHz and peak frequency deviation is 50 KHz.

Bandwidth of FM signal as per Carson's rule is ….

A 40 KHz B 90 KHz

C 140 KHz D 200 KHz

169 Following is not advantage of FM over AM system

A Noise immunity B Fidelity

C Capture effect D Sputtering effect

170 A sinusoidal signal with peak to peak amplitude 1.536 is quantized in 128

levels using mid-rise uniform quantizer. Quantization noise power is …

A 0.12 V2 B 0.012 V

2

C 0.0012 V2 D 0.000012 V

2

171 Standard data rate of PCM for 30 channels is …..

A 64 KBPS B 2.048 MBPS

C 4 MBPS D 8 MBPS

172 The SQR for PCM if sinusoidal signal is quantized using 10 bit

A 48 dB B 56.8 dB

C 64 dB D 67.78 dB

173 Pulse stuffing is used in

A Synchronous TDM B Asynchronous TDM

C Any TDM D None of above

174 With compare to PCM system, delta modulation requires …

A lower sampling rate B low bandwidth

C simple hardware D better SNR

175 Following is not ideal requirement from line codes

A Transmission bandwidth B large DC component

C Favorable PSD D Timing recovery

176 Which one of following line code has no DC component and clock recovery

property?

A Manchestor B NRZ

C RZ D None of above

177 Which of the following gives maximum probability of error?

A ASK B BFSK

C BPSK D DPSK

178 Output SNR of matched filter, fed at its input by a ractangular pulse of

amplitude A and duration T is given by _________ considering N as noise

PSD

A 2AT/N B 2A2T/N

C AT D A/N

179 Main circuit used in DPSK modulator is …

A AND gate B OR gate

C Ex-NOR gate D NAND gate

180 In digital communication system employing FSK, 0 is represented by sine

wave of 10 KHz and 1 is represented by 25 KHz. These waveforms are

orthogonal for bit interval of ….

A 45 µs B 50 µs

C 200 µs D 250 µs

181 For a bit rate of 8 kbps, best possible values of transmitted frequencies in a

coherent binary FSK systems are

A 32 KHz and 40 KHz B 8 KHz and 12 KHz

C 20 KHz and 40 KHz D 16 KHz and 20 KHz

182 ASK, FSK and PSK are examples of

A Analog transmission of data B Digital to analog converter

C Analog to Digital convertor D Analog modulators

183 Correlation receiver consists of …

A Adder and integrator B Multilier and integrator

C Mutiplier and differentiator D Addre and differentiator

184 Baud rate of QPSK system is 100 then bit rate is …

A 800 B 400

C 200 D 100

185 In digital communication system, the delay spreading along with fading

causes _________and hence limits maximum symbol rate.

A Multipath fading B Doppler effect

C higher bit rate D Intersymbol interference

186 Two main reasons for rapid fluctuations of the signal amplitude in mobile

communication are ..

A Reflection and refraction B diffraction and scattering

C Multipath fading and doppler

effect D Blocking and shadowing

187 The average delay spread due to fading in urban area is ______

A <0.1 µs B 0.5 µs

C 3 µs D 5 µs

188 A base station transmitter is operating at 900 MHz carrier frequency.

Mobile moving at speed of 72 km/hr in a direction perpendicular to

direction of arrival of signal. The receiver carrier frequency is …

A 899.99 MHz B 900.00006 MHz

C 900 MHz D 900.03 MHz

189 Following channel passes all spectral components with approximately equal

gain and linear phase without distortion.

A Rayleigh fading channel B Rician fading channel

C Frequency selective channel D Flat channel

190 Due to presence of object between transmitter and receiver, following will

happen.

A Scattering B Reflection

C Shadow fading D Doppler effect

191 Rayleigh fading channel model characteristics is not applicable to …

A Multiple indirect path between

transmitter and receiver B No distict line of sight path

C Direct line of sight path D None of above

192 In wireless communication system, transmitter and receiver stations are

located at distance of 10 km. transmission delay of signal typically …

A 3.33 µs B 33.3 µs

C 333.3 µs D 3 ms

193 Optimal ration between the number of fixed and dynamic channels in

hybrid channel assignment mainly depends on

A Availability of channels B Blocking probability

C Traffic characteristics D System overheads

194 Cell site transmitter power incerases by 3 dB that means

A Transmitter power doubles B Transmitter power four times

C Transmitter power 1000 times D None of above

195 Radius of split cell is one half of oringinal cell. Coverage area of split cell is

__________ the coverage area of original cell.

A Half B Double

C one fourth D Four times

196 In a flat operating terrain, doubling cell site antenna height results into ..

A 3 dB increase in gain B 6 dB increase in gain

C 9 dB increase in gain D 8 dB increase in gain

197 Modem uses 4 different amplitudes and 16 different phases. Bits used to

transmit each symbol are …

A 4 B 5

C 6 D 8

198 Overall handoff delay in Mobile assisted hand off is about

A 5 to 10 second B 2 to 5 second

C 1 to 2 second D less than 1 second

199 Minimum required C/I is about _________ for narrowband digital cellular

systems.

A 3 dB B 6 dB

C 9 dB D 12 dB

200 If calling rate average is 20 calls per minute and average holding time is 3

minutes then offered traffic load in Erlang is ….

A 6.66 B 30

C 60 D 360

201 One of following is not related to cyclic code.

A Error detection is simple B Look up table is required

C Code is powerful and efficient D All of above

202 Binary symmetric channel transmitting 1's and 0's with equal probabilties

has an error rate of 0.01. Channel transmission rate will be ...

A 0.9 B 0.909

C 0.99 D 0.92

203 For telephonic quality speech channel, calculate information capacity of the

telephone channel for SNR of 30 dB

A 64 KBPS B 32 KBPS

C 33.89 KBPS D 16 KBPS

204 If receiver knows the message being transmitted by the transmitter,

amount of information communicated is ….

A 8 bit B 4 bit

C 1 bit D 0

205 What is amount of information in binary PCM with equal likelihood ?

A 8 bit B 4 bit

C 1 bit D 0

206 A source produces four symbols x1,x2,x3 and x4 with probabilities 0.5,

0.25,0.125 and 0.125 respectively. Amount of information carried by symol

x1 and x2 is …

A 1 bit for both x1 and x2 B 2 bit for both x1 and x2

C 1 bit for x1 and 2 bit for x2 D 2 bit for x1 and 1 bit for x2

207 What is amount of information conveyed by symbol Z in bit ,if its

probability is 0.25

A 0.25 B 5

C 1 D 2

208 Entropy of message source generating 4 messages with probabilities 0.5,

0.25, 0.125 and 0.125 is …

A 1 bit/message B 1.75 bit/message

C 2 bit/message D 4 bit/message

209 Capacity of communication channel with a bandwidth of 4 KHz and 15 dB

SNR is …

A 4 kbps B 8.02 kbps

C 20.11 kbps D 32.40 kbps

210 In T1 systems, the frame synchronization code repeats at every

A 1 µs B 64 µs

C 125 µs D 625 µs

211 Matched filter output over (0,T) to pulse waveform is …

A e-T

B e-T

sin(ht)

C e-T

sin(t) D e-T/2

sin(2ht)

212 Inter-symbol Interference can be reduced by following …

A Transmit sinc pulses instead of

rectangular pulses B

By using suitable pulse shaping

techniques.

C By reducing data transmission

rate D All of above

213 Transversal equalizer uses tapped delay line to …

A Reduce ISI B Reduce data rate

C Reduce bandwidth D None of above

214 Eb/No at the receiver input should be larger than ________ in order to

recover error free data at receiver output. Eb=Received Signal and No/2 is

power spectral density.

A 0 dB B 3 dB

C -1.59 dB D 1.33 dB

215 RC load for diode detector consists of a 1000 pF capacitor in parallel with

10 kΩ, maximum modulation depth that can be handled for sinewave of

10 KHz to avoid diagonal peak clipping.

A 0.25 B 0.5

C 0.85 D 0.9

216 HDTV has aspect ratio

A 4:3 B 16:9

C 9:16 D 3:4

217 As per new HDTV standard formats number of scan lines are …

A Interlace scan mode 1080 B Progressive scan mode 780

C Both A and B D None of above

218 In 1080i HDTV system, nummber of pixels in each line are ..

A 786 B 1280

C 1920 D 2400

219 What is the approximate frequency limit of copper wire

A 1 MHz B 40 GHz

C 100KHz D 10 GHz

220 Following circuit is used to generate PPM from PWM signal

A Astable multivibrator B D-Flip flop

C Monostable multivibrator D Schmit trigger

221 What will be minimum storage requirement according to Nyquist theorem

to store audio signal of 20Hz-15KHz with 8 bit quantization for the duration

of 1 minute?

A 1.2 MB B 1.8 MB

C 30 KB D 64 KB

222 Data rate of one speech channel in LPC-10 vocoder is …..

A 2.4 kbps B 4 kbps

C 8 kbps D 16 kbps

223 Total 12 telephone quality speech channels are time division multiplexed

using DPCM technique. Total transmission rate will be…..

A 128 kbps B 192 kbps

C 256 kbps D 384 kbps

224 Following hardware is used for pulse shaping …

A Low pass filter circuit B High pass filter circuit

C Transversal filter D All of above

225 HDMI Cable used in modern LCD/LED TV provides …

A Digital Connection B Carries video signal

C Carries audio signal D All of above

226 Equalizer is used to …..

A Reshape incoming pulses B Boost high freq components

C To boost low freq components D Amplify incoming pulses

227 Gaussian filter is used in GMSK technique to

A To achieve smooth phase

transitions of carrier B

To reduce bandwidth

requirement for transmission.

C To achieve zero ISI at decision

making instant of neighboring D All of above

pulse

228 Following parameter is not coded in the LPC-10 vocoder

A Pitch B Gain

C Sample value D Voice/Unvoiced determination

229 How many samples are there in 40 ms frame of telephone quality speech ?

A 160 B 200

C 320 D 400

230 Following circuit is not used in detecting information from the PPM signal

A Low pass filter B Bistable multivibrator

C Amplifier D Monostable multivibrator

231 If we increase number of quantization levels in PCM system…..

A We get good SNR B Large bandwidth required for

transmission

C More bits required to

represent information D All of above

232 If we increase sampling rate in the PCM system ..

A Transmission bit rate will

increase B

Storage requirement will

increase

C No possibility of aliasing error D All of above

233 Following is not handshaking signal for RS232 serial communication

A RTS B Strobe

C CTS D DTR

234 Mean quantization noise in PCM system if sine wave of peak to peak

amplitude of 16 volt is quantized with 4 bits.

A 0.0833 B 0.05

C 0.5 D 4

235 Adaptive delta modulation is used to

A Reduce transmission rate B Remove slope overload and

threshold error

C Dynamic sampling rate D All of above

236 Sigma-Delta modulation is used to

A Pre-emphasize low frequency

content B

Increase correlation between

adjacent samples

C Simplify receiver design D All of above

237 Following is not criteria for spread spectrum system…..

A Bandwidth of transmitted

signal must be large enough B

SNR should increase as

bandwidth increase

C

Bandwidth expansion factor

should be independent of

message signal

D None of above

238 Relation between channel capacity C and bandwidth B can be given by

equation

A SNR = 7.78 + 20logC B C=2Blog10(1+SNR)

C C=2Blog2(SNR) D C=Blog2(1+SNR)

239 Noise generator is electronic model of speech generation system

represents…

A Vowels B Voiced sound

C Unvoiced sound D Pitch

240 10 Speech channels are multiplexed using TDM then separation between

two frame of speech will be ….

A 12.5 µS B 125 µS

C 1250 µS D None of above

241 Number of scanning lines and trace time per line in CCIR-B Television

system used in India is …

A 625 lines, 52 µS B 525 lines, 53 µS

C 625 lines, 64 µS D 525 lines,12 µS

242 One time slot of a TDMA frame in GSM standard contains ____ bits

encrypted data

A 156.25 B 114

C 57 D 26

243 One slot of TDMA frame in GSM standard contains total ___ bits

A 156.25 B 114

C 57 D 26

244 Following database at MSC keeps information about identity of mobile

phone equipment …

A HLR B VLR

C EIR D AuC

245 Effects of fading is distributed to improve signal quality by technique ..

A Speech coding B Channel coding

C Bit interleaving D Equalisation

246 Following type of technique suitable for bursty type traffic in form of

packets

A PRMA B TDMA

C FDMA D CDMA

247 Antenna gain in desired direction at cell site can be maximized by ______

A Omnidirectional antenna B Parabolic antenna

C Switched beam antenna D Dish antenna

248 To mitigate problem of ISI in TDMA system ________ technique is used

A Source encoding B Channel coding

C Interleaving D Channel Equalisation

249 In M-ary coding system, signaling rate Rs=1/Ts and data rate Rb=1/Tb are

related as:

A Ts=Tblog2M B Ts=TbxM

C Ts=2Tblog10M D Rs=Rblog2M

250 Scrambling is done to achieve …

A To help synchronization B To make data pattern random

C To remove long string of 1s and

0s D All of above

1 ∇ x ∇ x E is

A ∇∇. E - ∇∇∇∇2 E B ∇∇∇∇2 E - ∇∇. E

C ∇∇∇∇2 E + ∇ E D ∇. E - E .∇

2 Unit vector of E is

A E / E B E ( ax + ay + az )

C E . E D E / E

3 E x H is

A EH cos θ B EH sin θ

C EH sin θ an D EH cos θ an

4 E x ( A + C ) is

A E x C + E x A B E . A + E x C

C A.E + C.E D A x E – E x C

5 Gradient of a scalar is

A Not defined B A vector

C a scalar D Not periodic

6 Divergence of a vector is

A Not defined B a scalar

C A vector D The same as gradient of a vector

7 The unit of del is

A Does not exist B meter

C 1/meter D dB

8 ∇∇∇∇2

operates

A Only on scalar B Only on vector

C On a scalar and also on a vector D Only on a constant

9 ax . ax is

A ax B 1

C 0 D ay

10 ax . ay is

A 0 B 1

C az D -az

11 ax X ay is

A 1 B 0

C az D -az

12 ax X ax is

A 0 B 1

C az D ay

13 For static fields

A ∇ x H = D B ∇ x H = J

C ∇ x H = 0 D ∇ x H = E

14 In free space

A ∇ x E = 0 B ∇ x E = ρv

C ∇.D = ρv D ∇ x E = - ∂∂∂∂B/∂t∂t∂t∂t 15 Unit of E is

A Volt B Amp/m

C Volt/m D Volt/coulomb

16 Unit of H is

A Weber B ampere

C Volt/m D Amp/m

17 Unit of D is

A Wb/m B Amp/m

C C/m2 D C/m

18 D is

A ε E B ε H

C µ H D ε ∂∂∂∂E/∂t∂t∂t∂t

19 ∇.∂D∂D∂D∂D/∂t∂t∂t∂t is

A ρs B ρv

C ρl D 0

20 ∇ x E is

A ∂B∂B∂B∂B/∂t∂t∂t∂t B ----∂B∂B∂B∂B/∂t∂t∂t∂t

C ∂D∂D∂D∂D/∂t + J∂t + J∂t + J∂t + J D JJJJ

21 The electric flux density , D is

A ε E B ε E

C E / ε0 D µ E

22 The electric flux is

A Q B ε D

C ε E D ε Q

23 The unit of electric flux is

A Weber B Gauss

C Tesla D Coulomb

24 In free space

A ∇. E = 0 B ∇ x E = 0

C ∇.E = ρv D ∇.E = ρv / ε0

25 In free space

A ∇. B = 0 B ∇. B = µ0 H

C ∇ x B = µ0 H D ∇. B = H / µ0

26 For free space

A σ = 0 B J = 1 Amp/m2

C µr = µ0 D εr = ε0

27 The unit of conduction current density is

A Amp/m B Amp/m2

C Amp/m3 D Amp

28 The unit of displacement current density is

A Amp/m2 B Amp/m

C Amp D Amp-m

29 The unit of conduction current is

A Amp B Amp/m

C Amp/m2 D Amp-m

30 The unit of permittivity is

A Farad B Henry

C Farad/m D Henry/m

31 The unit of permeability is

A Henry/m B Farad/m

C Henry D Weber

32 The conduction current density is

A σ E B σD

C E/ σ D ε D

33 The displacement current density is

A ε ∂∂∂∂EEEE/∂t∂t∂t∂t B D

C ε D D ε0 E

34 For uniform plane wave propagation in z-direction

A Ez = 0 B Ez ≠ f(y)

C Ez ≠ f(x) D Ez = 0 , Hz = 0 35 The line integral of E around a closed loop is

A Zero B Q

C Equal to current D ρv

36 The unit of attenuation is

A dB/m B V/m

C Amp/m D Coloumb/m

37 Velocity of a plane wave whose εr = 4 , µr = 1 is

A 3 x 108 m/s B 1.5 x 10

8 cm/s

C 6 x 108 cm/s D 2 x 10

8 cm/s

38 Velocity of uniform plane wave in free space is

A 3 x 108 m/s B 3 x 10

8 cm/s

C 3 x 106 cm/s D 3 x 10

10 cm/s

39 The unit of depth of penetration is

A dB B Meter

C Neper D radian

40 E.H for a plane wave is

A Zero B 1

C Does not exist D EH

41 Equation of continuity is

A ∇.J = -∂∂∂∂ρv /∂t∂t∂t∂t B ∇.J = -ρv

C ∇.J = ∂∂∂∂ρv /∂t∂t∂t∂t D ∇.J = ∂∂∂∂ρs /∂t∂t∂t∂t

42 Magnetic current density is given by

A B B ∂D∂D∂D∂D/∂t∂t∂t∂t

C ∂B∂B∂B∂B/∂t∂t∂t∂t D ----∂B∂B∂B∂B/∂t∂t∂t∂t

43 The unit of magnetic current density is

A Amp/m2 B Volt/m

2

C Amp D Amp/m

44 Boundary conditions on E is

A an X (E1 – E2 ) = 0 B Et1 = Et2

C an . (E1 – E2 ) = 0 D an . E1 = 0

45 Boundary conditions on H is

A Ht1 = Ht2 B Ht1 - Ht2 = Js

C an X (H1 – H2 ) = Js D an X (H1 – H2 ) = 0 46 Boundary conditions on B is

A an X (B1 – B2 ) = 0 B an . (B1 – B2 ) = 0

C an . (H1 – H2 ) = Js D Bn1 = Bn2

47 Boundary conditions on D is

A an . (D1 – D2 ) = 0 B an . (D1 – D2 ) = ρs

C an X (D1 – D2 ) = ρs D an X (D1 – D2 ) = 0

48 Boundary conditions on J is

A an X (J1 – J2 ) = 0 B an . (J1 – J2 ) = 0

C an X (J1 – J2 ) = Js D an . (J1 – J2 ) = Js

49 Lorentz Gauge condition is

A ∇.A = - µ ε ∂V∂V∂V∂V /∂t∂t∂t∂t B ∇x A = H

C ∇x A = B D ∇.A = - ∇∂V∂V∂V∂V /∂t∂t∂t∂t 50 Equation of continuity is

A J.dS = I B J.dS = Q

C J.dS = J D J.dS = ρv 51 Intrinsic impedance of a medium is given by

A Sqrt(µ / ε ) B Sqrt( jωµ / (σ + jωε )

C Sqrt(ε /µ ) D Sqrt(µ ε )

52 The characteristic impedance of free space is

A 277 Ω B 120 Ω

C 377 Ω D 120π2 Ω

53 The wave equation in free space is

A ∇2 E = µ0 ε0 ∂E∂E∂E∂E /∂t∂t∂t∂t

B ∇2 E = µ0 ε0 ∂∂∂∂2222EEEE /∂t∂t∂t∂t

C ∇2 V = - ρv / ε

D ∇2 E = µ σ ∂∂∂∂2222EEEE /∂t∂t∂t∂t

54 E and H are always perpendicular to each other

A Yes B Some times

C Only for uniform plane wave D None of these

55 Velocity of propagation of a plane wave is

A β / ω B ω / β

C λ / f D f / λ

56 Attenuation of plane wave in free space is

A Zero B infinite

C Propagation constant D β itself

57 A medium is a good conductor if

A (σ / ω ε ) >> 1 B (σ / ω ε) << 1

C (σ / ω ε ) = 1 D (σ / ω ε ) = 0 58 A medium is a good dielectric if

A (σ / ω ε ) >> 1 B (σ / ω ε) << 1

C (σ / ω ε ) = 0 D (σ / ω ε ) = 1 59 The ratio of conduction current to displacement current is

A σ / ω ε B ω ε / σ

C 0 D 1

60 Dissipation factor of a dielectric is

A σ / ω ε B ω ε / σ

C 1 D 0

61 depth of penetration in good conductors is

A Inversely proportional to

conductivity B

Inversely proportional to square

root of conductivity

C Not a function of conductivity

D Directly proportional to

conductivity

62 Attenuation constant in good dielectrics is

A Directly proportional to conductivity B Inversely proportional to

conductivity

C Inversely proportional to square

root of conductivity D

Not a function of conductivity 63 Phase velocityof uniform plane wave is

A Directly proportional to ε B Inversely proportional to ε

C Not a function of ε

D Not Inversely proportional to

square root of ε 64 Phase constant of a uniform plane wave in a medium is

A Directly proportional to frequency B Not a function of frequency

C Is inversely proportional to

frequency D

Is inversely proportional to

square root of frequency 65 The characteristic impedance of a medium is

A Sqrt(µ / ε ) B Is a function of frequency

C Not a function of frequency D Is independent of µ , ε and f

66 Poynting vector gives

A Instantaneous power density B Average power density

C Total power D Total power density

67 Standing waves are produced when

A There are no reflections B There are full reflections

C There is only transmission D The waves are incident on good

dielectrics

68 The minimum value of voltage standing wave ratio is

A 0 B -1

C 1 D - ∞

69 When the load impedance ZL = Z0 , the VSWR is

A 10 B 1

C 0 D ∞

70 Brewster angle is

A Angle of incidence for which

there is no reflection B

Angle of refraction for which

there is no reflection

C Equal to reflected angle D Equal to refraction angle

71 The range of HF is

A 3-30 kHz B 30-300 kHz

C 3-30 MHz D 30-300 MHz

72 The range of VHF is

A 3-30 MHz B 30-300 MHz

C 300 MHz-3 GHz D 300 kHz – 300 MHz

73 The standard antenna for reference is

A Isotropic antenna B Half-wave dipole

C Dish antenna D Yagi Uda antenna

74 The most common popular prevalent TV antenna is

A Dipole B Monopole

C dish D horn

75 Among the following the Broadband antenna is

A Log-periodic B dipole

C Yagi-Uda D Horn

76 Among the following the non-resonant antenna is

A dipole B Yagi-Uda

C Monopole D rhombic

77 The common microwave link antenna is

A dipole B Log-periodic

C Rhombic D Parabolic dish

78 Antenna for direction finding is

A Yagi-Uda B Rhombic

C Parabolic dish D Loop

79 The directivity of half-wave dipole is

A 10 B 1

C 1.5 D 1.64

80 The directivity of current element is

A 1.64 B 1.5

C 2.0 D 5.0

81 Reflectors in Yagi-Uda antenna are

A 1 B More than 1

C 3 D 10

82 Directors in Yagi-Uda antenna are

A More than 1 B 1

C 5 D 3

83 Radar antenna is

A Parabolic dish B dipole

C Horn D waveguide

84 The length of the folded dipole in yagi – uda antenna is

A 468/f (MHz) feet B 492/ f (MHz) feet

C 342/f (MHz) feet D 192/f (MHz) feet 85 The impedance of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is

A Inductive reactance B Capacitive reactance

C Purely resistive D 73 Ω

86 The radiation resistance of a current element is

A 80 π2 ( dl / λ )

2 Ω B 80 π

( dl / λ )2 Ω

C 80 π2 ( dl / λ ) Ω D 80 π ( dl / λ ) Ω

87 Circularly polarized antenna is

A Dipole B Parabolic dish

C Yagi-uda D helical

88 If the current element is y-directed , the resultant vector magnetic potential is

A y-directed B x-directed

C z-directed D θ-directed 89 For time-varying fields

A E = -∇ V B E E E E = -∇ V - ∂A∂A∂A∂A /∂t∂t∂t∂t

C E E E E = -∇ V - ∂D∂D∂D∂D /∂t∂t∂t∂t D E E E E = -∇ V - ∂H∂H∂H∂H /∂t∂t∂t∂t 100 poynting vector gives

A Direction of electric field

B Polarization of electromagnetic

wave

C Power flow D Rate of energy flow

101 The length of folded dipole in yagi-uda antenna is

A Frequency dependent B Frequency independent

C Equal to λ D Equal to 0.2 λ

102 The spacing between folded dipole and reflector is

A λ B λ /2

C > λ /2 D < λ /2

103 Voltage standing wave ratio is

A Vmin / Vmax B Vmax / Vmin

C Vreflected / Vincident D Vmax

104 Antenna is a

A transducer B filter

C Regulator D amplifier

105 The radiation resistance of a half wave dipole close to earth is

A 73 Ω B < 73 Ω

C > 73 Ω D Infinity

106 If the directivity is high , the beam width is

A High B low

C constant D Very high

107 Director in yagi-uda antenna is

A Active element B Driven element

C Parasitic element D Identical to dipole

108 Reflector in yagi-uda antenna is

A Active element B Driven element

C Identical to dipole D Parasitic element

109 Log-periodic antenna is

A Narrow band B Wide band

C Frequency independent D Frequency dependent

110 In vertical dipole , the electric field is

A Parallel to the dipole B Perpendicular to dipole

C Θ- directed D circular

111 The effective length of a vertical radiator is

A Increased by capacitive hat

B Increased by loading with lumped

Inductance

C Increased by supplying more power D Increased by resistance loading

112 The null-to-null beam width in end-fire array is

A 2 λ / N d B Sqrt(2 λ / N d )

C 2 sqrt(λ / N d ) D 2 sqrt(2 λ / N d )

113

The null-to-null beam width in broad side array is

A 2 λ / N d B 2 sqrt(2 λ / N d )

C 2 λ2 / N d D Sqrt(N d / 2 λ ) 114

The length of resonant dipole is

A λ /2 B λ

C λ /4 D 2 λ 115

The first side lobe level in uniform array is

A 0.212 B 0.121

C 0.312 D 0.51

116 The side lobe level in binomial array is

A Zero B -13.5 dB

C -20 dB D Zero dB

117 In binomial array the central elements are excited

A strongly B Weakly

C Uniformly D easily

118 In horizontal polarized waves the electric field is

A Parallel to the ground B Perpendicular to the ground

C In Θ-direction D Elliptical

119 The maximum directive gain of current element is

A 1.76 dB B 2.15 dB

C 3 dB D 0 dB

120 Band width of an antenna is

A f0 / Q B Q / f0

C f0 Q D f0 2 / Q

121 Antenna can be used as

A Sound sensor B Light sensor

C Temperature sensor D Colour sensor

122 For far field of z-directed current element

A Hφ = - sin θ ∂A∂A∂A∂Azzzz/∂r∂r∂r∂r B Hφ = 0

C Hφ = H θ D Hφ = Hr

123 Induction and far fields have equal magnitudes at

A r = λ/ 2 π B r = λ/ 6 π

C r = λ/ π D r = ∞

124 Induction and radiation fields have equal magnitudes at

A r = v0 / ω B r = v0 / 2 π

C r = v0 / β D r = v0 / λ 125 If the output signal power level is 1 W , power gain is

A 0 dB B 1 dB

C 10 dB D ∞ dB

126 LF antennas are usually used for

A Vertical polarization B horizontal polarization

C Circular polarization D Elliptical polarization 127 The real part of antenna impedance consists of

A Rr only B Rr and Rl

C Rl only D Zero ohms of resistance

128 Power and field patterns are related as

A P ∝ E2 B P ∝ E

C P ∝ √E D P ∝ 1/ E

129 For radiation pattern measurement the distance of the far field region is

A r > 2 D2 / λ B r < D

2 / λ

C r= λ/π D r= D/π

130 GTEM cell means

A Geometric transverse

electromagnetic cell B Giga Hertz TEM cell

C Grounded TEM cell D Geo TEM cell

131 Whetastone bridge is used to measure antenna impedance at a frequency of

A Giga hertz B Upto microwave frequency range

C Upto millimeter range D Upto 30 MHz

132 If the field measurements are made at r < 2 D

2 / λ

A Side lobe levels will be high B Bandwidth will be small

C Band width and side lobe levels are

small D No side lobes appear

133 Null-to –Null bandwith is

A Equal to 3 dB bandwith B Greater than 3 dB band width

C less than 3 dB band width D Not related to 3 dB band width

134 Antenna efficiency is

A gp / gd B gd / gp

C gp D gd

135 Phase difference is

A β B ω / β

C Path difference x β D β / ω

136 If the response of a vertical dipole is 1 for a unity normalized input power , the

polarization is

A Vertical B Horizontal

C Circular D elliptical

137 If the response of RCP helix is zero , the polarization of test antenna is

A LCP B RCP

C Horizontal D Vertical

138 If the response of RCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is

A LCP B RCP

C Horizontal D Vertical

139 If the response of LCP helix is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is

A LCP B RCP

C Horizontal D Vertical

140 If the response of a horizontal dipole is maximum , the polarization of test antenna is

A Horizontal B Vertical

C Circular D elliptical

141 If the response of any type of antenna is 0.5 for unity normalized power, the

polarization of test antenna is

A Linear B Horizontal

C Vertical D unpolarised

142 The excitation levels of a three element binomial array are

A 1,2,1 B 1,3,1

C 1,4,1 D 2,3,2 143

The excitation levels of a four element binomial array are

A 1,3,1,1 B 1,2,2,1

C 1,3,3,1 D 1,4,4,1 144

The basic transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is

A 10 log ( ( 4 π d )/λ )2 B 10 log (λ / ( 4 π d ))2

C 10 log ( GTX GRX ) D zero

145 Actual transmission loss between transmitter and receiver is

A 10 log (λ / ( 4 π d ))2 * 1/ ( GT

GR ) B 10 log ( ( 4 π d )/λ )2 * 1/ ( GT

GR )

C 10 log ( ( 4 π d )/λ ) * GT GR

D 10 log (λ / ( 4 π d )) * ( GT

GR ) 146 Friss formula is

A La = (λ / ( 4 π d ))2 B La = ( ( 4 π d )/λ )2

C La = 10log10( ( 4 π d )/λ )2 * 1/ (

GT GR ) D La = 10log10( ( 4 π d )/λ )2

147 Noise figure of antenna is

A Te / T0 B 1 + (Te / T0 )

C 1 - (Te / T0 ) D 1 + (Te / T0 )2

148 Actual transmission loss in dB between transmitter and receiver is

A Greater than basic transmission

loss B

less than basic transmission loss

C Equal to basic transmission loss D infinite

149 Schelkunoff polynomial method gives

A Nulls in the desired direction B Nulls in undesired directions

C Desired side lobes D Desired beam width

150 Range of VSWR is

A 0 to 1 B 1 to ∞

C 0 to ∞ D -∞ to ∞ 151 Tchebyscheff polynomial method gives

A Desired side lobe ratio B Desired beam width

C Desired overall pattern D Desired phase function

152 The advantage of uniform linear array is

A The required number of sources

is one B SLR is small

C Number of side lobes are less D Grating lobes are present

153 The current distribution in half-wave dipole is

A Sinusoidal B constant

C Triangular D parabolic

154 When the array length high, the null –to-null beam width is

A Small B High

C Constant D infinity

155 Conducting properties of earth are

A Constant with frequency B Change with frequency

C Change with the type of antenna D Change with excitation of antenna

156 In conductor , if charge is not moving , the radiation is

A Very high B Zero

C The same as when charge moves D moderate

157 If a charge is moving with a uniform velocity in an infinite straight wire , the

radiaton is

A Infinite B Moderate

C Zero D high

158 If the charge is moving in a curved wire , radiation

A Exists B Does not exist

C Is infinite D Same as when the wire is straight

159 If the charge oscillates with time in a straight wire , it

A Radiates B Does not radiate

C Stores energy D oscillates

160 If the charge accelerates , there exists

A No radiation B Radiation

C Stored energy D Acceleration of antenna

161 If the charge deccelerates , radiation

A Is zero B Exists

C Does not exist in any antenna D Exists only in some wire antenna

162 The primary equation for electromagnetic radiation in a very thin z-directed wire of

length L

A L dIz / dt = L ρL az B L dIz / dt = L ρL ay

C L dIz / dt = ρL ay D L dIz / dt = L ρL

163 Radiation with broad frequency spectrum is very strong if

A pulses are of shorter duration B pulses are of longer duration

C Pulses have more amplitude D Pulses have small amplitude

164 For frequency independent antennas , the band width is

A zero B ∞

C Finite D Moderate

165 The radiation intensity of an isotropic radiator is

A Pr / 4 π r2 B Pr / 4 π r

C Pr / 4 π D Pr 166 An omni directional antenna from the following

A Parabolic dish B Dipole

C Horn D Yagi-uda antenna

167 Loop antenna is a

A Isotropic radiator B Directional radiator

C Omni-directional radiator D Point source

168 Broad side arrays are

A Omni-directional B Point sources

C Directional antennas D Isotropic antennas 169 In linear polarization , there exists

A Three components B Only one component

C Two components differing by 90

0 phase

D Two components differing by 270

0 phase

170 If there exists two orthogonal linear components which are in time phase,

polarization is

A Linear B Circular

C Elliptical D Not present

171 Effective area of an antenna is

A Ratio of power delivered to load

to power density of incident wave B

Ratio of radiation intensity to

power density of incident wave

C gp / gd D gd / gp

172 Aperture efficiency , ηa of an antenna is

A The ratio of gp and gd

B Maximum effective area to physical

area

C Effective area to physical area D Physical area to effective area

173 In far-field region , the angular field distribution is independent of

A Transmitter power B Distance from the antenna

C Angular region D Antenna type

174 Fresnel region is

A Far-field region B Near-field region

C The region of constant field D The region of no field

175 Fraunhofer region is

A Far-field region B Near-field region

C The region of constant field D The region of no field

176 Reactive near-field region exists when

A R > 0.62 * sqrt( D3 /λ ) B R < 0.62 * sqrt( D2 /λ )

C R < 0.62 * sqrt( D3 /λ ) D R > 0.62 * sqrt( D2 /λ ) 177 Fresnel region exists when

A R ≤ 0.62 * sqrt( D

3 /λ )

B R ≥ 0.62 * sqrt( D

3 /λ ) and R <

2D2 /λ

C R ≥ 2D2 /λ D R ≥ 0.62 * sqrt( D

3 /λ )

178 Fraunhofer region exists when

A R > 2D2 /λ B R < 2D

2 /λ

C R ≥ 0.62 * sqrt( D3 /λ ) D R ≤ 0.62 * sqrt( D

3 /λ )

179 Unit of directivity is

A Watts B Watts/m2

C Watts/m3 D nil

180 Unit of solid angle

A Degrees B Radian

C Sterradian D nil

181 If h is the height of an antenna , the number of side lobes are

A h/ λ B 2 h/ λ

C 4 D 2 λ / h

182 Divergence factor of a field from earth is

A

Reflected field from flat earth /

reflected field from curved

surface

B

Reflected field from curved

surface / reflected field from flat

surface

C

Reflected field from curved earth

/ incident field from curved

surface

D

incident field from curved earth

/ reflected field from curved

surface 183 If Rr is radiation resistance , µe is effective permeability of ferrite core , the

radiation resistance of ferrite loop is

A Rr (µ0 / µe )2 B Rr (µe / µ0 )

2

C Rr D Rr µ0

184 The resultant field of an array antenna is

A The product of element pattern

and array factor B Array factor

C Sum of element patterns D Element pattern

185 The excitation required to orient a beam in θ0 direction is

A kd cos θ0 B -kd cos θ0

C -kd D kd

186 Super directivity of an array can be obtained by

A Reducing the spacing B Increasing the spacing

C Reducing the number of elements D Decreasing array length

187 Super directivity obtained by reducing the spacing and increasing the number of

elements results in

A High reactive power and Q B low reactive power and Q

C Small Q D High reactive power and lower

Q 188 Circular antennas are most sensitive to

A Linearily polarized waves B Elliptically polarized waves

C Circularly polarized waves D Unpolarised waves

189 Circular antenna has usually a length of

A λ / 2 B λ

C 2λ D λ / 4

190 The horizontal pattern of a circular antenna is

A Circle B Four equal lobe pattern

C Figure-eight pattern D Six equal lobe pattern

191 Two end fire circular antenna elements with 90 º phasing produce

A Unidirectional pattern B Figure eight pattern

C Multidirectional pattern D No radiation pattern

192 Cirular antennas are widely used at

A VLF B HF

C Microwave frequency D UHF

193 Directors in yagi uda antenna

A

Reduces the characteristic

impedance of a driven antenna

element

B

increases the characteristic

impedance of a driven antenna

element

C Has no effect on the characteristic

impedance of driven element D Act as open circuit

194 Directors and reflectors are used to

A Reduce the impedance B increase the impedance

C Increase the gain D Form an array

195 Due to use of parasitic elements the bandwidth of yagi-uda antenna is

A Increased B Not affected

C Made ideal D Limited

196 Yagi-uda antenna has

A Poor front to back ratio B good front to back ratio

C infinite front to back ratio D zero front to back ratio

197 V-antenna yields

A Bidirectional pattern B Unidirectional pattern

C Good signal strength compared to

dipole D Less band width compared to dipole

198 V-antenna is popular for

A Satellite reception B FM reception

C Mobile reception D Radar signal reception

199 If the power gain of an antenna is 0.5 dB , the power ratio is

A 0.216 B 12.6

C 1.26 D 1.06

200 If the voltage gain of an antenna is 1.0 dB , the voltage ratio is

A 1.26 B 0.126

C 1.06 D 1.0

201 If the power gain of an antenna is 30 dB , the power ratio is

A 1.477 B 1000

C 100 D 10

202 If the power gain of an antenna is 20 , the power gain in dB is

A 13 B 130

C 20 D 200

203 If a dipole is tilted forward , the band width becomes

A Zero B Infinite

C More D reduced

204 If a 300 Ω line is terminated in 75 Ω dipole , SWR is

A 4 B 0.25

C 8 D 2

205 The power density at a distance of 1 km from 1 kW isotropic radiator is

A 795 mW / m2 B 79.5 mW / m

2

C 795 µW / m2 D 79.5 µW / m

2

206 For radio wave propagation , fresh water is considered to be

A Very poor B Poor

C Very good D average

207 For radio wave propagation , cities are considered to be

A Poor B Very poor

C Very good D good

208 The phase velocity of a wave in medium whose εr = 0 is

A ∞ B 0

C Finite D V0

209 Antenna radiation efficiency is high when its length is

A λ/ 2 B λ

C 3 λ/ 2 D ∞ 210 Antenna resonates when its length is integer multiples of

A λ B λ/ 2

C λ/ 4 D λ/ 3 211 For a 100 Ω antenna with 2 A of current , radiated power is

A 400 watts B 200 watts

C 50 watts D 25 watts 212 For a perfect conductor the power transmission coefficient is

A 1 B zero

C ∞ D Reflection coeeficient

213 For a perfect conductor , the power transmission coefficient |ρ|

2 is

A Equal to transmission coefficient B 1 – T

C 1 D 0

214 The Rayleigh criterion in the case of reflection of electromagnetic wave from semi-

rough surface is

A Cos θi > λ/ 8d B Cos θi = λ/ 8d

C Cos θi < λ/ 8d D Cos θi = 0

215 The percent bandwidth of an antenna with an optimum frequency of operation of 500

MHz and - 3 dB frequencies of 300 MHz and 350 MHz is

A 20 % B 100 %

C 500 % D 10 %

216 The received power of a receiving antenna whose effective area is 0.2 m2 for an

available power density of 100 µ W / m2

A 200 B 20

C 50 D 500

217 For an ideal antenna , the directivity is

A Power gain B 1

C 1.64 D 1.5

218 For an ideal antenna , the radiation resistance is

A 73 Ω B 36.5 Ω

C 293 Ω D Input impedance

219 The power gain in dB of isotropic radiator is

A 0 B 1

C 1.5 D 1.64

220 The normalized power of a dipole is

A 1 B 1.5

C Sin2 θ D 1.64

221 If the resistance part of antenna is 100 Ω , radiation resistance is 80 Ω , the antenna

efficiency is

A 0.8 B 10/8

C 0.4 D 8/18

222 If Φ is the angle between the axis of a receiving dipole and the direction of electric

field , the polarization loss factor is

A Sin Φ B cos Φ

C tan Φ D sec Φ

223 The effective length of a half wave dipole is

A 0.4 λ B 0.45 λ

C λ / π D 0.55 λ

225 Effective area of a Hertzian dipole is

A 0.2 λ2 B 0.25 λ2

C 0.119 λ2 D 0.3 λ2 226 Directive gain is equal to power gain if

A η = ∞ B η = 1

C η = gp D η = gd

227 Directive gain and directivity are equal for

A Directional antenna B Dipole

C Parabolic dish D Isotropic antenna

228 For an isotropic antenna operating at λ = sqrt(4 π ) , the effective area is

A 4 π B 1

C (4 π )2 D 2

229 Directivity is

A inversely proportional to beam width

B inversely proportional to square of

beam width

C Directly proportional to beam width D Directly proportional to square of

beam width

230 If the direction of propagation of an electromagnetic wave is in z-direction , the

polarization is in

A z-direction B y-direction

C x-direction D Circular polarization

231 If the quality factor of an antenna is 1000 , resonant frequency is 10 MHz its band

width is

A 100 kHz B 10 kHz

C 10 Hz D 10 MHz 232 The maximum effective area of an antenna operating at λ = 10 cm with the

directivity of 100 is

A 1000 cm2 B (1/4 π ) m2

C 4 π m2 D 10 π m2

233 The radiation resistance of an antenna which radiates 10 kW when a current of 10

ampere flows in it , is

A 100 Ω B 1,000 Ω

C 10 Ω D 100 kΩ 234 When an antenna radiates 10 kW in forward and 1 kW in backward directions , the

front-to-back ratio of an antenna is

A 1 dB B 10 dB

C 100 dB D 0 dB

235 If a medium has εr = 81 , σ = 2 mho/m , f = 10 GHz , it is

A A conductor B A bad conductor

C An insulator D A good insulator

236 The radiated electric field is

A α dl B α (dl)2

C α 1/ dl D α 1/(dl)2 237 Poynting vector has the unit of

A Watts / m3 B watts

C Watts / m2 D Volt-ampere

238 The current element has a directive gain of

A 3 / 2 B 2 / 3

C 1 D 1.64

239 The polarization of horizontal dipole is

A Vertical B Horizontal

C Θ - polarization D elliptical

240 To receive horizontally polarized wave , the receiving antenna should be polarised

A Vertically B Horizontally

C Circularly D Elliptically

241 The skin depth of an ideal conductor is

A ∞ B Zero

C Finite D Sqrt(ωµσ )

242 The conducting properties of a medium depends on

A σ Only B ε only

C f only D σ , ε and f

243 The surface current density of a good dielectric medium is

A Zero B Infinity

C Finite D - 1

244 The surface charge density of a good dielectric medium is

A -1 B Infinity

C Finite D Zero

245 In the boundary condition Dn1 - Dn2 = ρs , the unit of ρs is

A C / m3 B C / m2

C C / m D C 246

In the boundary condition Ht1 – Ht2 = Js , the unit of Js

A Ampere B Amp/m

C Amp/m2 D H/m

247 In the boundary condition Bn1 - Bn2 = 0 , the unit of Bn1 is

A Wb B Wb/m

C Tesla/m D Wb/m2

248 In the boundary condition Et1 – Et2 = 0 , the unit of Et2 is

A Volt/m2 B Volt/m

C Volt D Volt-m

249 H is

A ∇ x E B B / µ

C ∇ . BBBB D P / E

250 The permittivity of a space is

A 1 B ε0

C > 1 D ∞

251 The electric field of a circularly polarized wave is represented by

A ( ax + j ay ) e j ( ω t - β z ) B ( ax + j ay ) e

j ( ω t )

C ax e j ( ω t - β z ) D ay e

j ( ω t - β z ) 252 A qurter wave line yields

A Zero impedance B Infinite impedance

C Impedance inversion D Real and reactive impedance

253 The tangential electric field at a perfect conductor is

A 1 B ∞

C Zero D - ∞

254 An electromagnetic wave when incident on a perfect conductor is

A Reflected completely B Transmitted completely

C Reflected and transmitted D Refracted completely

255 The electric field of elliptically polarized electromagnetic wave is represented by

A ( ax + j ay ) e j ( ω t - β z )

B ( Ex ax + j Eyay ) e j ( ω t - β z )

C Ex ax e j ( ω t - β z )

D Eyay e j ( ω t - β z )

256 The transmission line can be converted into

A A dipole antenna B A dish antenna

C A horn D lens

257 The length of the mobile antenna is a

A λ B λ /2

C λ/4 D >λ

258 E.H of uniform plane wave is

A EH B 0

C η E2 D None of these

259 For static magnetic field

A ∇ X B = ρ B ∇ X B = µ J

C ∇ . B = µ0 J D ∇ X B = 0

260 Electric field in free space

A D / ε0 B D / µ0

C ε0D D σ/ ε0

261 For uniform plane wave in x-direction

A Ex = 0 B Hx = 0

C Ex = 0 and Hx = 0 D None of these

262 Displacement current density is

A D B J

C ∂D/∂t D ∂J/∂t

263 Depth of penetration in free space is

A α B 1/ α

C 0 D None of these

264 Complex pointing vector P is

A P= - E x H* B P= E x H*

C P= ½ E x H* D None of these

265 The time varying field is

A E = - ∇ V B E = - ∇ V -∂A/∂t

C E = - ∇ V -B D E = - ∇ V - D

266 Uniform plane wave is

A Longitudinal in nature B Transverse in nature

C Neither transverse nor longitudinal D Vertically directed

267 The direction of propagation of EM wave is obtained from

A E x H B E.H

C E D H

268 An electromagnetic field can exist if it satisfies

A Gauss’s law B Faraday’s law

C Coulomb’s law D All Maxwell’s equations

269 If σ = 2.0 mho/m , E=10.0 V/m , the conduction current density is

A 5.0 A/m2 B 20.0 A/m2

C 40.0 A/m2 D 20 A

270 Maxwell’s equations give the relations between

A Different fields B Different Sources

C Different boundary conditions D None of these

271 The velocity of EM wave is

A Inversely proportional to β B Inversely proportional to α

C Directly proportional to β D Directly proportional to α

272 Velocity of a wave in a good conductor is

A Very small B Very large

C Moderate D None of these

273 If E = 2 V/m , of a wave in free space , (H) is

A 1 / 60 π A/m B 60 π A/m

C 120 π A/m D 240 π A/m

274 If wet soil has σ = 10

-2 1 /m , εr =15 , µr = 1 , f = 60 Hz , it is a

A Good conductor B Good dielectric

C Semi conductor D None of these

275 If wet soil has σ = 10

-2 1 /m , εr =15 , µr = 1 , f = 10 GHz , it is a

A Good conductor B Good dielectric

C Semi conductor D Semi dielectric

276 The cosine of the angle between two vectors is

A Sum of products of the directions

of the two vectors B

Difference of products of the

directions of the two vectors

C Product of products of the

directions of the two vectors D None of these

277 The electric field intensity E at appoint (1,2,2) due to (1/9) nc located at (0,0,0) is

A 33 v/m B 0.333 V/m

C 0.33 V/m D Zero

278 If E is a vector , then ∇ . ∇ x EEEE is

A 0 B 1

C Does not exist D None of these

279 The Maxwell’s equation ∇.B = 0 is due to

A B = µ H B B = H / µ

C Non existence of a monopole D None of these

280 Velocity of EM wave in free space is

A Independent of f B Increases with increase in f

C Decreases with increase in f D None of these

281 The direction of propagation of EM wave is given by

A The direction of E B The direction of H

C The direction of E x H D The direction of E.H 282 For uniform plane wave propagating in z-direction

A Ex = 0 B Hx = 0

C Hy = 0 , Ey = 0 D Hz = 0 , Ez = 0 283 For free space

A σ = ∞ B σ = 0

C J ≠ 0 D None of these

284 Velocity of propagation of EM wave is

A Sqrt(ε0 / µ0 ) B µ0 / ε0

C 1/sqrt(µ0 ε0 ) D ε0 / µ0

285 Electric field for time varying potentials

A E = - ∇ V B E = - ∇ V - A

C E = ∇ V D E = - ∇ V + A

286 The intrinsic impedance of a medium whose σ = 0 , εr = 9 , µr = 1 Is

A 40π Ω B 9 Ω

C 120π Ω D 60π Ω

287 For time varying EM fields

A ∇ x HHHH = J= J= J= J B ∇ x HHHH = = = = ∂D/∂t + J∂D/∂t + J∂D/∂t + J∂D/∂t + J

C ∇ x EEEE = 0= 0= 0= 0 D None of these

288 The wave length of a wave with a propagation constant = 0.1 π + j 0.2 π

A 10 m B 20 m

C 30 m D 25 m

289 The electric field just above a conductor is always

A Normal to surface B Tangential to source

C Zero D ∞

290 The normal components of D are

A Continuous across a dielectric

boundary B

Discontinuous across a dielectric

boundary

C Zero D ∞

291 An antenna is a synonyms to a

A Generator B Transformer

C Regulator D Reflector

292 A unipole is also known as

A Omnidirectional radiator B Unidirectional director

C Line radiator D None of the above

292 The directive gain of an antenna is given by

A

Radiation intensity in a particular

direction / maximum radiated

power

B Average radiated power/maximum

radiated power

C Radiation intensity in a particular

direction / average radiated power D

Average radiated power / radiation

intensity in a particular direction

293 The numeric value of directive gain may lie between

A - 1 And + 1 B 0 and 1

C 0 and ∞ D 1 and ∞

294 Which of the following constitute the loss resistance of an antenna ?

A Dielectric loss B Leakage loss in insulation

C Loss in earth connection D All of the above

295 In case of antenna the ratio of the power radiated in desired direction to the power

radiated in the opposite direction is known as

A Transmission efficiency B Front to back ratio

C Loss coefficient D None of the above

296 Front-to-back ratio can be increased by

A Sacrificing gain B Increasing the size of conductor

C Using the materials of high

conductivity D All of the above

297 A half wave dipole used at a frequency of 300 MHz has a length of

A 10 m B 3 m

C 1 m D 50 cm

298 A vertical earthed antenna is resonant when its physical height is equal to

A λ B λ/2

C λ/4 D λ/8

299 A folded dipole antenna is conveniently connected to

A Shielded line B Two wire line

C Coaxial line D Flat ribbon type transmission line

300 The bandwidth of an antenna is

A Directly proportional to Q B Inversely proportional to Q

C Directly proportional to Q2 D Inversely proportional to Q

2

1. Frequency domain representation of periodic signals is done by

A Fourier Transform B Fourier Series

C Laplace Transform D Z-transform

2. Z –transform of unit sample is

A 1 B 0

C z D 1/z

3. Discrete Fourier Transform is

A Discrete in Frequency

domain

B Continuous in frequency

domain

C Can be discrete or

continuous

D None of the above

4. Continuous –to-discrete conversion is achieved by a process of

A sampling B filtering

C inversion D multiplication

5. 2 kHz sinusoidal signal is to be sampled. What should be the sampling

interval?

A 4 msec B 0.25 msec

C 2.5 msec D 5 msec

6. Discrete time fourier transform is

A z-transform evaluated

on unit circle

B z-transform evaluated

outside unit circle

C z-transform evaluated at

origin

D None of the above

7. Fourier series is a/an

A Finite series B Infinite series

C Waveform dependent

finite or infinite series

D None of the above

8. Fourier transform represents following type of signals in frequency

domain

A Periodic signals B Aperiodic signals

C Quasi-periodic signals D All of the above

9. For causal system,

A h(n)=0 for n<0 B h(n)=0 for n>0

C h(n)=1 for n<0 D h(n)=1 for n>0

10. For an LTI system, if x(n), h(n) and y(n) are input, impulse response and

output of the system, which one of the following is true?

A y(n)=h(n) x(n) B y(n)=h(n)*x(n)

C h(n)=x(n) y(n) D x(n)= h(n)y(n)

11. Laplace transform is used for the analysis of

A Continuous time system B Discrete time system

C Both continuous time

and discrete time

systems

D None of the above

12. Under force-current analogy ,displacement is analogous to

A Voltage B conductance

C Magnetic flux linkage D capacitance

13. The Laplace transform of e-at

is

A 1/s B 1/(s+a)

C s/(s+a) D a/(s+a)

14. Transfer function can be obtained from

A Analogous table B Standard block system

C Output-input ratio D Signal flow graph

15. Fast Fourier transform algorithm exploits

A Symmetry property of

WN

B Periodicity property of WN

C Both symmetry and

periodicity property of

WN

C Addition property of WN

16. An impulse train is

A Number of pulses B A number of pulses spaced

from each other

C A number of pulses all

originating together

D None of the above

17. The integral of a unit step function is

A A unit impulse function B A unit pulse function

C A ramp function of slope

1

D None of the above

18. The area of an impulse is

A 1 B 0

C infinity D indefinite

19. The function sinx / x

A Has a period 2π ,decays

with increasing x and

has zeros at nπ

,n=1,2,3,4

B Has a period π

C Has a period π/2 D Has a period 2 π,decays with

increasing x, is an even

function and has zeros at

nπ,n=(+/-) 1,2,3….

20. The function sinc x is equal to

A Sinx/x B X sinx

C x/sinx D X+sinx

21. The autocorrelation of a sampling function is a

A Triangular function B Gate function

C Signum function D None of the above

22. For a periodic waveform, the power spectral density and correlation

function form

A a Laplace transform pair B a Fourier transform pair

C a z-transform pair D a Hilbert transform pair

23. The trigonometric Fourier series of an even function of time does not

have

A dc term B Cosine term

C Sine term D Odd harmonic terms

24. The Fourier series of an odd periodic function contains

A Odd harmonics only B Even harmonics only

C Cosine terms only D Sine terms only

25. Autocorrelation function is

A An even function of τ B An odd function of τ

C May be an even or odd

function of τ

D Is both an even and odd

function of τ

26. The inverse Fourier transform of the function 2/jω is

A Sin ωt B Cos ωt

C Sgn (t) D u(t)

27. The period of the function cos (π/4)(t-1) is

A 1/8 s B 8 s

C 4 s D 1/4 s

28. The term energy spectral density is associated with

A Periodic waveform B Non-periodic waveform

C Cosine waveform D Exponential waveform

29. Principle of superposition is applied to

A Linear systems only B Non linear systems only

C Both linear and non

linear systems

D SECOND ORDER SYSTEM

ONLY

30. For the signum function sgn(t), F(jω)=

A 1/jω B 2/ jω

C jω D 2 jω

31. Ideal LPF is

A Non causal system B Causal system

C FIR system D Unstable system

32. y(n)=x(Mn) defines

A multiplier B compressor

C delay D accumulator

33. If f(t) is an even function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of

Fourier series are

A real B imaginary

C complex D zeros

34. If f(t) is an odd function, the coefficients Fn in the exponential form of

Fourier series are

A real B imaginary

C complex D zeros

35. A function will have only sine terms if

A f(t)=-f(t) B f(-t)=f(t)

C f(-t)=-f(t) D None of the above

36. One unit of delay in time domain is equivalent to

A z-1 in z-domain B z in z-domain

C z+1 in z domain D z-1 in z -domain

37. Modulation process can be explained by which of the following

properties of Fourier transform?

A Time shifting B Frequency shifting

C differentiation D integration

38. Discrete Fourier transform is a/an

A Finite duration sequence B Infinite duration sequence

C Periodic sequence D Periodic sequence with

period of 2π

39. Final value theorem is used to find

A Steady state value of

system output

B Initial value of output

C Transient behavior of

output

D None of the above

40. If f(t) is in volts, F(jω) is in

A volts B Volts*sec

C Volts/sec D Volts*sec2

41. Undersampling of the signal results in

A Aliasing in frequency

domain

B Aliasing in time domain

C Aliasing in both time

domain and frequency

domain

D Preemphasis of the signal

42. Even with Nyquist rate sampling, we cannot recover signal without

distortion ,because

A Filters are non-ideal B Sampling signal is non-ideal

C Multipliers are non ideal D All of the above

43. Reconstruction of a signal from its sampled version requires

A Low pass filter B High pass filter

C Notch filter D Band reject filter

44. The discrete time signal x(n)=(-1)n is periodic with fundamental period

A 6 B 4

C 2 D 1

45. The Fourier transform of an exponential signal x(n)=ejωot

is

A A constant B A rectangular pulse

C An impulse D A series of impulses

46. The autocorrelation function of a rectangular pulse of duration T is

A a rectangular pulse of

duration T.

B a rectangular pulse of

duration 2T.

C a triangular pulse of

duration T.

D a triangular pulse of

duration 2T.

47. The Fourier Transform of a rectangular pulse existing between t = -T

/ 2 to t = +T / 2 is a

A sinc squared function. B sinc function.

C sine squared function. D sine function.

48. The system characterized by the equation y(t ) = ax(t )+ b is

A Linear for any value of b B Linear if b>0

C Linear if b<0 D Non-linear

49. If G(f) represents the Fourier Transform of a signal g (t), which is real

and odd symmetric in time, then G (f) is

A complex B imaginary

C real D Real and non-negative

50. A band pass signal extends from 1 KHz to 2 KHz. The minimum

sampling frequency needed to retain all information in the sampled

signal is

A 1 kHz B 2 kHz

C 3 kHz D 4 kHz

51. Two sequences x1 (n) and x2 (n) are related by x2 (n) = x1 (- n). In the z-

domain, their ROC’s are

A The same B Reciprocal of each other

C Negative of each other D Complements of each other

52. The Fourier transform (FT) of a function x (t) is X (f). The FT of

dx(t )/ dt will be

A dX(f)/df B j2πf X(f ).

C jf X(f) D X(f )/(jf ).

53. Inverse Fourier transform of u(ω) is

A 0.5 δ(t)+1/(πt) B δ(t)+1/(πt)

C 0.5 δ(t)+1/(2πt) D δ(t)+1/(2πt)

54. The impulse response of a system is h(n) =a n

u(n) . The condition

for the system to be BIBO stable is

A a is real and positive B A is real and negative

C |a|>1 D |a|<1

55. If R1 is the region of convergence of x (n) and R2 is the region of

convergence of y(n), then the region of convergence of x (n)

convoluted y (n) is

A R1+R2 . B R1-R2 .

C R1∩R2 . D R1υR2 .

56. The continuous time system described by y(t)= x(t2) is

A causal, linear and time

varying.

B causal, non-linear and time

varying.

C non causal, non-linear

and time-invariant.

D non causal, linear and

time-invariant.

57. The signals x1(t ) and x2(t ) are both bandlimited to –ω1 to + ω1 and –ω2 to + ω2 respectively. The Nyquist sampling rate for the signal

x1(t ) x2(t ) will be

A 2ω2 B ω2

C 2(ω1 + ω2) D 2 ω1

58. The signal x(n)=sin(πn/4) is

A aperiodic B Periodic with period 8

C Periodic with period 12 D Periodic with period 2

59. Minimum period of discrete time periodic signal is

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

60. Maximum frequency (rad/sample) of discrete time signal is

A π B π/2

C 2π D π/4

61. The derivative of unit step function is

A Unit impulse B Ramp with slope 1

C impulse D Rectangular function

62. If a periodic function f(t) of period T satisfies f(t)=-f( t + T/2) , then in

its Fourier series expansion,

A the constant term will

be zero.

B there will be no cosine

terms.

C there will be no sine

terms.

D there will be no even

harmonics.

63. A vertical line in s-plane corresponds to

A A line in z-plane B A point in z-plane

B An ellipse in z-plane D A circle in z-plane

64. For a right sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

A Exterior of a circle B Interior of a circle

C Ring D Unit circle in z-plane

65. For a left sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

A Exterior of a circle B Interior of a circle

C Ring D Unit circle in z-plane

66. For a two sided sequence, the ROC of its z-transform will be

A Exterior of a circle B Interior of a circle

C Ring D Unit circle in z-plane

67. Frequency response and impulse response are a

A z-transform pair B Fourier transform pair

C Inverse z-transform pair D DFT pair

68. In z-plane, |z|=1 is

A A circle B A line

C A square D A rectangle

69. The ROC of z-transform can not contain any

A zeros B poles

C Poles and zeros D

70. Discrete Fourier transform represents

A Time samples B Period information

C Frequency samples D All of the above

71. In z-transform, if x(n)↔X(z), then nx(n) ↔

A -zdX(z)/dz B dX(z)/dz

C -zdz D zdX(z)/dz

72. In computation of N- point DFT, there are

A N complex

multiplications

B 2N complex multiplications

C N/2 complex

multiplications

D N2 complex multiplications

73. Circular convolution is also known as

A Linear convolution B Periodic convolution

C Simple convolution D None of the above

74. If x(n)=1,1,1,1, its 4-point DFT coefficient X(0) is

A 0 B 4

C 1 D 2

75. DFT is

A Sampled version of DTFT B Integrated version of DTFT

C Same as DTFT D Same as z-transform

76. The frequency of a continuous time signal x (t) changes on

transformation from x (t) to x (a t), a > 0 by a factor

A a B 1/a

C a2

D a0.5

77. If x(n) is of finite duration, then its z-transform will be possibly

A Unit circle B ring

C Entire z-plane D origin

78. For DTFT to exist, the ROC must include

A Unit circle B origin

C Point (-1,1) D None of the above

79. The ROC of z-transform must be

A A discontinuous region B A connected region

C Unit circle D Entire z-plane

80. For a discrete time signal, dimension of ωo is

A degrees B radians

C Radian/sample D Degrees/sec

81. For discrete time signal, high frequencies are closer to

A π B 0

C 2 π D π/2

82. Period of DTFT is

A 2 π B π

C π/2 D π/4

83. If we sample continuous signal x(t)=sin(200 πt) with T=1/400 second,

discrete time signal will be x(n)=

A Sin(πn/2) B Sin(πn/4)

C Sin (nπ/8) D Sin (π/2n)

84. Discrete Time Fourier Transform is a

A Periodic function in time

domain

B Aperiodic function in time

domain

C Periodic function in

frequency domain

D Aperiodic function in

frequency domain

85. The LTI system with impulse response h(n)=4n u(n) is

A stable B unstable

C Non-causal D FIR system

86. To generate cos (πn/3) from cos (4000 πt) by sampling, T must be

A 1200 B 12000

C 120 D 12

87. If y(n)=log(x(n)), the system is

A linear B Non-linear

C LTI D None of the above

88. The correlation of the function with itself is called

A autocorrelation B Cross correlation

C Power spectral density D Energy spectral density

89. Autocorrelation function exhibits

A Conjugate asymmetry B Nonlinearity property

C Compression of signal D Conjugate symmetry

90. Any periodic waveform can be expressed by

A Fourier series B Fourier transform

C z-transform D Discrete Fourier Transform

91. Ideal delay system is characterized by

A y(n)=x(n) B y(n)=x(n+no)

C y(n)=x(n-no) D y(n)=x(-no)

92. DTFT can be

A Sampled to get DFT B Integrated to get DFT

C Differentiated to get DFT D None of the above

93. sampling

A Causes loss of

information

B Is non-invertible operation

C Is a step for

discretization

D All of the above

94. To prevent aliasing, signal should be

A oversampled B undersampled

C Critically sampled D None of the above

95. DFT samples are

A Equi-spaced on unit

circle

B Samples of z-transform

C Finite in number D All of the above

96. Duration of DFT sequence should be

A Greater or equal to

duration of time domain

sequence

B Less than the duration of

time domain sequence

C Equal to Half the

duration of time domain

sequence

D infinite

97. No. of DTFT samples possible on unit circle are

A finite B infinite

C N D 2N

98. DFT is normally a

A Real number B Imaginary number

C Complex number D Integer number

99. DTFT

A Cannot be computed B Can be computed

C Can be computed for

finite duration sequence

D Can be computed for

infinite duration sequence

100. FFT is

A DFT only B DTFT only

C DFT computed with less

no. of computations

D z-transform sample only

101. In force voltage analogy, the quantity analogous to spring constant K is

A R B C

C L D 1/C

102. Mechanical impedance is the ratio of

A Rms force to rms

velocity

B Rms force to rms

displacement

C Rms velocity to rms

displacement

D None of the above

103. In force current analogy, displacement is analogous to

A charge B Magnetic flux linkage

C Electrostatic energy D voltage

104. Time rate of change in heat energy is analogous to

A voltage B charge

C current D Voltage gradient

105. A proportional controller is basically

A An amplifier with

adjustable gain

B An integrating amplifier

C An amplifier with infinite

gain

D An amplifier with almost

zero gain

106. In an integral controller,

A The output is

proportional to input

B The rate of change of

output is proportional to

input

C The output is

proportional to rate of

change of input

D None of the above

107. Which control action is called rate control ?

A proportional B derivative

C integral D Proportional plus integral

108. Which control action can never be used alone?

A proportional B derivative

C integral D Both derivative and integral

109. For a type I system and unit step input, the steady state error is

A 0 B 1

C infinity D 1/Kp

110. For a type I system and unit parabolic input, the steady state error is

A 0 B 1

C infinity D 1/Kv

111. For a type 0 system and unit ramp input, the steady state error is

A 0 B 1

C infinity D 1/Kv

112. The frequency at which phase angle is 180 ˚ is called

A Phase cross over

frequency

B Stability limit frequency

C Frequency of limited

stability

D Gain margin frequency

113. The system has high gain and phase margins. The system is

A Very stable B sluggish

C Very stable and sluggish D oscillatory

114. A system is highly oscillatory if

A Gain margin is high B Gain margin is close to 1

C Gain margin is close to 1

or phase margin is zero

D Gain margin is high and

phase margin is 180˚

115. Integral control action

A Removes offset B May lead to oscillatory

response

C Both A and B D Neither A nor B

116. The addition of a pole to the open loop transfer function pulls the root

locus

A To the right B To the left

C Towards zero D Towards infinity

117. A system has its two poles on the negative real axis and one pair of

poles lies on jω axis. The system is

A stable B unstable

C Marginally stable D Highly stable

118. A lead compensator

A Speeds up the transient

response

B Increases the stability

margin

C Increases the stability

margin and speeds up

the transient response

D None of the above

119. The root locus branches

A Start from open loop

poles and terminate at

zeros

B Start from open loop zeros

and terminate at poles

C May start from pole or

zero and terminate at

another pole or zero

D None of the above

120. If zeros at infinity are included in count, the number of zeros of G(s)H(s)

is

A Equal to number of

poles

B One more than number of

poles

C One less than number of

poles

D Two more than number of

poles

121. In root locus analysis, the breakaway and break in points

A Lie on the real axis B Either lie on the real axis or

occur in complex conjugate

pairs

C Always occur in complex

conjugate pairs

D None of the above

122. In a minimum phase system,

A All poles lie on the real

axis

B All zeros lie in the left half

plane

C All poles and zeros lie in

the left half plane

D All except one pole or zero

lie in the left half plane

123. The angular location of poles depends on

A Undamped natural

frequency

B Damping ratio

C Resistance alone D Capacitance alone

124. If a system is to follow arbitrary inputs accurately, the bandwidth

should be

A large B small

C Very small D medium

125. From the view point of noise, bandwidth should be

A large B small

C infinite D zero

126. The distance of poles from origin depends on

A Undamped natural

frequency

B Damping ratio

C Both A and B D None of the above

127. If poles lie in the first quadrant, damping ratio is

A 1 B More than 1

C Less than 1 D zero

128. The gain margin for a stable system

A Has a positive dB value B Has a negative dB value

C Has a large negative dB

value

D Has zero dB value

129. A thermometer requires 1 minute to indicate 98% of its final response

to a step input. If it is a first order system, the time constant is

A 1 minute B 0.5 minute

C 0.25 minute D 0.1 minute

130. A lead compensator is basically a

A High pass filter B Low pass filter

C Band stop filter D Band reject filter

131. A lag compensator provides attenuation in

A Very low frequency

range

B Low frequency range

C High frequency range D None of the above

132. PID controlled system has

A P and I actions in

forward path and D

action in feedback path

B P and I actions in feedback

path and D action in

forward path

C All 3 actions in forward

path

D All 3 actions in feedback

path

133. The ac motor used in servo application is

A Single phase induction

motor

B Two phase induction motor

C 3 phase induction motor D Synchronous motor

134. Optical encoders most commonly used in control systems are

A Absolute encoders B Secondary encoders

C Incremental encoders D None of the above

135. Nichols chart consists of

A Constant magnitude loci B Constant phase angle loci

C Magnitude and phase

angle loci in log-

magnitude versus phase

diagram

D None of the above

136. As the bandwidth increases, the cost of components

A Generally decreases B Generally increases

C May increase or

decrease

D Does not change

137. The effects of adding poles and zeros can be determined quickly by

A Nichol’s chart B Nyquist plot

C Bode plot D Root locus

138. Magnetic amplifier is used for

A Voltage amplification B Power amplification

C Current amplification D Frequency multiplication

139. Robotic manipulator arms mostly use

A Hydraulic actuator B Pneumatic actuator

C Electric motor actuator D None of the above

140. Integral error compensation changes a second order system to

A First order system B Third order system

C Fourth order system D Higher order system

141. The effect of negative feedback on distortion and bandwidth are

A Both are decreased B Both are increased

C Distortion is reduced

and bandwidth is

increased

D Distortion is increased and

bandwidth is decreased

142. If feedback factor is β, the overall gain of a closed loop system is

approximately

A 1/ β B β

C β2

D β+A

143. In a second order system, peak overshoot is independent of

A Damping factor B Natural frequency

C Both natural frequency

and damping factor

D Neither natural frequency

nor damping factor

144. In a second order undamped system, the poles are on

A Positive real axis B Imaginary axis

C Negative real axis D origin

145. The polar plot of G(s)=1/[(1+s)(1+2s)]

A Does not cross real axis B Crosses real axis

C Crosses real axis at

ω=0.7 rad/sec

D Crosses real axis at ω=1.4

rad/sec

146. At corner frequency, the phase angle of factor 1/(1+jωT) is

A 90˚ B -90˚

C 45˚ D -45˚

147. In log magnitude Bode plot ,the slope of high frequency asymptote of

(1+jωT) is

A 20 dB/ decade B 10 dB/decade

C 20 dB /octave D 10 dB/octave

148. A conditionally stable system has

A One phase cross over

frequency

B Two phase cross over

frequency

C Two or more phase

cross over frequencies

D Zero phase cross over

frequency

149. A system has 12 poles and 2 zeros. Its high frequency asymptote in its

magnitude plot has a slope of

A -200 dB/decade B -240 dB/decade

C -280 dB/decade D -320 dB/decade

150. Modeling error can occur due to

A Neglecting non linear

characteristics

B Inaccuracy of parameters

C Change of plant

characteristics with time

D Any of the above

1

An abrupt p-n junction diode in thermal equilibrium at T = 300 K is doped such that Ec

– EF = 0.21 eV in the n-region and EF- EV = 0.18 eV in the p-region. The built-in potential

barrier Vbi is

A 0.69 V B 0.83 V

C 0.61 V D 0.88 V

2 A silicon p-n junction at T = 300 K has ND = 1014 cm-3 and NA =1017 cm-3. The built-in

voltage is

A 0.63 V B 0.93 V

C 0.026 V D 0.038 V

3 An p-n junction diode is operating in reverse bias region. The applied reverse voltage, at

which the ideal reverse current reaches 90% of its reverse saturation current, is

A 59.6 mV B 2.7 mV

C 30.4 mV D 12.0 mV

4 An abrupt silicon pn junction at zero bias and T = 300 K has dopant concentration of NA

=1017

cm-3

and ND = 5 x 1015

cm-3

, The Fermi level on n - side is

A 0.1 eV B 0.2 eV

C 0.3 eV D 0.4 eV

5 An ideal p-n junction diode is operating in the forward bias region. The change in diode

voltage, that will cause a increase in current by factor of 9, is

A 83 mV B 59 mV

C 43 mV D 31 mV

6 A transition region in an open circuited p-n junction contains

A free electrons only B holes only

C both free electrons and holes D uncovered immobile impurity ions

7 In unbiased p-n junction, the junction current at equilibrium is

A due to diffusion of majority

carriers B due to diffusion of minority carriers

C zero due to equal and opposite

currents crossing the junction D

zero because no charges cross the

junction

8 In the energy band diagram of an open circuited p-n junction, the energy band of n-

region has shifted relative to that of p-region

A downward by qVbi B upward by qVbi

C downwards by ( qVbi )/2 D upwards by ( qVbi )/2

9 The reverse saturation current in germanium diode varies as (where T is

the temperature in deg K)

A T B T1.5

C T2 D 1/T

10 The reverse saturation current in silicon diode varies as (where T is the

temperature in deg K)

A T B T1.5

C T2 D 1/T

11 In a p-n junction diode for constant value of current at room temperature

dV/dT varies approximately at the rate of

A -2.5 mV/deg C B 2.5 mV/deg C

C -25 mV/deg C D 25 mV/deg C

12 In a step graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion

layer varies as

A B

C D 1

13 In a linearly graded reverse biased junction the width W of the depletion

layer varies as

A B

C / D

1

14 In any p-n junction diode the transition capacitance CT varies as ( where is the width of the depletion layer)

A B

C 1 D √

15 The built in potential in a p-n junction diode equals

A ln B ln

C ln D ln

16 Pinch off voltage VP for an FET is the drain voltage at which

A significant current starts

flowing B drain current becomes zero

C all free charges get

removed from the channel D

avalanche break down takes

place

17 The % load regulation in a rectifier output circuit is defined as

A − + 100% B

− 100%

C − 100% D

+ − 100%

18 ! value for the half wave rectifier circuit can be given by

A 2 B

√2

C # D

2 #

19 $ value for the half wave rectifier circuit can be given by

A 2 B

√2

C # D

2 #

20 ! value for the full wave – center tapped rectifier circuit can be given

by

A 2 B

√2

C # D

2 #

21 $ value for the full wave – center tapped rectifier circuit can be given by

A 2 B

√2

C # D

2 #

22 The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for the half-wave rectifier is

A 0.406 B 0.286

C 0.693 D 0.512

23 The transformer utilization factor (TUF) for thefull-wave rectifier is

A 0.406 B 0.286

C 0.693 D 0.512

24 The ripple factor (γ) for the half-wave rectifier is

A 1.41 B 0.48

C 1.11 D 1.21

25 The ripple factor (γ) for the full-wave rectifier is

A 0.48 B 0.68

C 0.28 D 1.21

26 The rectification efficiency (η) for the half-wave rectifier is

A 23.1% B 40.6%

C 46.1% D 20.1%

27 The rectification efficiency (η) for the full-wave rectifier is

A 68.1% B 81.2%

C 40.6% D 92.1%

28 In half wave rectifier, the lowest ripple frequency is

A %/2 B % C 2% D 3%

29 For the below circuit waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in

circuit has cutin voltage Vγ = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of

output voltage '.

A

B

C

D

30 For the below circuit waveform for the input voltage is given. The diode in

circuit has cutin voltage Vγ = 0. Choose the option for the waveform of

output voltage '.

A

B

C

D

31 In the circuit of the following figure, D1 and D2 are ideal diodes. The

current ( and ( are

A 0, 4 mA B 4 mA, 0

C 0, 8 mA D 8 mA,

32 For the circuit shown the figure given below the input voltage '. Assume

the RC time constant large and cut-in voltage of diode ) = 0. The

output voltage ' is

A

B

C

D

33 In the circuit of the figure given below, the diodes have cut-in voltages of

0.6 V. The diode in ON state are

A only D1 B only D2

C both D1 and D2 D none of the above

34 For the circuit shown in the figure below, diode cut-in voltage ) = 0. The

maximum ripple voltage is 4 V. The minimum load resistance, that can

be connected to the output is

A 6.25 kΩ B 12.50 kΩ

C 25 kΩ D None of the above

35 In the voltage regulator circuit in figure given below the maximum load

current (+ that can be drawn is

A 1.4 mA B 2.3 mA

C 1.8 mA D 2.6 mA

36 A Tunnel diode is p-n diode with

A very high doping in p-region B very high doping in n-region

C very high doping in both

p-region and n-region D

low doping in both p-region

and n-region

37 In a Tunnel diode, the depletion width is order of

A 100 A0 B 0.1 micron

C 1 micron D 5 micron

38 In a Tunnel diode, the impurity concentration is of the order of

A 1 in 103 B 1 in 10

5

C 1 in 107 D 1 in 10

9

39 The most important application of Tunnel diode is

A as rectifier B as switching device in digital

circuits

C as voltage controllable

device D as oscillator

40 In a Varactor diode using the alloy junction, the transition capacitance is

proportional to (where is the magnitude of reverse junction voltage)

A B 1

C 1, D

1

41 Zener breakdown results basically due to

A impact ionization B strong electric field across the

junction

C emission of electrons D high thermal energy of the

electrons

42 The dynamic resistance of the Zener diode

A increases with increase of

its current B

decreases with the increase of

current

C is almost independent of

current D none of these

43 At 250

C, a Zener diode is rated at 2 Watts, its power rating at 500

C will

be

A 2 Watts B 1 Watts

C greater than 2 Watts D much greater than 2 Watts

44 The ON resistance rd ON , of an FET is the ratio :

A -./0. at the origin B

-./0. in the saturation region

C

∆-./∆0. in the saturation

region D

-2/0. at the origin

45 The saturation Drain current 3 in an FET equals

A 33 41 − 536 7 B 33 41 − 536 7

C 33 891 − 536 : D 33 41 − 536 7

46 The transconduction ; of an FET in the saturation region equals

A −2 33 6 41 − 536 7 B −2 33 6 41 − 536 7

C −2 33 6 41 − 536 7/ D

6 <33. >/

47 Input resistance of a JFET is of order of

A 1 kΩ B 10 kΩ

C 10 MΩ D 100 MΩ

48 Main drawback of a JFET is

A high input impedance B low input impedance

C higher noise D lower gain

49 In a PNP transistor operating in the active region, the concentration of

minority carrier holes in the n-region at collector junction JC is

A zero B thermal equilibrium value ?of emitter

C

thermal equilibrium

concentration of holes in

collector region

D same as junction JE

50 As the magnitude of the collector junction reverse bias increases, the

effective base width

A increases B decreases

C remain same D first increases then becomes

constant

51 Transistor α approaches unity when :

(Where @A and @B are the conductivities of Base and Emitter regions

respectively)

A @A@B = 1 B

@A@B ≫ 1

C @A@B ≪ 1 D

@A@B = 5

52 In a BJT , as the conductivity of the base increases, the punch through

voltage

A remains same B increases

C decreases D

may increase or decrease

depending on the bias at

junction JE

53 The dynamic emitter resistance of a BJT operating in the active region is

of the order of

A 0.01 Ω B 1 Ω

C 100 Ω D 10 kΩ

54 In a BJT the, F may be expressed in terms of G as

A G1 + G B

G1 − G

C 1 + G G D

1 − G G

55 In cut off region operation of BJT

(where JE and JC are the Emitter and Collector junctions respectively)

A both JE and JC are

forward biased B

both JE and JC are reversed

biased

C JE is forward bias and JC

is reversed biased D

JC is forward bias and JE is

reversed biased

56 In a BJT, with HI = 1 JK and G = 0.99 the value of HBI is

A 0.01 JK B 0.1 JK

C 1 JK D 100 JK

57 In a BJT, with G = 0.98 the value of F is

A 49 B 98

C 0.49 D 980

58 In a BJT, with F = 100 the value of G is

A 99 B 0.99

C 1.0 D 1.01

59 In a BJT, the spreading resistance is in the order of

A 10 Ω B 100 Ω

C 1 Ω D 1 kΩ

60 In a transistor current HAI flows in

A base and emitter leads B collector and emitter leads

C base and collector leads D emitter, base and collector

leads

61 In an ideal BJT, the impurity concentration in the emitter (E) , base (B) and

collector (C) are such that

A E > C > B B B > C > E

C C > E > B D E = C > B

62 The ‘h’ parameter equivalent circuit of BJT is valid for

A high frequency, large

signal operation B

low frequency, large signal

operation

C high frequency, small

signal operation D

low frequency, small signal

operation

63 The Ebers-Moll equation for B in CB configuration is given by

A B = G H + HBI B B = G H + HI

C B = G H + HINOP-QR/S − 1T D B = G H + HBINOP-QR/S− 1>

64 Typical values of h-parameters, at about 1 mA collector current , for small

signal audio transistors in CE configuration are:

A

ℎV = 100 ℎV = 10W ℎXV = 50 ℎV = 1 JY

B ℎV = 5 Z ℎV = 10W[

ℎXV = 200 ℎV = 20 JY

C

ℎV = 5 Z ℎV = 0 ℎXV = 20 ℎV = 3 JY

D ℎV = 100 Z ℎV = 10

ℎXV = 100 ℎV = 10 JY

65 The modulation of effective base width by collector voltage is known as

Early voltage. Hence, reverse collector voltage

A increases both α and β B decreases both α and β

C increases α and

decreases β D increases β and decreases α

66 The common emitter short circuit current gain β of a transistor

A

is a monotonically

increasing function of the

collector current IC

B

is a monotonically decreasing

function of the collector

current IC

C

increases with IC for low

IC reaches maximum and

then decreases

D is not a function of IC

67 The G - cut off frequency of a BJT

A increases with the

increase in base width B

increases with the increase in

collector width

C increases with the

increase in temperature D

increases with the decrease in

base width

68 A single IC contains more than 110 logic gates. This forms a case of

A SSI B MSI

C LSI D VLSI

69 In a JFET the amplification factor J, transconduction ; , and the dynamic

drain resistance \ are related by

A J = ; \ B J = \;

C J = ; . \ D J = ; . \

70 The transconductance ; of a JFET is of the order of

A 1 mS B 1 S

C 100 S D 1000 S

71 The dynamic resistance \ of the JFET is of the order of the

A 1 kΩ B 10 kΩ

C 500 kΩ D 100 MΩ

72 The dynamic resistance \ of the MOSFET is of the order of the

A 10 kΩ B 500 kΩ

C 10 MΩ D 100 MΩ

73 The magnitude of the threshold voltage for enhancement mode

MOSFET is of the order of

A 0.01 V B 1 V

C 10 V D 100 V

74 Which is the fastest switching device among the below given

A JFET B BJT

C MOSFET D Triode

75 The JFET can operate in

A depletion mode only B enhancement mode only

C either in depletion mode

or enhancement mode D

both in depletion mode or

enhancement mode

simultaneously

76 The input gate current of FET is

A a few amperes B a few miliamperes

C afew microamperes D negligibly small

77 Which of the following transistor is most vulnerable against ESD

(Elecrostatic discharge)

A NPN transistor B PNP transistor

C JFET D MOSFET

78 A field effect transistor (FET)

A has three p-n junctions B uses a forward biased junction

C

depends on the variation

the magnetic field for its

operation

D

depends on the variation the

reverse voltage for its

operation

79 The drain-source output 3 − 3 characteristic of an n-channel

depletion FET has

A 3 = 0 at 53 = 0 B 3 = ?]^(_('O `a(`b`

at 53 = 0

C 3 = O;a_('O `a(`b`

at 53 = 0 D 3 is independent of 53

80 The V-I characteristics of an enhancement mode MOSFET has

A only an ohmic region B only a saturation region

C

an ohmic region at low

voltages and saturation

region at higher voltages

D

an ohmic region at higher

voltages and saturation region

at lower voltages

81 The output V-I characteristics of a BJT has

A only an ohmic region B only a saturation region

C

an ohmic region at low

voltages and saturation

region at higher voltages

D

an ohmic region at higher

voltages and saturation region

at lower voltages

82 A Schottky diode clamp is used along with the BJT for

A reducing the power

dissipation B reducing the switching time

C increasing the value of F D reducing the base current

84 For an n-channel JFET having drain –source voltage constant if the gate-

source voltage is increased (more negative) pinch-off would occur for

A high values of drain

current B

saturation value of drain

current

C zero drain current D gate current equal to drain

current

85 A MOSFET is called

A 2-terminal device B 3-terminal device

C 4-terminal device D 5-terminal device

86 For MOSFETs, the material used for gate structure is

A highly pure Silicon B high purity Silica

C heavily doped

polycrystalline Silicon D

heavily doped amorphous

Silicon

87 Consider the following statements:

The Threshold Voltage (> of a n-MOSFET can be lowered by

1. Using thinner gate oxide

2. Reducing the substrate concentration

3. Increasing the substrate concentration

Of these statements

A 3 alone is correct B 1 and 2 is correct

C 1 and 3 are correct D 2 alone is correct

88 The Threshold Voltage (> of a n-MOSFET can be increased by

A increasing the channel

dopant concentration B

decreasing the channel

dopant concentration

C reducing the gate oxide

thickness D reducing the channel length

89 Which of the following methods of biasing provides the best operating

point stability

A two battery bias B collector-to-base bias

C fixed bias D self bias

90 Stability factor S in fixed bias CE amplifier is given by

A F B F + 1

C 1F + 1 D <F + 1>

91 Stability factor S in self bias CE amplifier is given by

A <F + 1> 1 + cd cVe

<F + 1> + cd cVe B

<F + 1><F + 1> + cd cVe

C 1 + cd cVe<F + 1> + cd cVe D

<F + 1> cd cVe<F + 1> + cd cVe

92 The thermal resistance f of collector junction of a transistor is given by

(where ∆g = temperature deviation and h = average power dissipation

A ∆g = fh B ∆g = hf

C ∆g = fh D ∆g = fh

93 In a CE amplifier, the thermal runaway is unconditionally avoided if

A HB = HH2 B HB > HH2

C HB < HH2 D HB = HH√2

94 The parameter ℎV of a typical transistor is of the order of

A 2.5 10Wk B 2.5 10Wl

C 2.5 10W[ D 2.5 10W

95 The parameter ℎV of a typical transistor is of the order of

A 2.5 µS B 25 µS

C 250 µS D 2.5 mS

96 With source resistance RS of 1000Ω, the output impedance of a typical CE

amplifier stage is of the order of

A 500 Ω B 5 kΩ

C 50 kΩ D 500 kΩ

97 With load resistance of 4 kΩ, the current gain of a typical CB amplifier

stage is of the order of

A 0.98 B 5

C 50 D 250

98 In a CE amplifier stage, on introducing a resistor Re in the emitter branch

the input resistance Ri

A remains same B increases nominally

C decreases D increases very much

99 Ignoring the biasing network, Darlington emitter follower has input

resistance of the order of

A 20 kΩ B 200 kΩ

C 2 MΩ D 20 MΩ

100 The current gain of the amplifier stage is lowest in

A CB configuration B CE configuration

C CC configuration D same in all configurations

101 Transistor amplifier stage has lowest input impedance

A CB configuration B CE configuration

C CC configuration D same in all configurations

102 Current gain of small signal transistor amplifier equals

A −ℎX1 + ℎm+ B

ℎX1 + ℎm+

C −ℎ1 + ℎm+ D

ℎ1 + ℎm+

103 Common collector amplifier has

(where c is input resistance and cI is output resistance)

A high c and high cI B low c and low cI

C high c and low cI D low c and high cI

104 The current stability of an emitter follower may improved by

A

decreasing emitter circuit

and base circuit

resistances

B increasing emitter circuit and

base circuit resistances

C

decreasing emitter circuit

and increasing base circuit

resistances

D

increasing emitter circuit and

decreasing base circuit

resistances

105 Output resistance of CC amplifier

A is higher than in CE and CB

configuration B

depends strongly on the

source resistance

C is lower than in CE and CB

configuration D

is independent of the source

resistance

106 In CC amplifier

A output is taken from the

collector terminal B

input and output signals are in

phase

C input resistance is low D voltage gain is relatively high

107 In the high frequency hybrid – π model of CE transistor, the conductance ;dnVequals

A ℎXV; B

; ℎXV

C ; ℎV D

ℎV;

108 In the high frequency hybrid – π model of CE transistor, the base

spreading \ddn Oquals

A ℎV − \dnV B ℎV + \dnV

C ℎV/ ℎXV D \dnV/ ℎXV

109 In the high frequency hybrid – π model of CE transistor, the typical value

of CC is

A 3 pF B 100 pF

C 1000 pF D 0.01 µF

110 The frequency %oat which the short circuit current gain of a CE amplifier

falls to 1 √2⁄ of its low frequency value is equal to

A ;dVn2#<qH + qV> B

;dVn<qH + qV>

C ; ℎXV⁄<qH + qV> D

qH + qV ;dVn

111 Parameter % of a transistor is approximately given by

A ; qV B

; 2#qV

C 2#q; D

ℎXV%o

112 In the high frequency hybrid – π model of CE transistor, the conductance ;d$ accounts for

A bulk conduction of base

region B

leakage conductance in the

base region

C feedback action due to

base width modulation D none of these

113 As collector current IC increases the values of %

A remains constant B decreases

C increases, reaches

maximum and then falls D

decreases, reaches minimum

and then rise

114 In class-AB amplifier with sinusoidal input , the output current flows for

A half the cycle B full cycle

C slightly Less than half

cycle D slightly more than half cycle

115 In RC coupled two stage CE amplifier, reduction in voltage gain at the

high frequency range results due to

A coupling capacitor Cc B shunt capacitance in the input

circuit

C shunt capacitance in the

output circuit D

bypass capacitor in the self

bias circuit

116 In RC coupled single stage CE amplifier, the lower 3-dB frequency %+ may

be reduced by

A reducing the value of

coupling capacitor Cc B

increasing the value of

coupling capacitor Cc

C

reducing the total

effective shunt

capacitance in the output

circuit of the hybrid-π

model

D

reducing the total effective

shunt capacitance in the input

circuit of the hybrid-π model

117 The upper 3-dB frequency of n-stage amplifier with non-interacting

stages equals

A %+,2 ⁄ − 1 B %+,2 ⁄ − 1

C %+ D %+

118 The presence of emitter circuit bypass resistance adversely affects the

A low frequency response B mid-band response

C high frequency response D response over all frequency

range

119 When multistage amplifier the coupling method which is capable of

providing highest gain is

A RC coupling B Direct coupling

C Transformer coupling D Impedance coupling

120 In the output of a Push-Pull amplifier most disturbing harmonic distortion

is the

A fundamental frequency

distortion B first harmonic

C third harmonic D fourth harmonic

121 Which of the following amplifier produces least distortion

A Class-A B Class-B

C Class-C D Class-AB

122 Which of the following amplifier produces highest distortion

A Class-A B Class-B

C Class-C D Class-AB

123 Compared to single ended amplifier, a push-pull amplifier offers

A less distortion and less

output power B

less distortion and more

output power

C more distortion and less

output power D

more distortion and more

output power

124 In a class-C amplifier, full cycle conduction of the current can be achieved

by employing

A transformers B Push-pull circuit

C Tuned circuit D Complementary pair

125 In a feedback amplifier, de-sensitivity D equals

A KF B 1 − KF

C 1 + KF D 11 + KF

126 In a negative feedback amplifier, current sampling

A

tends to decrease the

output resistance B

tends to increase the output

resistance

C does not change the

output resistance D

produces same effect on the

output resistance as voltage

sampling

127 FET source follower is a negative feedback amplifier using

A Voltage series feedback B Current series feedback

C Voltage shunt feedback D Current shunt feedback

128 BJT RC phase shift oscillator has angular frequency of oscillation ω equals

A 1cq B

3cq 1√6 + 4

C 1cq 1√29 D

1cq 1√6 + 4

129 In BJT Colpitts oscillator angular frequency of oscillation ω equals

A tu B

tu1 − vw.vxyzy|

C

tu1 + vw.vxyzy|

D

tu1 − yzy|vw.vx

130 For sustained oscillations in BJT RC phase shift oscillator with 3-sections

of RC network, the required transistor ℎXV is given by (where = ~ )

A ℎXV > 29 B ℎXV > 44 + 23 + 29 7

C ℎXV > 44 + 29 7 D ℎXV > 4 23 + 29 7

131 Following compensation method in amplifier leads to reduction in

bandwidth

A Lead compensation B Pole-zero compensation

C Miller effect

compensation D Dominant pole compensation

132 In circuit shown in figure below, the input voltage ' is 0.2 V. The output

voltage 'I is

A 6 V B 8 V

C -6 V D -8 V

133 Consider the circuit shown below, If ' = 2 V, then output 'I is

A 4 V B 6 V

C -3 V D -6 V

134 Frequency at which the gain of the Op-Amp is zero dB called

A crossover frequency B Unity gain crossover

frequency

C Gain margin D Phase margin

135 For the Op-Amp circuit shown in the figure, 'I is

A -2 V B -1 v

C -0.5 V D 0.5 V

136 For the BJT circuit shown, assume that the F of the transistor is very large

and AB = 0.7 . The mode of operation of the BJT is

A cut-off B saturation

C normal active D reverse active

137 The circuit below forms

A active positive clipper B logarithmic amplifier

C active peak detector D active half wave rectifier

138 For the circuit in figure A = H and F = 50. The value of A is

A 0.9 V B 1.19 V

C 2.14 V D 2.84 V

139 The Ton time for the 555 based astable multivibrator is

A 0.69 <c + 2cA>. q B 0.69 <c + cA>. q

C 0.69 cA. q D 1.44cAq

140 Frequency of the waveform generated in 555 based astable multivirator

can be given by

A 1.44 / <c + 2cA>. q B 1.44 / <c + cA>. q

C cA. q D 1.44cAq

141 On time for the pulse when monostable multivibrator triggered can be

given by

A 1.34 c. q B 1.1 c. q

C c. q D 1.7 c. q

142 Relaxation oscillator is one which

A produces non-sinusoidal

output B oscillates continuously

C has two stable states D none of the above

143 A transistor is said to be in quiescent state when

A it is unbiased B no signal is applied to it

C no current is flowing

through it D

emitter junction bias equal to

collector junction bias

144 Effect of cascading several amplifier stages is to

A reduce the overall gain B

reduce overall frequency

response

C

increase overall gain and

reduce the frequency

response

D

decrease overall gain and

increase the frequency

response

145 Comparator circuits are used in

A summing B integrating

C differentiating D converting sine to square

wave

146 In a multistage amplifier, the intermediate stages are always in

A CB configuration B CE configuration

C CC configuration D any configuration

147 A CB amplifier is characterized by

A low Ai , high AV B low Ai , low AV

C high Ai , high AV D high Ai , low AV

148 Capacitor filter is ideal for currents which are

A small B medium

C large D very large

149 Negative feedback in an amplifier results in

A more gain, more

bandwidth B more gain, less bandwidth

C less gain, more bandwidth D less gain, less bandwidth

150 Schmitt trigger circuit is also called

A squaring circuit B blocking oscillator

C sweep circuit D astable multivibrator

1 Resistances can be measured with the help of

A wattmeters B voltmeters

C ammeters D ohmmeters and resistance bridges

2 An ammeter is a

A secondary instrument B absolute instrument

C recording instrument D integrating instrument

3 The multiplier and the meter coil in a voltmeter are in

A series B parallel

C series-parallel D none of the above

4 A potentiometer may be used for

A measurement of

resistance B measurement of current

C calibration of ammeter D all of the above

5 An ohmmeter is a

A moving iron instrument B moving coil instrument

C dynamometer instrument D none of the above

6 For measuring a very high resistance we should use

A Kelvin's double bridge B Wheat stone bridge

C Meggar D None of the above

7 Which of the following devices should be used for accurate measurement of low D.C.

Voltage

A Small range moving coil

voltmeter B D.C. potentiometer

C Small range thermocouple

voltmeter D None of the above

8 A direct current can be measured by

A a D.C. potentiometer

directly B

a D.C. potentiometer in conjunction with

a standard resistance

C

a D.C. potentiometer in

conjunction with a volt

ratio box

D none of the above

9 Basically a potentiometer is a device for

A comparing two voltages B measuring a current

C comparing two currents D measuring a voltage

10 In an Anderson bridge, the unknown inductance is measured in terms of

A known inductance and

resistance B known capacitance and resistance

C known resistance D known inductance

11 For measurements on high voltage capacitors, the suitable bridge is

A Wein bridge B Modified De Santy's bridge

C Schering bridge D Any of the above

12 For measurement of mutual inductance we can use

A Anderson bridge B Maxwell's bridge

C Heaviside bridge D Any of the above

13 If the current in a capacitor leads the voltage by 80°, the loss angle of the capacitor is

A 10° B 80°

C 120° D 170°

14 In a Schering bridge the potential of the detector above earth potential is

A a few volts only B 1 kV

C 5 kV D 10 kV

15

If an inductance is connected in one arm of bridge and resistances in the remaining

three arms

A the bridge can always be

balanced B the bridge cannot be balanced

C

the bridge can be balanced

if the resistances have

some specific values

D Any of the above

16 Systematic errors are

A instrumental errors B environmental errors

C observational errors D all of the above

17 Standard resistor is made from

A platinum B maganin

C silver D nichrome

18 Commonly used standard capacitor is

A spherical type B concentric cylindrical type

C electrostatic type D multilayer parallel plate type

19 For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use

A Maxwell's bridge B Maxwell Wein bridge

C Hay's bridge D Any of the above

20 Volt box is a component to

A extend voltage range B measure voltage

C compare voltage in a box D none of the above

21 Wattmeter cannot be designed on the principle of

A electrostatic instrument B thermocouple instrument

C moving iron instrument D electrodynamic instrument

22 “Qualitative results” refer to:

A

Results that can be

observed during an

experiment.

B Results that are difficult to observe

during an experiment.

C Results that require

numerical data. D none of these is correct.

23 The unit of sensitivity is

A Volt B Ohm

C Volt/Ohm D Ohm/Volt

24 The basic PMMC movement is often called D’Arsonval movement is used to measure

A DC only B AC only

C Both DC & AC D None of the above

25 The ratio of the change in output of the instrument to a change in input is known as

A Precision B Sensitivity

C Resolution D Accuracy

26 The deviation of the true value from the desired value is known as

A Expected value B Output value

C Error D Input value

27 Which of the following are integrating instruments

A Ammeters B Voltmeters

C Wattmeters D Ampere-hour and watt-hour meters

28 Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument

A Deflecting device B Controlling device

C Damping device D All of the above

29 A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as _____ by using a low

resistance shunt.

A ammeter B voltmeter

C flux-meter D flux-meter

30 A _____ device prevents the oscillation of the moving system and enables the latter

to

reach its final position quickly

A deflecting B controlling

C damping D any of the above

31 A moving-coil permanent-magnet instrument can be used as flux-meter

A by using a low resistance

shunt B by using a high series resistance

C by eliminating the control

springs D

by making control springs of large

moment of inertia

32 Which of the following devices may be used for extending the range of instruments

A Shunts B Multipliers

C Current transformers D All of the above

33 In majority of instruments damping is provided by

A fluid friction B spring

C eddy currents D all of the above

34 An ammeter is a

A secondary instrument B secondary instrument

C secondary instrument D integrating instrument

35 Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.

A Active B Passive

C Secondary D Inverse

36 Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of

A Active transducers B Passive transducers

C Analog transducers D Primary transducers

37 A strain gauge is a passive transducer and is employed for converting

A Mechanical displacement

into a change of resistance B Pressure into a change of resistance

C Force into a displacement D Force into a displacement

38 Piezo – electric transducers work when we apply _____________ to it.

A Mechanical force B Vibrations

C Illuminations D Heat

39 In a LVDT, the two secondary voltage

A Are independent of the

core position B Vary unequally depending on the core

position

C Vary equally depending on the core position

D Are always in phase quadrature

40 The application of LVDT is

A Joint motion B Finger movement

C Limb movement D Heart wall motion

41 The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.

A Remains unaltered B Increases

C Reaches maximum D Decreases

42 Which of the following is a digital transducer

A Strain gauge B Encoder

C Thermistor D LVDT

43 The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of

A Self inductance

B Mutual inductance

C Reluctance D Permanence

44 S1: Transducer is a device which converts physical into electrical quantity.

S2: Transducer is also called as sensor.

A S1 is true & S2 is false B S2 is true & S1 is false

C Both S1 & S2 are true D Both S1 & S2 are false

45 The principle of operation of variable resistance transducer is

A Deformation leads to

change in resistance B

Displacement of a contact slider on a

resistance

C

Coupling of two coils

changes with

displacement

D Movement of magnetic field produces

variation in resistance of material

46 _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell

A LDR B Photo diode

C Photo transistor D Photo multiplier

47 B-H Curve is used to determination of:

A Hysteresis loss B Iron loss

C Eddy current loss D Both (a) and (b

48 In CRO the time base signal is applied to

A Y-plates B X-plates

C Either X-plate or Y-plate D Both X-plate and Y-plate

49 The main advantage of crystal oscillator is that its output is

A A Constant frequency

range B DC

C 50 Hz to 60 Hz D Variable frequency

50

Hay’s Bridge is suitable for the measurement of:

A Inductances with Q>10 B Inductances with Q<10

C Capacitors with high

dissipation factor D Capacitors with low dissipation factor

51

A 0 - 100 V volteter has 200 scale divisions which can be read to 1/2 division.

Determine the resolutin of the meter in volt.

A 0.60 V B 1 V

C 0.92 V D 0.25 V

52

Illumination is measured using which one of the following?

A Millivoltmeter B Stroboscope

C Luxmeter D pH meter

53

Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?

A Force B Velocity

C Sound D Pressure

54

Which of the following is a digital transducer?

A Strain gauge B Encoder

C Thermistor D LVDT

55

The difference between the measured value and the true value is

called

A gross error B relative error

C probable error D absolute error

56

The device used to indicate the presence of an electric current is

A Electrometer B Galvanometer

C Voltmeter D Coulometer

57

An average-reading digital multimeter reads 10V when fed with a triangular wave,

symmetric about the time-axis.For the same input an rms-reading meter will read

A 20/√3 B 10/√3

C 20√3 D 10√3

58

A voltmeter should have

A Low internal resistance B High internal resistance

C Electrostatic plates D A sensitive amplifier

59

The pressure coil of a dynamo meter type wattmeter is

A Highly inductive B Highly resistive

C Purely resistive D Purely inductive

60

The two inputs of a CRO are fed with two stationary periodic signals. In the X-Y mode,

the screen shows a figure which changes from ellipse to circle and back to ellipse with

its major axis changing orientation slowly and repeatedly. The following inference can

be made from this.

A The signals are not sinusoidal B The amplitudes of the signals are very

close but not equal

C

The signals are sinusoidal with

their frequencies very close but

not equal

D

There is a constant but small phase

difference between the signals

61

In two watt meter method of power measurement, if one of the watt meter shows

zero reading, then it can be concluded that

A Power factor is unity B Power factor is zero

C Power factor is 0.5 lagging D Power factor is 0.5 leading

62

A thermocouple

A Gets warm when dc flows

through it B

Is a thin, straight, special wire

C Generates ac when heated

D Generates dc when exposed to

visible light

63

The shunt type ohm meter is not suitable for high resistance measurements because

A

Very low resistance of the meter

would short the high unknown

resistance

B Scale is highly cramped for high

resistance

C Full scale value of the meter may

be exceeded

D Battery cannot supply the necessary

current for proper meter deflection

64

The change in value of an analog signal during the conversion process produces what

is called the

A quantization error B resolution error

C Nyquist error D sampling error

65

Which of the following performance specifications applies to a sample-and-hold

circuit?

A Aperture time B Aperture droop

C Feedback D Acquisition jitter

66 Telemetry may be defined as,

A Drawing graph B Indicating direction

C Calculating length D Measuring at a distance

67

Converting the deflection of an insrument in to impulses of proportional frequency is

known as

A Frequency modulation B Pulse amplitude modulation system

C Impulse counting system D Impulse frequency system

68

Strain guage converts

A Mechanical displacement in to a

change in resistance B

Resistance in to a change in

mechanical displacement

C Current in to a change in

resistance D None of this

69

In CRT the amount of cathod current, which governs the intensity of the spot, can be

controlled with

A The spot screw B Holding switch

C The control grid D First anode

70

In oscilloscope tube electron gun the beam is accelerated to the final velocity by a

A Quadrupole lens B Increasing current

C Control grid D Deflection plates

71

The power factor is the cosine of the angle between

A Voltage and curent B Current and inductance

C Voltage and frequency D All of above

72

A 1 - mA meter movement with an internal resistance of 100 Ω is to be converted in

to a 0 - 100 mA ammeter. The value of the shunt resistance required is

A 9.10 Ω B 1.01 Ω

C 0 Ω D 10 Ω

73 Relation of averae value and the rms value of time varying voltages and currents is

A Power factor B Form factor

C Phase value D None of this

74

Desirable value of temperature coefficient of resistance (α) in resistance temperature

detectors is

A Low B High

C Value does not affect sensitivity D None of this

75

Unit of deflection sensitivity of CRT is

A Meter/Volt B Volts

C Volts/Meter D Volts/Time

76

What is crest factor in true rms responding voltmeter

A Ratio of rms value to peak value B Ratio of value of current to rms value

C Ratio of value of current to value

of peak value D Ratio of peak value to rms value

77

The output voltage of a typical thermocouple is

A Less than 100 mV B Greater than 1 V

C Thermocouples vary resistance,

not voltage D None of this

78

What is the zero-voltage switch used for?

A For extremely low-voltage

applications B

To provide power to a circuit when

power is lost

C To control low-voltage circuits D

To reduce radiation of high

frequencies during turn-on of a high

current to a load

79

Temperature sensing can be achieved by the use of

A Thermocouples B RTDs

C thermistors D All of the above

80

The purpose of compensation for a thermocouple is

A to decrease temperature

sensitivity B to increase voltage output

C to cancel unwanted voltage

output of a thermocouple D used for high-temperature circuits

81 Self generating type transducers are ___________ transducers.

A Active B Secondary

C Passive D Inverse

82 Which of the following instrument can be used for both ac and dc

A PMMC type B Moving-iron type

C Induction type D None of the above

83 Electrostatic instruments are mainly employed to measure:

A Heavy currents B Low voltages

C Low currents D High voltages

84 Measurement range of a voltmeter can be extended by using:

A High current resistance B Low shunt resistance

C High series resistance D Low series resistance

85 _____________ is the example of photo emissive cell

A LDR B Photo transistor

C Photo diode D Photo multiplier

86 The instrument which is cheapest for dc measurement is:

A Moving iron B Hot-wire

C PMMC D Electro-dynamo

87 LVDT windings are wound on

A Steel sheets B Ferrite

C Aluminium D Copper

88

Which of the following can be measured with the help of piezo electric crystal?

A Force B Sound

C Velocity D Pressure

89 Swamping of resistance is used to compensate error due to:

A Stray magnetic field B Large supply variations

C Temperature variations D None of the above

90 Strain gauge, LVDT and thermocouple are examples of

A Active transducers B Analog transducers

C Passive transducers D Primary transducers

91

Certain type of materials generates an electrostatic charge or voltage when

mechanical force is applied across them. Such materials are called

A Piezo-electric B Thermo-electric

C Photo-electric D Photo-resistive

92

The principle of operation of LVDT is based on the variation of

A Self inductance B Reluctance

C Mutual inductance D Permanence

93 A transducer that converts measurand into the form of pulse is called

A Active transducer B Digital transducer

C Analog transducer D Pulse transducer

94 An inverse transducer is a device which converts

A An electrical quantity into a non

electrical quantity B

Electrical energy into thermal energy

C Electrical quantity into mechanical

quantity D

Electrical energy into light energy

95 The internal resistance for milli ammeter must be very low for:

A High sensitivity

B Maximum voltage drop across the

meter

C High accuracy

D Minimum voltage drop across the

meter

96 Potentiometer is an __ instrument:

A Indicating B Calibrating

C Comparison D Recording

97 Piezo electric crystal can produce an emf

A When external mechanical force is

applied to i B

When external magnetic field is

applied

C When radiant energy stimulates

the crystal D

When the junction of two such

crystals are heated

98 Which of the following bridge is frequency sensitive:

A Wheatstone bridge B Anderson bridge

C Maxwell bridge D Wien bridge

99 In wire wound strain gauges, the change in resistance is due to

A change in diameter of the wire

B Change in both length and diameter

C Change in length of the wire

D Change in resistivity

100 Voltmeter should be of very high resistance so that:

A Its range is high

B It may draw current minimum

possible

C Its accuracy is high D Its sensitivity is high

101

The resistance of LDR ________________ when exposed to radiant energy.

A Remains unaltered B Reaches maximum

C Increases D Decreases

102 Direct current is preferred over alternating current for testing of ac transmission lines

and cables because:

A

Heavy charging currents will be

drawn and so a large sized

transformer is required if tested

with ac

B

The transformers required for

testing cannot be used for long

distances

C b) Transmission lines and cables

should not be tested with dc D

All the above

103 The capacitance microphone is used for the detection of

A Heart rate B Heart sound

C Blood flow D Foot pressure

104 The application of LVDT is

A Joint motion B Limb movement

C Finger movement D Heart wall motion

105 A Ohmmeter is basically:

A ammeter B A multimeter

A voltmeter D None of the above

106 Pressure transducer for measuring blood pressure is

A Strain gauge transducer only B Resistive transducer

C Strain gauge or capacitive

transducer D

Fiber optic transducer

107 Test electrode is also known as

A a) Indicator electrode B c) Second electrode

C b) Reference electrode D d) Primary electrode

108 A moving iron ammeter coil has few turns of thick wire in order to have:

A a) High sensitivity

B c) Low resistance and large current

carrying capacity

C b) Effective damping D d) Large scale

109 A thermo-couple instrument can be used for the measurement of:

A a) Direct current only

B c) Both direct current and

alternating current

C b) Alternating current only D d) dc/ac voltage only

110 Capacitive transducers are normally employed for___________ measurements

A a) Static B c) Transient

C b) Dynamic D d) Both static and dynamic

111 Which of the following is a digital transducer?

A a) Strain gauge B c) Thermistor

C b) Encoder D d) LVDT

1

Aluminum is a

A Diamagnetic material B Ferromagnetic material

C Paramagnetic material D Dielectric material

2

Relative permeability of Aluminum is

A 1.00000065 B 1.00000079

C 1.00004 D 1.0001

3 Boltzmann constant is

A 1.381 X 1023

J/K B 1.381 X 10-23

J/K

C 1.381 X 1023

V/K D 1.381 X 10-23

V/K

4 Conductivity of Silver used in wave guide is ____mho/meter

A 3.82 X 107 B 4.10 X 107

C 5.80 X 107 D 6.17 X 10

7

5

Conductivity of Gold used in wave guide is ____mho/meter

A 3.82 X 107 B 4.10 X 10

7

C 5.80 X 107 D 6.17 X 10

7

6

IEEE microwave frequency band Ku is in ______GHz range

A 8.000 – 12.000 B 12.000 – 18.000

C 18.000 – 27.000 D 27.000 – 40.000

7 IEEE microwave frequency band X is in ______GHz range

A 8.000 – 12.000 B 12.000 – 18.000

C 18.000 – 27.000 D 27.000 – 40.000

8 A conductor of _____ conductivity and ____ permeability has low intrinsic

impedance.

A Low, Low B Low, High

C High, Low D High, High

9 Principle advantage of microwaves over low frequency is

A Increased bandwidth B Increased privacy

C Ability to use high gain,

high directivity antenna

D All of the above

10 Microwave links are preferred for TV transmission because

A Of small S/N ratio B They produce less phase

distortion

C They are relatively

cheaper

D They are free from impulse

noise

11 Rain drop attenuation in most microwave link is caused due to

A Scattering of microwaves

by water drops of specific

size

B. Scattering of microwaves by a

collection of droplets acting of

a single body

C Absorption of microwave

by water consequent

heating of the liquid

D Absorption of microwaves by

water vapour in the

atmosphere

12 Standard mismatching in microwave circuits have SWR from

A 0.5 : 1 to 2 : 1 B 1 : 0 to 2 : 1

C 1.2 : 1 to 2 : 1 D 1.33 : 1 to 2 : 1

13 In microwave we take the elements as

A Lumped circuit element B Distributed circuit element

C Both a and b D None of the above

14 Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart

A Because of earth

curvature

B Because of atmospheric

attenuation

C Because of output tube

power limitations

D To ensure that the applied dc

voltage is not excessive

15 When the free-space wavelength of a signal equals the cut off

wavelength of guide

A The group velocity of the

signal becomes zero.

B The phase velocity of the

signal becomes infinite

C The wavelength within the

waveguide becomes

infinite

D All of the above

16 The front end of the amplifier chain in a manufacturer communication

system is kept immersed in liquid nitrogen, to

A Dissipate heat generated

by amplifier

B Expand its frequency response

C Improve its noise figure D Reduce the distortion by the

amplifier

17 Short-term fading in microwave communication links can be overcome by

A Increasing the

transmitting power

B Changing the antenna

C Changing the modulation

scheme

D Diversity reception and

transmission

18 The wavelength of microwave at 100GHz will be

A 3 cm B 0.3 cm

C 0.03 cm D 0.3 m

19 When microwave signals follows the curvature of the this is known as,

A Ducting B Farady effect

C Tropospheric scatter D Ionospheric reflection

20 Multicavity Klystron

A Is not microwave device B Is not good low level amplifier

because of noise

C Is not suited for pulse

operation

D Has a high repeller voltage to

ensure small transition time

21 A Reflex Klystron functions as

A Microwave oscillator B Microwave amplifier

C Both as microwave

amplifier and oscillator

D A high gain cavity

22 A Reflex klystron is capable of generating such high frequencies as

A 1000 MHz B 10000 MHz

C 100000 MHz D 8 GHz

23 Cylindrical cavity resonators are not used with klystron because they have

A Too low Q B Harmonically related resonant

frequency

C A shape not permitting

easy adjustment of

resonant frequency

D Are difficult to fabricate

24 The modes in a reflex klystron

A Give the same frequency

but different transit times

B Result from excessive transit

time across the resonator gap

C Are caused by spurious

frequency modulation

D Are just for theoretical

considerations

25 Which of the following microwave tube amplifier uses a coaxial magnetic

field and radial electric field?

A Coaxial magnetron B CFA

C Travelling wave

magnetron

D Reflex Klystron

26 The secondary cavity in a two cavity klystron is called the

A Buncher cavity B Catcher cavity

C Velocity modulation cavity D None of these

27 Klystron operates on the principle of

A Amplitude modulation B Frequency modulation

C Pulse modulation D Velocity modulation

28 The magnetic field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a circular coil of

diameter 1 meter and carrying current of 2 A is

A 8 B 4

C 3 D 2

29 The polarization of a dielectric material is given by

A → →

P =∈r E .

B → →

P = (∈r -1 )E .

C → →

P = E ∈0 (∈r −1)

D →

P = (∈r −1) ∈0

30 In a travelling electromagnetic wave, E and H vector fields are

A perpendicular in space . B parallel in space

C E is in the direction of

wave travel

D H is in the direction of wave

travel.

31 For a broad side linear array which of the following is not correct

A the maximum radiation

occurs perpendicular to

the line of the array at ф

=90

B the progressive phase shift (

α) between elements is zero.

C width of principal lobe is

less than that of an end

fire array.

D the maximum radiation occurs

along the line of array at ф =

90’

32 A wave is incident normally on a good conductor. If the frequency of a

plane electromagnetic

wave increases four times, the skin depth, will

A Increase by a factor of 2. B decrease by a factor of 4.

C remain the same. D decrease by a factor of 2.

33 In a dielectric-conductor boundary (interface), the tangential component

of electric field is

A Et B 2Et

C Zero D Infinite

34 For a transmission line terminated in its characteristic impedance, which

of the following statement is incorrect:

A It is a smooth line. B The energy distribution

between magnetic and electric

field is not equal.

C Standing wave does not

exist.

D Efficiency of transmission of

power is maximum.

35 For a line of characteristic impedance, ZO terminated in a load, ZR such

that ZR > ZO , the Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) is given by

A ZR/Z0 B Z0

C ZR D Z0/ZR

36 The lower cut-off frequency of a rectangular wave guide with inside

dimensions (3 × 4.5 cm) operating at 10 GHz is

A 10 GHz B 9 GHz

C 10/9 GHz D 10/3 GHz

37 The directive gain cannot be stated as

A the ratio of the radiation

intensity in that direction

to the average radiated

power.

B the function of angles

C the directivity of an

antenna when directive

gain is maximum.

D independent of angles

38 With respect to equi-potential surface pick the odd one out.

A Potential is same every

where

B Work done in moving charge

from one point to another is

zero

C Potential is different every

where

D No current flows on this

surface

39 The intrinsic impedance of free space is

A 75 ohm B 73 ohm

C 120 π ohm D 377 ohm

40 The characteristic impedance is given by

A Z0 =

B √

C √ . D Zsc. Zoc

41 Transverse electric wave travelling in z- direction satisfies

A Ez = 0; Hz = 0 B Ez = 0; Hz ≠ 0

C Ez ≠ 0; Hz = 0 D Ez 0; Hz ≠ 0.

42 Radiation resistance of a λ/2 dipole is

A 73 Ω B 75 ohm

C 120 π ohm D 377 ohm

43 In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between electric and

magnetic field vectors E and B is

A Zero B Π /2

C Π D Π / 4

44 Consider a transmission line of characteristic impedance 50 ohms and the

line is terminated at one end by +j50 ohms, the VSWR produced in the

transmission line will be

A + 1 B 0

C Infinite D -1

45 Which one of the following conditions will not guarantee a distortion less

transmission line

A R = 0 = G B RC = LG

C very low frequency range

(R>>wL, G >> wC)

D very high frequency range

(R<<wL, G << wC)

46 In a certain medium E = 10 Cos( t – 3y) ax V/m. What type of medium

is it?

A Free space B Lossy dielectric

C Lossless dielectric D Perfect conductor

47 Which of the following statements is not true of waves in general?

A It may be a function of

time only

B It may be sinusoidal or

cosinusoidal

C It may be a function of

time and space

D For practical reasons, it must

be finite in extent.

48 Plane y=0 carries a uniform current of 30 az mA/m. At (1, 10, –2), the

magnetic field intensity is

A –15 ax mA/m B 15 ax mA/m

C 477.5 a y μA/m D 18.85 a y nA/m

49 A loop is rotating about y-axis in a magnetic field B =B0 sin _t ax Wb/m2 .

The voltage induced in the loop is due to

A Motional emf B Transformer emf

C A combination of motional

& transformer emf

D None of the above

50 If ∇×D =Є ∇×E and ∇ × J = б ∇×E in a given material, the material is

said to be

A Linear B Homogeneous

C Isotropic D Linear & Homogeneous

51 Lorentz force law is

A F = QE B F = V*B

C F= Q(E + V*B) D F = Q (V*B)

52 For a transmission line terminated by a load, the reflection co-efficient

magnitude Γ and the voltage standing wave ration S are related as:

A S = 1 / (1+| Γ| ) B S = 1 / (1− |Γ| )

C S = (1− | Γ | ) / (1+| Γ | ) D S = (1+ | Γ | ) / (1− | Γ | )

53 For a rectangular wave guide, 2.5cm x 1.2cm, dominant cut off

wavelength is

A 5 cm B 2.5 cm

C 2.4 cm D 3.7 cm

54 If a line is terminated in an open circuit, the VSWR is

A 0 B 1

C Infinite D -1

55 A hollow rectangular waveguide acts as a

A High pass filter B Low pass filter

C Band pass filter D Low frequency radiator

56 Divergence theorem is applicable for

A static field only B time varying fields only

C both static and time

varying fields

D electric fields only

57 A uniform plane wave in air is incident normally on an infinitely thick slab.

If the refractive index of the glass slab is 1.5, then the percentage of the

incident power that is reflected from

the air-glass interface is

A 0 % B 4 %

C 20 % D 10 %

58 Some unknown material has a conductivity of mho/ m, and a

permeability of 4 * . The skin depth for the material at 1 GHz

A 15.9 um B 20.9 um

C 25.9 um D 30.9 um

59 The radio wave is incident on layer of ionosphere at an angle of 30’ with

the vertical. If the critical frequency is 1.2 MHz, the maximum usable

frequency (MUF) is

A 1.2 MHz B 2.4 MHz

C 0.6 MHz D 1.386 MHz

60 A transmission line with a characteristic impedance 1 Z is connected to a

transmission line with characteristic impedance 2 Z . If the system is being

driven by a generator connected to the first line, then the overall

transmission coefficient will be

A +

B +

C +

D +

61 A rectangular waveguide has dimension 1.0 cm×0.5 cm, its cutoff

frequency for the dominant mode is

A 5 GHz B 10 GHz

C 15 GHz D 20 GHz

62 Poynting vector gives

A rate of energy flow. B direction of polarization

C intensity of electric field. D intensity of magnetic field.

63 In an-filled rectangular wave guide, the cutoff frequency of a TE10 mode is

5 GHz where as that of TE01 mode is 12 GHz. The dimensions of the guide

is

A 3 cm by 1.25 cm B 1.25 cm by 3 cm

C 6 cm by 2.5 cm D 2.5 cm by 6 cm

64 Consider a 150 m long air-filled hollow rectangular waveguide with cutoff

frequency 6.5 GHz. If a short pulse of 7.2 GHz is introduced into the input

end of the guide, the time taken by the pulse to return the input end is

A 920 ns B 460 ns

C 230 ns D 430 ns

65 A rectangular waveguide is filled with a polyethylene Є r=2.25 and

operates at 24 GHz. The cutoff frequency of a certain mode is 16 GHz. The

intrinsic impedance of this mode is

A 224.8 ohm B 337.2 ohm

C 421.4 ohm D 632.2 ohm

66 The cross section of a waveguide is shown in fig. It has dielectric

discontinuity as shown in fig. If the guide operate at 8 GHz in the

dominant mode, the standing wave ratio is

A -3.911 B 2.268

C 1.564 D 4.389

67 The air filled cavity resonator has dimension a = 3 cm, b = 2 cm, c=- 4 cm.

The resonant frequency for the TM110 mode is

A 5 GHz B 6.4 GHz

C 16.2 GHz D 9 GHz

68 Two identical rectangular waveguide are joined end to end where a = 2b.

One guide is air filled and other is filled with a lossless dielectric of Єr . it is

found that up to a certain frequency single mode operation can be

simultaneously ensured in both guide. For this frequency range, the

maximum allowable value of Єr is

A 4 B 2

C 1 D 6

69 A parallel-plate guide operates in the TEM mode only over the frequency

range0 < f< 3GHz. The dielectric between the plates is Teflon (Єr =21) .

The maximum allowable plate separation b is

A 3.4 cm B 6.8 cm

C 4.3 cm D 8.6 cm

70 A 81Ω lossless planer line was designed but did not meet a requirement.

To get the characteristic impedance of 75Ω the fraction of the width of

the strip should be

A added by 4% B removed by 4%

C added by 8% D removed by 8%

71 A lossless line has a voltage wave V(z, t) =10 sin(Ψt -β z). The line has

parameter L =0.2 uH /m, C= 0.5 nF /m. The corresponding current wave

is

A 20 sin(Ψt -β z) B 0.5 sin(Ψt -β z)

C 200 sin(Ψt -β z) D sin(Ψt -β z)

72 A lossless transmission line operating at 4.5 GHz has L =2.6 uH m and Z 0=

80Ω. The phase constant β and the phase velocity v is

A 148 rad/m, 274* m s B 214 rad/m, 30.8* m s

C 919 rad/m, 30.8* m s D None of the above

73 A 60 Ω coaxial cable feeds a 75 + j25 Ω dipole antenna. The voltage

reflection coefficient Γ and standing wave ratio s are respectively

A 0.212 ∠48.55’, 1.538 B 0.486 ∠ 68.4’, 2.628

C 0.486 ∠ 41.45’ , 2.628 D 0.212 ∠68.4’, 1.538

74 For a short-circuited coaxial transmission line: Characteristic impedance

Z0 = 35 + j49 Ω , Propagation constant г = 1.4 + j5 Length of line l

=0.4 m. The input impedance of short-circuited line is

A 82 + j39 Ω B 41 + j78 Ω

C 68+ j46 Ω D 34 + j23 Ω

75 The quarter-wave lossless 100 Ω line is terminated by load ZL =210Ω. If

the voltage at the receiving end is 60 V, the voltage at the sending end is

A 126 Ω B 28.6 Ω

C 21.3 Ω D 169 Ω

76 Consider a 300Ω quarter-wave long transmission line operating at 1 GHz.

It is connected to 10 V, 50 Ω source at one end and is left open circuited

at the other end. The magnitude of the voltage at the open circuited end

of line is

A 10 B 5

C 0 D 7.707

77 A lossless transmission line with a characteristic impedance of 80 Ω is

terminated by a load of 125 Ω. The length of line is 1.25 λ. The input

impedance is

A 80 Ω B 51.2 Ω

C 125 Ω D 45 Ω

78 Three lossless lines are connected as shown in fig. The input impedance Zin at A is

A 46 – j 69 Ω B 39 – j 57 Ω

C 67 + j 48 Ω D 61 + j 52 Ω

79 Two λ/4 transformers in tandem are to connect a 50 Ω line to a 75 Ωload

as shown in fig. P8.6.34. If Z02 =30Ω and there is no reflected wave to the

left of A, then the characteristic impedance Zo1 is

A 28Ω B 56Ω

C 49Ω D 24.5Ω

80 Two identical antennas, each of input impedance 74 Ωare fed with three

identical 50Ω quarter-wave lossless transmission lines as shown in fig. The

input impedance at the source end is

A 148Ω B 106Ω

C 74Ω D 53Ω

81 The 300Ω lossless line shown in fig. is matched to the left of the stub. The

value of ZL is

A 1-j 1.37 B 1+j 1.37

C 300+j413 D 300-j413

82 A short-circuited stub is connected to a 50 Ω transmission line as shown

in fig. The admittance seen at the junction of the stub and the

transmission line is

A 0.01 – j 0.02 B 0.02 + j0.01

C 0.04 + j0.02 D 0.04 – j 0.02

83 Frequencies that encompass the 300- to 3000-MHz range are under

which of the following segments

A high frequency B very high frequency

C ultrahigh frequency D microwave

84 The time it takes a signal applied at one end of a transmission line to

appear at the other end of the line is called

A signal time B time constant

C transit time D transmission delay

85 Which of the following is not an important transmission line

specification?

A impedance B attenuation

C inside diameter D velocity factor

86 Energy that is reflected from the end of an improperly terminated line

back up the line towards the generator is called a

A harmonic B stranded wave

C standing wave D reflected signal

87 When the load impedance does not exactly match the line impedance

and the load has reactive components in addition to its resistance, the

line is said to be

A open B shorted

C reactive D resonant

88 In an ideal case where there are no standing waves, the standing wave

ratio is

A 0 B 1

C 100 D Infinite

89

Which of the following is not used to offset antenna reactance and to

produce an impedance match?

A π LC network B T LC network

C π RC network D L LC network

90 Special transmission lines constructed with copper patterns on a printed-

circuit board that can be used as tuned circuits, filters, or impedance-

matching circuits are called

A microchip B stripline

C PCB lines D special lines

91

Tinier microstrip and striplines made by using monolithic, thin-film, and

hybrid techniques when combined with diodes, transistors, and other

components form what are called

A microstrip integrated

circuits

B microwave integrated circuits

C stripline integrated

circuits

D high-frequency integrated

circuits

92 A sophisticated graph that permits visual solutions to transmission line

calculations is the

A Karnaugh map B Smith chart

C Boolean table D frequency response curve

93 Which of the following is not found on the linear scales printed at the

bottom of Smith charts?

A SWR B impedance

C dB loss D reflection coefficient

94 A stacked collinear antenna consisting of half-wave dipoles spaced from

one another by one-half wavelengths is the

A broadside array B end-fire array

C wide-bandwidth array D parasitic array

95 When the characteristic impedance of the transmission line matches the

output impedance of the transmitter and the impedance of the antenna

itself,

A the SWR will be 10:1 B the SWR will be 1:10

C minimum power transfer

will take place

D maximum power transfer will

take place

96 A one-quarter wavelength of coaxial or balanced transmission line of a

specific impedance connected between a load and a source in order to

match impedances is

A a balun B an autotransformer

C a Q section D dummy load

97 Small wire loop inductors and capacitors are used to provide

A low-noise amplification B decoupling to prevent

feedback

C impedance matching and

tuning

D signal coupling

98 Hollow metal conducting pipes designed to carry and constrain the

electromagnetic waves of a microwave signal are

A wavetraps B waveguides

C traveling wave tubes D microwave tubes

99 A microwave component which is used to interconnect two sections of

waveguide is the

A T section B curved section

C choke joint D tapered wedge

100 A waveguide like device that acts as a high-Q parallel resonant circuit is a

A microstrip B klystron

C horn D Cavity resonator

101 A three-port microwave device used for coupling energy in only one

direction around a closed loop is a

A circulator B Joint

C Terminator D cavity resonator

102 Which of the following diodes is not typically used in the microwave

region?

A point-contact B standard PN

C standard PN D hot carrier

103 Which of the following diodes does not oscillate due to negative-

resistance characteristics?

A tunnel B SCR

C Gunn D IMPATT

104 A thin piece of N-type gallium arsenide or indium phosphide

semiconductor which forms a special resistor when voltage is applied to it

is the

A tunnel diode B PIN diode

C Gunn diode D varactor diode

105 A microwave vacuum tube using cavity resonators to produce velocity

modulation of an electron beam which produces amplification is

A a klystron B magnetron

C a cathode-ray tube D traveling-wave tube

106 A ship to ship communication system is affected by fading. A useful

solution which can be used is

A A more directional

antenna

B Use of space diversity

C Use of frequency diversity D A broadband antenna

107 For the experimental study of small microwave antennas, a free space

environment with minimum interference by external objects, the facilities

required are:

A RF screens B slotted waveguides

C UHF screens D power meter

108 In a typical satellite communication system, which of the following could

be the up-link and down-link frequencies respectively?

A 60 GHz and 40 GHz B 40 GHz and 60 GHz

C 4 GHz and 6 GHz

D 6 GHz and 4 GHz

109 The main disadvantage of using coaxial cable for microwave signals is its

A High sensitivity B Low distortion

C High attenuation D Low selectivity

110 Which of the following introduces mode partition noise?

A Fiber transmission

B Fiber transmission

C Wave guide D Both coaxial line and wave

guide

111 Which of the following does not cause losses in optical fibre cables?

A stepped index operation B attenuation in glass

C micro-bending

D impurities

112 Consider the transmission line of length 37.5cm which is terminated into

zero resistance. This line is being excited by a source of 1Ghz which has a

internal impedance of 50ohm. What is the input impedance of the line as

seen by the source?

A infinite B 52ohm

C 0 ohm D 100 ohm

113 Which device can detect the presence of both forward and backward

waves in a wave guide?

A directional coupler B detector

C filter D magic T

114 Consider the following statements: The klystron and travelling wave tube

differ from each other

1. in TWT the microwave circuit is non resonant .

2. in klystron the microwave circuit is resonant .

3. TWT uses attenuator .

4. the wave in TWT is a non proper gating wave .

which of the above statements are correct?

A 2 and 3 B 1

C 1 and 2 D 3 and 4

115 Which of the following is a microwave source with a cross field structure?

A Gyrotron B Travelling wave tube

C Magnetron D Relfex klystron

116 Which of the devices has the negative resistance characteristic?

A PNP transistor B Magnetron

C Reflex klystron D Gunn diode

117 Which of the following devices is a not electron diode?

A Thermal electron diode B Thomson deletion diode

C Thermionic tube diode D Schottky barrier diode

118 Which of the following uses transferred electron effect for the production

of microwave power amplifier?

A Metal semi conductor B Germanium

C Silicon D Gallium arsenide

119 Which of the following is a microwave power amplifier?

A Magnetron B Travelling wave tube

C Gunn diode D Reflex klystron

120 The frequency determining portion of a magnetron is______

A short line B cathode

C open line D Reasonant cavity

121 MASER finds application in

A telephones B fiber optics

C opto electronics D all the above

122 Consider the following statements: In the case of space wave propagation

the signal strength at the receiver is

1.directly proportional to transmitter and receiver heights

2.inversely proportional to distance between transmitter and receiver

3.directly proportional to frequency

Which of the above statements are correct?

A 3 B 2

C 1 and 3 D 1

123 Which of the following frequency bands fall under microwave frequency?

A SHF and EHF B UHF

C UHF and SHF D SHF and EHF

124 The gain of a TWT is proportional to_____

A type of input and output B length of tube

C no both A and B D none of the these

125 Large microwave power may be measured with the help of

A Calorimeter B thermister

C Bolometer D barreter

126 Microwave circuit impedance or admittance can be determined from

readings of

A Maximum and minimum

values of crystal current

B VSWR

C Both (A) and (B) above D None of the above

127 Most of the power measuring microwave devices measure

A Average power B Peak power

C Instantaneous power D None of the above

128 The most fundamental method of frequency measurement is

A With an absorption wave

meter

B With a slotted line

C With a slotted line D By comparison

129 In laboratory experiments the output from the Reflex Klystron are

modulated by square wave because

A It is easy to generate a

square wave

B Crystal diode operates in the

square law region of the V-I

characteristic

C It prevents frequency

modulation

D Detector circuit is less

complicated.

130 In order to couple two generators to a waveguide system without

coupling them to each other, one could not use

A Rat-race B E-plane T

C Hybrid ring D Magic T

131 A ferrite is

A A non-conductor with

magnetic properties

B An inter metallic compound

with particularly good

conductivity

C An insulator which heavily

attenuates magnetic fields

D A microwave semiconductor

invented by Faraday

132 A PIN diode is

A A metal semiconductor

point-contact diode

B A microwave mixer diode

C Often used as a

microwave detector

D Suitable for use as a

microwave switch.

134 A duplexer is used to

A Couple two different

antennas to a transmitter

without mutual

interference

B Allow the one antenna to be

used for reception or

transmission without mutual

interference

C To prevent interference

between two antennas

when they are connected

to a receiver

D To increase the speed of the

pulses in pulsed radar

135 For low attenuation, the best transmission medium is

A Flexible waveguide B Ridge waveguide

C Rectangular waveguide D Coaxial line

136 A microwave tube amplifier uses an axial magnetic field and a radial

electric field. This is the

A Reflex klystron B Coaxial magnetron

C Travelling wave tube D CFA

137 One of the reason why vacuum tubes eventually fail at microwave

frequencies is that their

A Noise figure increases B Transit time becomes too

short

C Shunt capacitive

reactance become too

large

D Series inductive reactance

become too small

138 Te cavity magnetron uses strapping to

A Prevent mode jumping B Prevent cathode back heating

C Ensure bunching D Improve the phase focusing

effect

139 A magnetic field is used in the cavity magnetron to

A Prevent anode current in

the absence of oscillations

B Ensure that the oscillation are

pulsed

C Help in focusing the

electron beam, thus

preventing spreading

D Ensure that the electrons will

orbit around the cathode.

140 The primary purpose of the helix in a travelling wave tube is to

A Prevent the electron

beam from spreading in

the long tube

B Reduce the axial velocity of

the RF field

C Ensure broad band

operation

D Reduce the noise figure.

141 A backward wave oscillator is based on the

A Rising sun magnetron B Cross Field Amplifier

C Coaxial magnetron D Travelling wave tube

142 A Parametric amplifier must be cooled

A Because parametric

amplification generates

lots of heat

B To increase bandwidth

C Because it cannot operate

at room temperature

D To improve the noise

performance

143 A ruby maser amplifier must be cooled

A Because maser

amplification generates

lots of heat

B To increase bandwidth

C Because it cannot operate

at room temperature

D To improve the noise

performance

144 A Disadvantage of micro strip compared with strip line is that micro strip

A Does not readily land itself

to printed circuit

techniques

B Is more likely to radiate

C Is bulkier D Is more expansive and

complex to manufacture

145 The Transmission system using two ground plane is

A Micro strip B Electrical wave guide

C Parallel wire Line D Strip Line

146 Surface acoustic waves propagates in

A Gallium Arsenide B Indium Phosphide

C Strip Line D Quartz Crystal

147 Saw Devices may be used as

A Transmission media like

Strip Line

B Filters

C UHF Amplifiers D Oscillator as millimetre

Frequencies

148 The biggest advantage of the TRAPATT Diode over the IMPATT Diode is its

A Lower Noise B Higher Efficiency

C Ability to operate at

higher Frequencies

D Lesser Sensitivity to

Harmonics

149 Indicate which of the following Diodes will Produce highest Pulse Power

Output

A Varactor B Gunn

C SCHOTTKY Barrier D RIMPATT

150 Indicate which of the following Diodes does not use negative resistance in

its operation

A Backward B Gunn

C IMPATT D Tunnel

151 One of the following microwave diode is suitable for Very low power

oscillators Only

A Tunnel B Avalanche

C Gunn D IMPATT

152 A Parametric Amplifier has an Input and Output Frequency of

2.25GHZ,and its pump at 4.5GHz.It is a

A Travelling wave amplifier B Generative Amplifier

C Lower Sideband Up-

Converter

D Upper Sideband Up-Converter

153 A non degenerate a Parametric Amplifier has an input Frequency fi and a

Pump Frequency fp. The idler frequency is

A fi B 2fi

C fi – fp D fp – fi

154 A Tunnel diode is loosely couple to its cavity in order to

A Increase the Frequency

Stability

B Increase the Available

negative resistance

C Facilitate Tuning D Allow Operation at highest

frequency

155 The Negative resistance in a Tunnel Diode

A Is maximum at the peak

point of the characteristics

B Is available between the peak

and valid points

C Is maximum at valid point D Maybe improved by reverse

bias

156 Negative Resistance is obtained with a Gunn Diode because of

A Electron Transfer to a less

mobile energy level

B Avalanche breakdown with

the high voltage gradient

C Tunnelling across the

junction

D Electron domains forming at

the junctions

157 For Gunn Diodes, Gallium Arsenide is Preferred to Silicon because the

former

A Has a suitable empty

energy band, which silicon

does not have

B Has a higher ion mobility

C Has a lower noise at a

highest Frequencies

D Is capable of handling higher

power densities.

158 The Ruby laser differs from the Ruby maser in that the former

A Does not require pumping B Need no resonator

C Is an Oscillator D Produces much more powers

159 The output from a laser is monochromatic : This means that it is

A Infrared B Polarised

C Narrow beam D Single Frequency

160 If the peak transmitted power in the radar system increases why a factor

of 16,maximum range will be increased by a factor of

A 2 B 4

C 8 D 16

161 If the antenna diameter in a radar system is increase by factor of 4,the

maximum range will be increased by a factor of

A √2 B 2

C 4 D 8

162 The Radar cross section of a target (indicate the false statement)

A Depends on the frequency

used

B Maybe reduced by the special

coating of the target

C Depends on the aspect of

a target, if this is non

spherical

D Is equal to the actual cross

sectional area for small targets

163 The If bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the

A Pulse width B Pulse repetition frequency

C Pulse interval D Square root of the peak

transmitted power

164 The biggest disadvantage of CW Doppler radar is that

A Is does not give the target

velocity

B Is does not give the target

range

C A transponder is required

at target

D Is does not give the target

position

165 A solution to the “Blind Speed” Problem is to

A Change the Doppler

frequency

B Vary the PRF

C Use mono pulse D Use MTI

166 The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is the

A Infinitesimal dipole B Isotropic antenna

C Elementary doublet D Half wave dipole

167 Top loading is some time used with an antenna in order to increase its

A Effective height B Bandwidth

C Beam width D Input Capacitance

168 A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of its

A Circular Polarisation B Maneuverability

C Broad bandwidth D Good front to back ratio

169 When the free space wavelength of a signal equal the cut off wavelength

of the guide (Indicate the false statement)

A Group velocity of the

signal become zero

B Phase velocity of the signals

becomes infinite

C Characteristics impedance

of the guide becomes

infinite

D The wavelength within the

waveguide become infinite

170 A Signal Propagated in a waveguide has a full wave of electric intensity

change between the two further walls, and no components of the electric

filed in the direction of the propagation. The mode is

A TE1,1 B TE1,0

C TM2,2 D TE2,0

171 The square of the periodic time orbit is proportional to the cube of the

mean distance between the two bodies is the statement of

A Kepler’s first law B Kepler’s second law

C Kepler’s third law D None of the above

172 Dielectric lens act as

A Directive antennas B Non-directive antennas

C Diploes D Monopoles

173 If the mouth diameter of a parabolic antenna is 2.5m and if it is operating

at frequency of 10 GHz, the power gain in dB is

A 46.19 B 25

C 250 D 100

174 The maximum gain of 100 element uniform linear array is

A 10 B 100

C 1000 D 1

175 A magnetic dipole is

A A small circular loop B A piece of wire

C A piece of conducting rod D The same as electric dipole

176 The normalised radiated power of a dipole is

A 1 B 1.5

C sin2Ѳ D 1.64

177 The resonant frequency of a rectangular cavity of dimensions a= 3 cm,

b=2cm, d=4cm and operating in TE101 Mode is

A 6 GHz B 6.25GHz

C 6.5GHz D 6.75GHz

178 A directional coupler is a _________ Port Device.

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

179 The match load absorbs _______ incident Power upon it and reflects

_______.

A NO,NO B NO,YES

C YES,NO D YES,YES

180 The term radar is an acronym for

A Raster direction and

ranging

B Radio detection and range

C Radio direction and range D Range detection of radio wave

181 Coherent pulse Doppler radars measures_____ of radar echoes

A Both the amplitude &

phase

B Amplitude

C phase D None of these

182 IMPATT device has ____layers in order

A p.n.i,p B n+,p,i,p

+

C n+,p,i,n

+ D P

+.n.i,p

+

183 Step recovery diode (select the correct statement)

A Made of Si or GaAs B Also known as Snap-off

varactor diode

C Stores the charge under

forward bias condition

D All of these

184 Applications of Varactor diodes are

A Widely used in parametric

amplifier

B Harmonic generator

C Active filter D All of these

185 Which of the following microwave component has got the combined

characteristic of dielectric, ohmic and radiation losses?

A Wave guide B Micro strip line

C Coaxial line D Two wire parallel line

Q: 1

Which of the following is the binary representation of F03516 hexadecimal

number?

A 1111000000110111 B 1111000001110101

C 1111000000110101 D 1111100000110101

Q: 2 Which of the following is the hexadecimal representation of 4510 (decimal

number)?

A 2D B 2C

C 2B D 2A

Q: 3 Which of the following is the decimal representation of 6B216 hexadecimal

number?

A 1512 B 1714

C 1514 D 1614

Q: 4 Perform hex subtraction of 59F – 2B8 and the answer is _____.

A 2E7 B 2E9

C 2C7 D 2B7

Q: 5 Find 2’s complement of 1001010 and the answer is _____.

A 0110110 B 0110111

C 0111110 D 0110101

Q: 6 M = 1010100 and N = 1000100, M – N = _______.

A 10000 B 110000

C 100000 D 10001

Q: 7 M = 1000100 and N = 1010100, M – N = _______.

A 1101111 B -10000

C -1101111 D 10000

Q:8 The binary conversion of (0.6875)10 is _______.

A 0.0001 B 0.0101

C 0.1011 D 0.1110

Q:9 (41.6875)10 = __________________

A (101001.1010)2 B (101001.1011)2

C (101000.1011)2 D (101000.1011)2

Q: 10 (153.513)10 = __________________

A (231.416517)8 B (230.406517)8

C (221.406517)8 D (231.406517)8

Q: 11 (10110001101011.111100000110)2 = ________________

A (26153.7416)8 B (26163.7406)8

C (26143.7406)8 D (26153.7406)8

Q: 12 (10110001101011.11110010)2 = __________________

A (2C6B.F2)16 B (2C6B.F1)16

C (2D6B.F2)16 D (2C6A.F2)16

Q: 13 (306.D)16 = _________________

A (001100000110.1100)2 B (001100000111.1101)2

C (001100000110.1101)2 D (011100000110.1100)2

Q: 14 (673.124)8 = ________________

A (110111011.001010100)2 B (110111001.001010101)2

C (110111011.001010101)2 D (110111111.001010100)2

Q:15 (11010011)2 + (1101111)2 = ____________

A (001000010)2 B (101000010)2

C (101010010)2 D (101000011)2

Q:16 24 kilobytes = _________ bytes

A 24576 B 24000

C 24600 D 24500

Q: 17 ROM memory address map of AT89C51 with 4 KB of ROM is ________

A 0000 to 1FFFH B 0000 to 0FFFH

C 0000 to 2FFFH D 0000 to FFFFH

Q: 18 ROM memory address map of DS89C420 with 16 KB of ROM is

________

A 0000 to 1FFFH B 0000 to 3FFFH

C 0000 to 2FFFH D 0000 to 4FFFH

Q: 19 ROM memory address map of DS5000-32 with 32 KB of ROM is

________

A 0000 to FFFFH B 0000 to 7FFFH

C 0000 to 6FFFH D 0000 to 8FFFH

Q: 20 What is the status of the CY, AC, and P flags after the execution following

instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller?

MOV A, #9CH

ADD A, #64H

A CY =1, AC = 1, P = 0 B CY =0, AC = 1, P = 0

C CY =1, AC = 1, P = 1 D CY =1, AC = 0, P = 0

Q: 21 What is the content of PSW register after the execution following

instructions in the program for 8051 Microcontroller?

MOV A, #0BFH

ADD A, #1BH

A 40H B 00H

C 41H D 01H

Q: 22 Which of the following instruction can be used to select register bank3 in

8051 microcontroller?

A CLR PSW.4

SETB PSW.3

B SETB PSW.4

SETB PSW.3

C CLR PSW.3

CLR PSW.4

D SETB PSW.3

CLR PSW.4

Q: 23 Which bits of the PSW of 8051microcontroller are user-definable?

A PSW.4 and PSW.5 B PSW.4 and PSW.3

C PSW.1 and PSW.3 D PSW.1 and PSW.5

Q: 24 In 8051 microcontroller, the program counter is _____ bits wide.

A 12 B 8

C 20 D 16

Q: 25 ________ is the number of I/O pins in 8051 microcontroller.

A 30 B 32

C 40 D 24

Q: 26 ________ number of timers are available in 8051 microcontroller.

A 1 B 3

C 2 D 4

Q: 27 ________ on-chip ROM is available in 8031 microcontroller.

A 4 K B 8 K

C 16 K D 0 K

Q: 28 The size of stack pointer register in 8051 microcontroller is _______.

A 4 bits B 8 bits

C 12 bits D 16 bits

Q: 29 In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each PUSH instruction,

stack pointer register is ___________.

A Incremented by 1 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Decremented by 2

Q: 30 In 8051 microcontroller, with the execution of each POP instruction, stack

pointer register is ___________.

A Incremented by 1 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Decremented by 2

Q: 31 In 8051, on power-up, SP = _____ and the first RAM location used as a

stack ______.

A 7, 8 B 7, 6

C 8, 7 D 6, 7

Q: 32 In 8051, initially, the program counter is ______ when powered-up.

A 0001H B 1000H

C 0000H D FFFFH

Q: 33 In 8051, the target address in SJMP instruction is within _____ to _____

bytes of memory location from the current address of program counter.

A -127 to 128 B -128 to 127

C 0 to 256 D 0 to 127

Q: 34 In 8051, LJMP (long jump) is ____ byte/s instruction.

A 1 B 4

C 3 D 2

Q: 35 On execution of LCALL instruction in 8051, SP is _______.

A Incremented by 2 B Incremented by 1

C Decremented by 2 D Decremented by 1

Q: 36 On execution of RET instruction in 8051, SP is _______.

A Incremented by 2 B Incremented by 1

C Decremented by 2 D Decremented by 1

Q: 37 In 8051, ACALL is _______ instruction.

A 2 bytes B 3 bytes

C 1 byte D 4 bytes

Q: 38 For an 8051 system of 11.0592 MHz, how long it takes to execute one

machine cycle instruction? (Take 1 machine cycle = 12 clock periods)

A 10.85 µs B 0.1085 µs

C 1.085 µs D 108.5 µs

Q: 39 _____ and _____ ports provide address when 64 K bytes of external

memory is interfaced with 8031.

A P0 and P2 B P0 and P1

C P1 and P3 D P1 and P2

Q: 40 Which 8051 port/s need pull-up resistors to function as I/O port?

A P0 and P1 B P0

C P1 and P2 D P1

Q: 41 In 8051, _____ and _____ pins port 3 can be used as RxD and TxD,

respectively.

A P3.0, P3.1 B P3.2 and P3.3

C P3.1, P3.0 D P3.3 and P3.2

Q: 42 In 8051, the instruction – JNB P2.5, HERE, assumes that bit P2.5 is an

______.

A Output B Input

C Neither input nor output D Input or output

Q: 43 The function of following instruction in 8051 is _______.

MOV C, P2.4

A Incorrect instruction B To copy status of P2.4 to CY

C To copy C to P2.4 D To copy CY to P2.4

Q: 44 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent

immediate addressing mode?

A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0

C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 45 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register

addressing mode?

A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0

C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 46

In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent direct

addressing mode?

A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0

C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 47 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent register

indirect addressing mode?

A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0

C MOV A, #25H D MOV A, 4

Q: 48 In 8051, the meaning of MOV A, 7 is ________.

A To copy R7 into A B Incorrect instruction

C To load A with value 7 D None of the above

Q: 49 In 8051, the meaning of MOV @R1, B is ________.

A Copy contents of B into

RAM location whose

address is held by R1

B Incorrect instruction

C Copy contents of R1 into

RAM location whose

address is held by B

D Copy B into R1

Q: 50 In 8051, which of the following instruction can be said to represent

indexed addressing mode?

A MOV A, R0 B MOV A, @R0

C MOV A, #25H D MOVC A, @A+DPTR

Q: 51 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, 40H uses __________ addressing mode.

A Immediate B Register

C Register indirect D Direct

Q: 52 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, #40H uses __________ addressing mode.

A Immediate B Register

C Register indirect D Direct

Q: 53 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, R0 uses __________ addressing mode.

A Immediate B Register

C Register indirect D Direct

Q: 54 In 8051, the instruction MOV A, @R0 uses __________ addressing mode.

A Immediate B Register

C Register indirect D Direct

Q: 55 In 8051, out of 128 byte internal RAM, how many byte locations are bit-

addressable?

A 128 B 16

C 64 D 32

Q: 56 In 8051, which of the following instruction sets bit P0.6?

A SETB 81H B SETB 80H

C SETB 82H D SETB 86H

A B

C D

Q: 57 In which language, program are written in mnemonics?

A Assembly language B Machine language

C High-level language D None of the above

Q: 58 In 8085, instruction OUT 01H does ___________ on execution.

A Displays program counter

content at port 01H

B Displays accumulator content

at port 01H

C Displays register B content

at port 01H

D Displays register C content at

port 01H

Q: 59 In 8085, instruction ADD M does ___________ on execution.

A Add the content of A with

that of memory location

pointed by HL register

pair

B Add the content of A with that

of memory location pointed

by BC register pair

C Add the content of B with

that of memory location

pointed by HL register

pair

D Add the content of A with that

of memory location pointed

by DE register pair

Q: 60 In 8085, instruction XRI 6AH does ___________on execution.

A Exclusive-OR 6AH with

the contents of B

B Exclusive-OR 6AH with the

contents of A

C Exclusive-OR 6AH with

the contents of C

D Exclusive-OR 6AH with the

contents of D

Q: 61 In 8085, instruction JC 2025H does ___________on execution.

A Change the program

sequence to 2025H if the

carry flag is reset

B Incorrect instruction

C Change the program

sequence to 2025H if the

carry flag is set

D Change the stack pointer data

to 2025H if the carry flag is set

Q: 62 In 8085, instruction ANA M does ___________ on execution.

A Logically AND the

contents of accumulator

with that of memory

location pointed by HL

register pair

B Logically AND the contents of

accumulator with that of

memory location pointed by

BC register pair

C Logically AND the

contents of register B with

D Incorrect instruction

that of memory location

pointed by HL register

pair

Q: 63 In 8085, instruction CPI 4FH does ___________on execution.

A Compare 4FH with the

contents of B

B Compare 4FH with the

contents of A

C Compare 4FH with the

contents of C

D Incorrect instruction

Q: 64 In 8085, instruction SUI 7FH does ___________ on execution.

A Subtract 7FH from the

contents of A

B Subtract 7FH from the

contents of B

C Subtract A from the

contents of 7FH

D Subtract B from the contents

of 7FH

Q: 65 In 8085, instruction MOV B, M does ___________ on execution.

A Copy the content of

memory location pointed

by DE register into B

B Incorrect instruction

C Copy the content of

memory location pointed

by HL register into B

D Copy the content register B

into the memory location

pointed by HL register

Q: 66 In 8085, instruction DCX B does _____________ on execution.

A Decrement the content of

register pair B

B Decrement the content of

memory location pointed by

register pair B

C Decrement the content of

register B

D Incorrect instruction

Q: 67 In 8085, instruction SUB M does _____________ on execution.

A Subtract the content of

memory location pointed

by BC register pair from

accumulator

B Subtract the content of

memory location pointed by

HL register pair from

accumulator

C Subtract the content of

memory location pointed

by DE register pair from

accumulator

D Incorrect instruction

Q: 68 8085 is _____ microprocessor.

A 8-bit B 16-bit

C 20-bit D 10-bit

Q: 69 Which one of the following is valid register pair in 8085 microprocessor?

A HD B BC

C HE D BH

Q: 70 In 8085, ____________ address lines are multiplexed with data lines.

A Higher-order eight address

lines

B Higher-order four address lines

C Lower-order four address

lines

D Lower-order eight address

lines

Q: 71 In 8085, ______________ control signal is used to de-multiplex address

lines from data lines.

A ALE B S0

C INTR D S1

Q: 72 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for opcode fetch operation?

A S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 B S1 = 0 and S0 = 0

C S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 D S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

Q: 73 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory read operation?

A S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 B S1 = 0 and S0 = 0

C S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 D S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

Q: 74 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for memory write operation?

A S1 = 1 and S0 = 1 B S1 = 0 and S0 = 0

C S1 = 1 and S0 = 0 D S1 = 0 and S0 = 1

Q: 75 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O read operation?

A S1 = 1, S0 = 1, MIO / = 1 B S1 = 0, S0 = 0, MIO / = 1

C S1 = 1, S0 = 0, MIO / = 1 D S1 = 0, S0 = 1, MIO / = 1

Q: 76 In 8085, what should be status of S1 and S0 for I/O write operation?

A S1 = 1, S0 = 1, MIO / = 1 B S1 = 0, S0 = 0, MIO / = 1

C S1 = 1, S0 = 0, MIO / = 1 D S1 = 0, S0 = 1, MIO / = 1

Q: 77 Which of the following interrupt has highest priority in 8085?

A TRAP B RST 7.5

C RST 5.5 D RST 6.5

Q: 78 Which of the following is vectored interrupt in 8085?

A HLDA B HOLD

C RST 7.5 D INTR

Q: 79 Which of the following signal/pin is used to interface slow-responding

peripheral with 8085 microprocessor?

A HOLD B READY

C RST 7.5 D INTR

Q: 80 In 8085, MOV C, A instruction is executed in _________ T-states

_________ machine cycles.

A 7 T-states and 2 machine

cycles

B 10 T-states and 3 machine

cycles

C 4 T-states and 1 machine

cycle

D 13 T-states and 4 machine

cycle

Q: 81 AC flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic operation when ___________.

A Carry is generated from D3

and passed on to D4

B Carry is generated from D7 and

passed on to D0

C Carry is generated from D4

and passed on to D5

D Carry is generated from D6 and

passed on to D7

Q: 82 In 8085, MVI A, 32H instruction is executed in _________ T-states

_________ machine cycles.

A 7 T-states and 2 machine

cycles

B 10 T-states and 3 machine

cycles

C 4 T-states and 1 machine

cycle

D 13 T-states and 4 machine

cycle

Q: 83 S flag in 8085 is set in arithmetic/logical operation when ___________.

A D6 comes out be 1 B D7 comes out be 0

C D6 comes out be 0 D D7 comes out be 1

Q: 84 Z flag in 8085 is set when ALU operation results in ___________.

A 00H B AAH

C 11H D FFH

Q: 85 P flag in 8085 is set when arithmetic/logical operation results in

___________.

A Even number of 1s B Odd number of 1s

C D7 comes out be 1 D D7 comes out be 0

Q: 86 In 8085, the instruction IN 84H requires __________ T-states and

_________ machine cycles.

A 7 T-states and 2 machine

cycles

B 10 T-states and 3 machine

cycles

C 4 T-states and 1 machine

cycle

D 13 T-states and 4 machine

cycle

Q: 87 Absolute address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for

each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller.

A Unique B Multiple

C Infinite D Three

Q: 88 Partial address decoding technique results into _______ address/es for

each peripheral interfaced microprocessor/microcontroller.

A Unique B Multiple

C Infinite D None of the above

Q: 89 In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address pins can

be used at most to generate address for peripheral.

A 8 B 16

C 12 D 10

Q: 90 In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, ________ address

pins can be used at most to generate address for peripheral/memory.

A 8 B 16

C 12 D 10

Q: 91 In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the following

instruction can be used?

A IN B LDA

C MOV M, B D STA

Q: 92 In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, which of the

following instruction can be used?

A IN B OUT

C STA D None of the above

Q: 93 In 8085, which interfacing technique permits arithmetic and logical

operations directly to be performed on data?

A Peripheral I/O B Memory-mapped I/O

C Peripheral and memory-

mapped I/O

D None of the above

Q: 94 In peripheral I/O interfacing technique in 8085, _____ input and _____

output devices can be connected at most.

A 255, 256 B 256, 255

C 256, 256 D 255, 255

Q: 95 In memory-mapped I/O interfacing technique in 8085, __________.

A Memory map is shared

between I/Os and memory

B I/O map is independent of

memory

C Memory map is 0 to 64K D I/O map is 0 to 256

Q: 96 HLT instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction.

A One B Two

C Four D Three

Q: 97 NOP instruction in 8085 is ________ byte instruction.

A One B Two

C Four D Three

Q: 98 Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of indirect

addressing mode?

A Pass the butter B Pass the bowl

C Give me item no. 17 of

menu

D I will have what Manish has

Q: 99 In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now,

INR A instruction is executed, which of the following is true?

A S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1 B S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1

C S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0 D S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0

Q:100 In 8085, if accumulator has FFH, carry flag (CY) equal to 0 and now,

ADI 01H instruction is executed, which of the following is true?

A S = 0, Z = 1, CY =1 B S = 1, Z = 1, CY =1

C S = 0, Z = 1, CY =0 D S = 1, Z = 1, CY =0

Q:101 In 8085, what is the position of carry flag in flag register?

A D7 B D6

C D4 D D0

Q:102 In 8085, what is the position of sign flag in flag register?

A D7 B D6

C D4 D D0

Q:103 In 8085, what is the position of zero flag in flag register?

A D7 B D6

C D4 D D0

Q:104 In 8085, what is the position of auxiliary carry flag in flag register?

A D7 B D6

C D4 D D0

Q:105 In 8085, what is the position of parity flag in flag register?

A D2 B D6

C D4 D D0

Q:106 Which of the following statement can be said to be of the kind of direct

addressing mode?

A Pass the butter B Pass the bowl

C Give me item no. 17 of

menu

D I will have what Manish has

Q:107 Which of the following program can display FFH data on a port with

address 01H for 8085?

A MVI C, FFH

OUT 01H

HLT

B MVI B, FFH

OUT 01H

HLT

C MVI D, FFH

OUT 01H

HLT

D MVI A, FFH

OUT 01H

HLT

Q:108 The result of XRA A instruction for 8085 is _________.

A 00H B FFH

C 55H D Incorrect instruction

Q:109 Which logical operation is generally used to mask certain bits of

accumulator?

A And operation B Or operation

C NOT operation D XOR operation

Q:110 Which logical operation is generally used to set certain bits of

accumulator?

A And operation B Or operation

C NOT operation D XOR operation

Q:111 LXI H, 2050H instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A H = 50H, L = 20H B Incorrect instruction

C H = 20H, L = 50H D Data from 2050 H memory

location with copied to A

Q:112 LDAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A Incorrect instruction B Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to

A

C Data from memory

location pointed by BC

register pair copied to A

D Data from register pair BC

copied to A

Q:113 LDAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A Incorrect instruction B Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to

A

C Data from memory

location pointed by DE

register pair copied to A

D Data from register pair DE

copied to A

Q:114 STAX B instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A Incorrect instruction B Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to

A

C Data from A copied into

memory location pointed

by BC register pair

D Data from A copied into

register pair BC

Q:115 STAX D instruction of 8085 does on execution _________.

A Incorrect instruction B Data from memory location

pointed by DE pair copied to

A

C Data from A copied into

memory location pointed

by DE register pair

D Data from A copied into

register pair DE

Q:116 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RLC instruction?

A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0

C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:117 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RAL instruction?

A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0

C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:118 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RRC instruction?

A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0

C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:119 For 8085, if A = 55H and CY = 1, which of the following is true on

execution of RAR instruction?

A D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 0 B D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 0

C D0 = 0, D7 = 1, CY = 1 D D0 = 1, D7 = 1, CY = 1

Q:120 In 8085, if data of accumulator and register B are same, on execution of

CMP B instruction results into __________.

A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set

C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:121 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution

of CMP B instruction results into __________.

A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set

C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:122 In 8085, if data of accumulator greater than that of register B, on execution

of CMP B instruction results into __________.

A Z flag set, CY flag reset B Z flag set, CY flag set

C Z flag reset, CY flag set D Z flag reset, CY flag reset

Q:123 In 8085, instruction ANI 01H masks ________ bits.

A D7 to D0 B D7 to D1

C D0 D D1

Q:124 In 8085, instruction ANI 00H masks ________ bits.

A D7 to D0 B D7 to D1

C D0 D None of the bits

Q:125 In 8085, on execution of PUSH B instruction, SP is _________.

A Decremented by 2 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Incremented by 1

Q:126 In 8085, on execution of POP B instruction, SP is _________.

A Decremented by 2 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Incremented by 1

Q:127 In 8085, on execution of POP PSW instruction, SP is _________.

A Decremented by 2 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Incorrect instruction

Q:128 In 8085, if H = 20H and L = 50H, and execution of PUSH H is followed

with POP PSW. Which of the following is true in this case?

A A = 50H, Flag register =

20H

B A = 20H, Flag register

maintain previous state and not

affected

C A = 20H, Flag register =

50H

D Accumulator and Flag

registers maintain previous

state and not affected

Q:129 In 8085, on execution of CALL instruction, SP is _______.

A Decremented by 2 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Incremented by 1

Q:130 In 8085, on execution of RET instruction, SP is _______.

A Decremented by 2 B Decremented by 1

C Incremented by 2 D Incremented by 1

Q:131 In 8085, the meaning CNC is __________.

A Incorrect instruction B Call subroutine if CY = 1

C Call subroutine if CY = 0 D Call subroutine

unconditionally

Q:132 In 8085, the meaning CM is __________.

A Incorrect instruction B Call subroutine if S = 1

C Call subroutine if S = 0 D Call subroutine

unconditionally

Q:133 In 8085, the meaning CP is __________.

A Incorrect instruction B Call subroutine if S = 1

C Call subroutine if S = 0 D Call subroutine

unconditionally

Q:134 In 8085, DAA instruction uses _____ and _____ flags to perform decimal

adjustment of accumulator.

A CY, AC B CY

C AC D CY, S

Q:135 In 8085, LHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution.

A Loads data from memory

location 2050H to L and

2051H to H

B Copies L with 50H and H with

20H

C Loads data from memory

location 2050H to H and

2051H to L

D Copies H with 50H and L with

20H

Q:136 In 8085, SHLD 2050H instruction does _______ on execution.

A Stores data of H into

memory location 2050H

and L into 2051H

B Copies L with 50H and H with

20H

C Stores data of L into

memory location 2050H

and H into 2051H

D Copies H with 50H and L with

20H

Q:137 In 8085, XCHG instruction does _______ on execution.

A Content of HL and DE

register pairs exchanged

B Content of H and D registers

exchanged

C Content of HL and BC

register pairs exchanged

D Content of L and E registers

exchanged

Q:138 In 8085, ADC B instruction does _______ on execution.

A A = A + B + CY flag B B = A + B + CY flag

C A = A + B D B = A + B

Q:139 In 8085, if HL register pair is cleared, DAD SP instruction does _______

on execution.

A Clears SP B Places the content of SP in DE

C Places the content of SP in

HL

D Places the content of SP in BC

Q:140 In 8085, instruction XTHL does _________ execution.

A Contents of L exchanged

with memory location

pointed by SP and H with

memory location pointed

by SP + 1.

B Contents of L exchanged with

memory location pointed by

SP

C Contents of H exchanged

with memory location

pointed by SP and L with

memory location pointed

by SP + 1.

D Contents of H exchanged with

memory location pointed by

SP

Q:141 Which instruction in 8085 is used to complement carry flag?

A CMA B STC

C CMC D None of the above

Q:142 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to set carry flag?

A CMA B STC

C CMC D None of the above

Q:143 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the

program counter?

A SPHL B PCHL

C XCHG D None of the above

Q:144 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to copy H and L registers in the

program counter?

A SPHL B PCHL

C XCHG D None of the above

Q:145 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to enable interrupt?

A EI B DI

C RIM D None of the above

Q:146 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to disable interrupt?

A EI B DI

C RIM D None of the above

Q:147 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to read pending interrupt requests?

A EI B DI

C RIM D None of the above

Q:148 What is the use of SIM instruction in 8085?

A To enable/disable RST

7.5, 6.5, 5.5

B To read pending interrupt

requests

C To enable TRAP D To enable INTR interrupt

Q:149 What is the use of 8259A?

A Programmable

keyboard/display interface

B Programmable I/O ports and

timer

C Programmable interrupt

controller

D Direct memory access

controller

Q:150 What is the use of 8279?

A Programmable

keyboard/display interface

B Programmable I/O ports and

timer

C Programmable interrupt

controller

D Direct memory access

controller

Q:151 What is the use of 8155?

A Programmable

keyboard/display interface

B Programmable I/O ports and

timer

C Programmable interrupt

controller

D Direct memory access

controller

Q:152 What is the use of 8237?

A Programmable

keyboard/display interface

B Programmable I/O ports and

timer

C Programmable interrupt

controller

D Direct memory access

controller

Q:153 What is the use of 8255A?

A Programmable

keyboard/display interface

B Programmable peripheral

interface

C Programmable interrupt

controller

D Direct memory access

controller

Q:154 What is the use of 8253?

A Programmable

keyboard/display interface

B Programmable interval timer

C Programmable interrupt

controller

D Direct memory access

controller

Q:155 Which port in 8255A can be used as individual pins or grouped in two 4-

bit ports?

A Port A B Port B

C Port A and Port B D Port C

Q:156 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to output data serially through SOD

line?

A SIM B RIM

C DI D EI

Q:157 Which instruction, in 8085, is used to input data serially through SOD

line?

A SIM B RIM

C DI D EI

Q:158 8086 is _______ bits microprocessor.

A 8 B 16

C 10 D 20

Q:159 The memory addressing capacity of 8086 is ________.

A 220

bytes B 216

bytes

C 212

bytes D 210

bytes

Q:160 8086 can address a physical memory with address ranging from _______

to ________.

A 0000H, FFFFH B 00000H, FFFFFH

C 000H, FFFH D 000000H, FFFFFFH

Q:161 What is the maximum size of data segment in 8086?

A 16K B 64K

C 32K D 1M

Q:162 In 8086, base address is shifted ______ by _______ bits in the process of

generating physical address.

A Right, 4 B Left, 4

C Right, 8 D Left, 8

Q:163 In 8086, BIU performs the address calculation to fetch instruction from

memory using ______ and _______ registers.

A DS, DI B SS, SP

C ES, SI D CS, IP

Q:164 In 8086, stack physical address is calculated using ______ and _______

registers.

A DS, DI B SS, SP

C ES, SI D CS, IP

Q:165 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s

with DS to generate physical address?

A IP B BX

C DI D BX, DI, SI

Q:166 In 8086, which of the following register/s is/are used as offset register/s

with ES to generate physical address?

A IP B BX

C DI D BX, DI, SI

Q:167 In 8086, if DS = 345BH and data segment length to be 12K bytes, what is

the physical address range for data segment?

A 345B0H to 365B0H B 345B0H to 385B0H

C 345B0H to 375B0H D 345B0H to 355B0H

Q:168 In 8086, if CS = 1111H and IP = 1232H, calculate the physical address for

the addressed byte in code segment.

A 12342H B 11110H

C 23430H D 01232H

Q:169 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, IP = 1232H, and SP = 1100H, calculate the

physical address for the addressed byte in stack segment.

A 26580H B 36260H

C 26360H D 37580H

Q:170 In 8086, if SS = 2526H, DS = 3333H, IP = 1232H, DI = 0020H, and SP =

1100H, calculate the physical address for the addressed byte in data

segment.

A 33350H B 26350H

C 26580H D 37580H

Q:171 We can have _______ logical address/es for the given physical address in

8086

A Only one B Only two

C Only three D One or more than one

Q:172 In 8086, instruction MOV AX, [2345H] represents _______ addressing

mode.

A Register B Immediate

C Direct D Register indirect

Q:173 In 8086, instruction MOV AL, [BX] represents _______ addressing mode.

A Register B Immediate

C Direct D Register indirect

Q:174 In 8086, instruction MOV BX, 34E3H represents _______ addressing

mode.

A Register B Immediate

C Direct D Register indirect

Q:175 In 8086, instruction MOV DS, 2300H represents _______ addressing

mode.

A Register B Immediate

C Direct D Incorrect instruction

Q:176 In 8086, for the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP], the effective address is

_______.

A 5 + BP + SI B SI

C BP + SI D BP

Q:177 In 8086, the instruction MOV AL, 5[SI][BP] represents ___________

addressing mode.

A Register relative B Based indexed

C Relative based indexed D None of the above

Q:178 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV

DS: [BP + 7], BL for 8086?

A DS to be used instead of

SS

B SS to be used instead of DS

C DS to be used instead of

CS

D DS to be used instead of ES

Q:179 Which one of the following statements is true for the instruction MOV

AX, CS:[BX] for 8086?

A CS to be used instead of

SS

B DS to be used instead of CS

C CS to be used instead of

DS

D SS to be used instead of CS

Q:180 In 8086, the flag is ______ bits register.

A 8 B 16

C 12 D 10

Q:181 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as control flags?

A 6 B 3

C 7 D 9

Q:182 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are unused?

A 6 B 3

C 7 D 9

Q:183 In 8086, how many bits of flag register are used as conditional flags?

A 6 B 3

C 7 D 9

Q:184 In 8086, after the execution of following instruction, find the status of CF

(carry flag) and S (sign flag).

MOV AL, 35H

ADD AL, 0CEH

A CF = 0, S = 0 B CF = 1, S = 1

C CF = 0, S = 1 D CF = 1, S = 0

Q:185 In 8086, for near jump instruction, which of the following is true?

A New IP = Current IP + 16-

bit offset

B New IP = Current IP + 8-bit

offset

C New IP = 16-bit offset D New IP = 8-bit offset

Q:186 In 8086, for short jump instruction, which of the following is true?

A New IP = Current IP + 16-

bit offset

B New IP = Current IP + 8-bit

offset

C New IP = 16-bit offset D New IP = 8-bit offset

Q:187 In 8086, instruction JMP BX does ______ on execution.

A CS = BX B IP = BX

C IP = IP + BX D Incorrect instruction

Q:188 In 8086, instruction JMP SI does ______ on execution.

A DS = SI B IP = SI

C IP = IP + SI D Incorrect instruction

Q:189 In 8086, the instruction “LOOP label” does _______ on execution.

A CX is decremented and

loop is exited if CX = 0

B BX is decremented and loop is

exited if BX = 0

C CX is incremented and

loop is exited if CX = 0

D BX is incremented and loop is

exited if BX = 0

Q:190 In 8086, the instruction INC [BX] does _________ on execution.

A BX = BX + 1 B BL = BL + 1

C Add 1 to the content of

memory location pointed

by BX

D Incorrect instruction

Q:191 In 8086, the instruction ADC AX, [BX][SI] does ________ on execution.

A AX + CF + (the data with

EA = BX + SI)

B AX + CF + (the data with EA

= BX)

C AX + (the data with EA =

BX + SI)

D AX + CF + (the data with EA

= SI)

Q:192 In 8086, the instruction SUB CL, BYTE PTR [SI] does ________ on

execution.

A CX – (Byte pointed by SI) B CL – (Byte pointed by SI)

C CL – (Byte pointed by SI)

– CF

D Incorrect instruction

Q:193 In 8086, the instruction SBB CH, 7 does ________ on execution.

A CH – 7 B CL – 7

C CH – 7 – CF D Incorrect instruction

Q:194 In 8086, the instruction DEC WORD [SI] does __________ on execution.

A Incorrect instruction B (Word pointed by SI) – 1

C (Byte pointed by SI) – 1 D (Word pointed by SI) – 2

Q:195 For the instruction MUL BL in 8086, the content of BL is multiplied with

___________ and the result is stored in ___________.

A AL, AX B AX, AX

C AH, AX D None of the above

Q:196 For the instruction MUL CX in 8086, the content of CX is multiplied with

___________ and the result is stored in ___________.

A AX, DX B AX, DX and AX

C AX, AX D None of the above

Q:197 For the instruction DIV BYTE PTR [BX], the result on execution is

__________.

A Data in AX is divided by

the word pointed by BX

B Data in AL is divided by the

byte pointed by BX

C Data in AH is divided by

the byte pointed by BX

D Data in AX is divided by the

byte pointed by BX

Q:198 For the instruction DIV WORD PTR [SI], the result on execution is

__________.

A Double word data in AX-

DX is divided by the

word pointed by SI

B Double word data in DX-AX

is divided by the word pointed

by SI

C Incorrect instruction D Data in AX is divided by the

word pointed by SI

Q:199 TEST dest, src instruction in 8086 does __________ on execution.

A Performs a logical AND of

the two operands updating

the flag register without

saving the result

B Performs a logical XOR of the

two operands updating the flag

register without saving the

result

C Performs a logical OR of

the two operands updating

D Performs a logical AND of the

two operands updating the flag

the flag register without

saving the result

register and saving the result

Q:200 In 8086, if AH = 00H, BL = 5EH, then the result of TEST AH, BL is

__________.

A Zero flag is set B Zero flag is reset

C Incorrect instruction D Zero flag not affected

Q:201 In 8086, if AL = 8CH, CH = 67H, then the result of XOR AL, CH is

__________.

A EBH B EAH

C FBH D FAH

Q:202 In 8086, the instruction SHL BX, 1 does on execution ___________.

A Content of BX is shifted

left logical by two position

B Content of BX is shifted left

arithmetic by two position

C Content of BX is shifted

left logical by one position

D Content of BX is shifted left

arithmetic by one position

Q:203 In 8086, the instruction SAL AL, CL does on execution ___________.

A Content of AL is shifted

left arithmetic by the count

specified in CL

B Content of AL is shifted right

arithmetic by the count

specified in CL

C Content of AL is shifted

left logical by the count

specified in CL

D Content of AL is shifted right

logical by the count specified

in CL

Q:204 In 8086, which instruction does “rotate through carry left”?

A SHR B RCL

C ROL D RCR

Q:205 In 8086, which instruction does “rotate through carry right”?

A SHR B RCL

C ROL D RCR

Q:206 In 8086, which instruction does “rotate right – not through carry”?

A ROR B RCL

C ROL D RCR

Q:207 In 8086, which instruction does “rotate left – not through carry”?

A ROR B RCL

C ROL D RCR

Q:208 In 8086, which control flag is set or reset to decrement or increment

pointer registers in string operations?

A DF B TF

C CF D IF

Q:209 In 8086, which register is loaded with the count value in string operations?

A BX B CX

C DX D AX

Q:210 In 8086, MOVSB instruction does ____________ on execution.

A Data in the location

pointed by SI to be moved

to the location pointed by

DI, CX = CX – 1, SI = SI

+ 1, DI = DI + 1

B Data in the location pointed by

DI to be moved to the location

pointed by SI, CX = CX – 1,

SI = SI + 1, DI = DI + 1

C Data in the location

pointed by SI to be moved

to the location pointed by

DI

D Data in the location pointed by

SI to be moved to the location

pointed by DI, CX = CX – 1

Q:211 In 8086, REPE CMPSB instruction does __________ on execution.

A Compares string pointed

by SP and BP byte by byte

and update ZF

B Compares string pointed by SI

and BP byte by byte and

update ZF

C Compares string pointed

by SI and DI byte by byte

D Compares string pointed by SI

and DI byte by byte and

update ZF

Q:212 In 8086, for SCASB instruction, the string to be scanned has to be in

__________ and is to be pointed by ___________.

A Extra, DI B Data, SI

C Extra, SI D Data, DI

Q:213 In 8086, for STOSW instruction, the memory where the data/string to be

stored has to be in __________ and is to be pointed by ___________.

A Extra, DI B Data, SI

C Extra, SI D Data, DI

Q:214 In 8086, for LODSW instruction, the destination register is _________.

A AL B AH

C SI D AX

Q:215 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the

result in AL?

MOV AL, ‘5’

ADD AL, ‘4’

AAA

A AL = 69H B AL = 09H

C AL = 0AH D AL = 39H

Q:216 In 8086, after the execution of following instructions, what will be the

result in AL?

MOV AL, ‘7’

ADD AL, ‘6’

AAA

A AL = 13 B AH = 01 AL = 03

C AL = 6DH D AH = 03 AL = 01

Q:217 In 8086, which instruction is used for “ASCII adjust AX after

multiplication?”

A AAM B AAA

C AAD D AAS

Q:218 In 8086, which instruction is used for “ASCII adjust AL after addition?”

A AAM B AAA

C AAD D AAS

Q:219 In 8086, which instruction is used for “ASCII adjust AL after

subtraction?”

A AAM B AAA

C AAD D AAS

Q:220 In 8086, which instruction is used for “ASCII adjust AX before division?”

A AAM B AAA

C AAD D AAS

Q:221 In 8086, I/O addresses are limited to _________ bits for IN and OUT

instructions.

A 8 B 16

C 12 D 20

Q:222 In 8086, the instruction IN AX, 67H does ____________ on execution.

A Gets 16-bit data into AX

from port with address

67H

B Gets 8-bit data into AL from

port with address 67H

C Gets 8-bit data into AH

from port with address

67H

D None of the above

Q:223 In 8086, the instruction CBW does ___________ on execution.

A Copies D7 bit of AL to all

the bits of AH

B Copies D7 bit of AH to all the

bits of AL

C Copies D7 bit of BL to all D Copies D7 bit of BH to all the

the bits of BH bits of BL

Q:224 In 8086, the instruction CWD does ___________ on execution.

A Copies D15 bit of AX to all

the bits of DX

B Copies D15 bit of DX to all the

bits of AX

C Copies D15 bit of BX to all

the bits of CX

D Copies D15 bit of CX to all the

bits of BX

Q:225 In 8086, instruction IN AX, 12H does ________ on execution.

A Copies 12H into AX B Copies 16-bit data from port

with address 12H into AX

C Copies 12H into AL D Copies 8-bit data from port

with address 12H into AX

Q:226 In 8086, instruction IN AL, 45H does ________ on execution.

A Copies 45H into AL B Copies 16-bit data from port

with address 45H into AX

C Copies 45H into AH D Copies 8-bit data from port

with address 45H into AL

Q:227 8086 has _____ address lines multiplexed with data lines.

A 8 B 16

C 12 D 20

Q:228 Status lines S3 = _______ and S4 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is data segment.

A 1, 1 B 0, 0

C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:229 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is code segment.

A 1, 1 B 0, 0

C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:230 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is stack segment.

A 1, 1 B 0, 0

C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:231 Status lines S4 = _______ and S3 = _________ in 8086 if the current

segment in use is extra segment.

A 1, 1 B 0, 0

C 1, 0 D 0, 1

Q:232 In 8086, _________ and __________ signals are connected with direct

memory access.

A HOLD, INTR B HOLD, HLDA

C HLDA, INTR D INTR, READY

Q:233 RDT / is ______ in transmit and ________ in receive for 8086.

A 1, 0 B 0, 1

C 0, 0 D 1, 1

Q:234 IOM / is ______ for I/O access and ________ for memory access in

8086.

A 1, 0 B 0, 1

C 0, 0 D 1, 1

Q:235 RD is ______ for read operation and WR ________ for write operation

in 8086.

A 1, 0 B 0, 1

C 0, 0 D 1, 1

Q:236 In 8086, TEST pin tested by the _________ instruction and tested

instruction becomes _______ instruction when TEST pin is logic _____.

A WAIT, NOP, 1 B NOP, WAIT, 1

C WAIT, NOP, 0 D NOP, WAIT, 0

Q:237 In 8086, _______ is used for interrupt request and ________ is used for

interrupt acknowledge.

A INTR , INTA B

INTR , HLDA

C INTR, INTA D INTA , INTR

Q:238 ________ signal/pin is used to enable high memory bank of the data bus in

8086.

A 7/ SBHE B 7/ SBHE

C 7/ SBHE D BHE/S7

Q:239 ________ states are inserted when _________ pin is __________ in 8086.

A WAIT, READY, 0 B READY, WAIT, 0

C WAIT, READY, 1 D READY, WAIT, 1

Q:240 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given

instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by

machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction?

A 4 µs B 0.4 µs

C 40 µs D 1 µs

Q:241 If the operating frequency of 8086 is 10 MHz and for the given

instruction, if machine cycle consists of 4-T states, what is time taken by

machine cycle to complete execution of that instruction when three wait

states are inserted?

A 0.7 µs B 0.4 µs

C 70 µs D 7 µs

Q:242 Which pin in 8086 microprocessor is used for maximum mode?

A MXMN / B

MXMN /

C MXMN / D MN/MX

Q:243 Which pin in 8086 is used to prevent other bus masters from accessing the

bus?

A LOCK B

TEST

C DEN D None of the above

Q:244 How many minimum address pins are required to be connected/decoded to

interface 2K X 8 memory chip with microprocessor? Assume chip select is

permanently connected to the desired voltage level.

A 13 pins B 10 pins

C 12 pins D 11 pins

Q:245 8086 microprocessor has _________ interrupts.

A Hardware, software B Hardware

C Software D Hardware, software, and error

generated

Q:246 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of c?

int a =7, b = 3, c;

c = a %b;

A 1 B 2

C 2.33 D None of the above

Q:247 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of c?

int a =7, b = 3, c;

c = a/b;

A 1 B 2

C 2.33 D None of the above

Q:248 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of y?

int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3;

y = x * (k/4);

A 0 B 6.0

C 8.0 D None of the above

Q:249 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of y?

int k; float x, y; x =8; k = 3;

y = (x * k)/4;

A 0 B 6.0

C 8.0 D None of the above

Q:250 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of x and y?

int x = 6, y = 8;

y = x++;

A 7, 6 B 7, 7

C 6, 7 D 7, 8

Q:251 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of x and y?

int x = 6, y = 8;

y = ++x;

A 7, 6 B 7, 7

C 6, 7 D 7, 8

Q:252 What is the meaning of statement p = z++ in c-language?

A p = z + 1, z = z + 1 B p = z + 1, z = z

C p = z, z = z + 1 D p = z, z = z

Q:253 What is the meaning of statement p = ++z in c-language?

A p = z + 1, z = z + 1 B p = z + 1, z = z

C p = z, z = z + 1 D p = z, z = z

Q:254 What is the meaning of statement p += z in c-language?

A p = z; B p = p + z;

C p = p * z; D Incorrect statement

Q:255 After execution of following statements in c program, what will be the

value of variable sum?

int n=123, sum=0, digit;

while (n!=0)

digit = n %10; sum += digit; n = n/10;

A 2 B 6

C 1 D 123

Q:256 In c-language, which looping statement does execute at least once?

A Do While B While

C For D None of the above

Q:257 In c-language, the statement “int a[20][20]” results into variable a with

_________ number of total elements?

A 40 B 20

C 400 D None of the above

Q:258 In c-language, the statement “int a[20][20]” results into variable a with 1st

index ranging from ____ to ____ and 2nd

index ranging from _____ to

_____?

A 0, 19, 0, 19 B 1, 20, 1, 20

C 1, 19, 1, 19 D 0, 20, 0, 20

Q:259 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of integer type in c-language?

A scanf(“%d”, a) B scanf(“%d”, &a)

C scanf(“%ld”, &a) D scanf(“%f”, &a)

Q:260 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of float type in c-language?

A scanf(“%d”, a) B scanf(“%d”, &a)

C scanf(“%ld”, &a) D scanf(“%f”, &a)

Q:261 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of long integer type in c-language?

A scanf(“%d”, a) B scanf(“%d”, &a)

C scanf(“%ld”, &a) D scanf(“%f”, &a)

Q:262 Which of the following statement is correct when variable a is declared to

be of double type in c-language?

A scanf(“%d”, a) B scanf(“%d”, &a)

C scanf(“%lf”, &a) D scanf(“%f”, &a)

Q:263 Which statement in c-language is used to proceed with the next value of

iterative variable in for statement?

A Break B Continue

C Exit D None of the above

Q:264 Which statement in c-language is normally used to prevent from

continuing from one case to another case in switch statement?

A Break B Continue

C Exit D None of the above

Q:265 How can we declare an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) in c-language?

A int *y; B int y;

C int &y; D None of the above

Q:266 In c-language, how can we point an integer pointer variable (e.g. y) to

point to integer variable (e.g. x)?

A y = x; B y = &x;

C y = *x; D None of the above

Q:267 In c-language, how can we access the value from a pointer variable (e.g. y)

and can assign it to another variable z?

A z = *y; B z = &y;

C z = y; D None of the above

Q:268 In c-language, array variable name points to _____ element of the array?

A Last B 1st

C Middle D None of the above

Q:269 In c-language, if a and b are integer variable, what will be the result on

execution of following statement?

a = *(&b);

A Incorrect statement B Values of a and b are same

C a is assigned with address

of b

D Values of a and b are not same

Q:270 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following

statements?

x = 5; y = 10;

max = (x > y) ? x : (x+y);

A max = 10 B max = 5

C max = 15 D Incorrect statement

Q:271 In c-language, file can be opened in _______ mode/s?

A Read, B Write

C Append D All of the above

Q:272 In c-language, how can we declare file pointer?

A FILE *fp; B FILE fp;

C FILE &fp; D None of the above

Q:273 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?

FILE *fp;

fp = fopen(“sample.dat”,“r” );

A Declares file pointer

variable fp

B Declares file pointer variable

fp and opens file “sample.dat”

in read mode

C Declares file pointer

variable fp and opens file

“sample.dat” in write

mode

D None of the above

Q:274 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?

FILE *fp;

fp = fopen(“sample.dat”,“r” );

A Declares file pointer

variable fp

B Declares file pointer variable

fp and opens file “sample.dat”

in read mode

C Declares file pointer

variable fp and opens file

“sample.dat” in write

mode

D None of the above

Q:275 In c-language, what is the effect on execution of following statements?

FILE *fp;

fp = fopen(“sample.dat”,“a” );

A Declares file pointer

variable fp

B Declares file pointer variable

fp and opens file “sample.dat”

in read mode

C Declares file pointer

variable fp and opens file

“sample.dat” in write

mode

D Declares file pointer variable

fp and opens file “sample.dat”

in append mode

Q:276 In c-langauge, which statement is used to read from a file?

A scanf B fscanf

C fopen D None of the above

Q:277 In c-langauge, which statement is used to write into a file?

A printf B fprintf

C fopen D None of the above

Q:278 In c-language, how can we verify the successful opening of a file?

A Comparing file pointer

with EOF

B Comparing file pointer with

EXIT

C Comparing file pointer

with NULL

D None of the above

Q:279 In c-langauge, which file function is used to position the file pointer to the

start of the file?

A rewind B fclose

C fgets D None of the above

Q:280 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of integer

variable?

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

Q:281 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of double

variable?

A 1 B 2

C 8 D 4

Q:282 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of float

variable?

A 1 B 2

C 8 D 4

Q:283 In c-language, how many bytes are required to store value of char

variable?

A 1 B 2

C 8 D 4

Q:284 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for integer variable?

A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535

C -32768 to 32767 D None of the above

Q:285 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned integer

variable?

A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535

C -32768 to 32767 D None of the above

Q:286 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for unsigned char

variable?

A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535

C -32768 to 32767 D None of the above

Q:287 In c-language, what is the range of values permitted for char variable?

A 0 to 255 B 0 to 65535

C -128 to 127 D None of the above

Q:288 In c-language, compiler automatically assigns _____ to first value in

enumerated data type.

A 0 B 1

C 2 D None of the above

Q:289 Which of the following is/are storage classes available in c-language?

A Register, auto B Static

C Extern D Register, auto, static, extern

Q:290 Which of the following is the valid statement to define constant in c-

language?

A define MAX 100 B #define MAX 100

C # define MAX 100 D #define MAX 100;

Q:291 Which one of the following is bitwise shift left operator in c-language?

A & B <<

C ^ D >>

Q:292 Which one of the following is bitwise exclusive OR operator in c-

language?

A & B <<

C ^ D >>

Q:293 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.

float a, b, c, x;

a = 9; b = 12; c =3;

x = a – b/3 + c*2 – 1;

A 10.0 B 7.0

C 4.0 D None of the above

Q:294 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.

float a, b, c, x;

a = 9; b = 12; c =3;

x = a – b/(3 + c)*(2 – 1);

A 10.0 B 7.0

C 4.0 D None of the above

Q:295 In c-language, find the value of x on execution of following statements.

float a, b, c, x;

a = 9; b = 12; c =3;

x = a – (b/(3 + c)*2) – 1;

A 10.0 B 7.0

C 4.0 D None of the above

Q:296 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following

statements?

int a;

a = (int)21.3/(int)4.5;

A 5 B 4.73

C 5.25 D None of the above

Q:297 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of following

statements?

int x;

float y = 27.6;

x = (int)(y + 0.5);

A 28.1 B 28

C 27 D None of the above

Q:298 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following

statements?

for(x=9; x<9 ; x = x – 1)

printf(“%d”, x);

A printf will never be

executed

B printf will be executed infinite

times

C printf will be executed one

time

D printf will be executed 10

times

Q:299 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following

statements?

for(x=9; x>=0 ; x = x – 1)

printf(“%d”, x);

A printf will never be

executed

B printf will be executed infinite

times

C printf will be executed one

time

D printf will be executed 10

times

Q:300 In c-language, what will be the result on execution of the following

statements?

for(j=1000; j > 0; j = j – 1);

printf(“%d”, j);

A printf will never be

executed

B printf will be executed infinite

times

C printf will be executed one

time

D printf will be executed 1000

times

A A=0, B=1,C=0 B A=1, B=0,C=0

C A=1, B=1,C=0 D A=1, B=1,C=1

A X B 1+Y

C Y D None of these

1Determine the values of A, B, C that make the sum term A'+ B' +C equal to 0.

2 X+X.Y =…….

3The circuit shown in Figure represents _________ gate.

SUJJECT CODE: 1/13 PGCET

A AND. BNAND.

C OR. D NOR.

A increased capacitance and delay. B decreased area.

C high noise margin. D low static power dissipation.

A 4097 B 2047

C 4095 D None of these

A 32 outputs, one input and 5 control signals B 32 inputs, one output and 5 control signals

C 5 inputs, one control signal and 32 outputs D 5 inputs,32 control signal and one outputs

A 40 khz B 12 khz

C 3.33 khz D None of these

5 For a 12-bit flash ADC, the number of comparators required are

6 A 32 to 1 multiplexer has the following features.

4 CMOS logic has the property of

7 Given a MOD-12 ripple counter using a J-K flip-flop. If the clock frequency to the counter is 40 KHZ ,

then the output frequency of the counter is….

8 The exact number of flip flops requierd to construct a MOD 10 counter is

SUJJECT CODE: 1/13 PGCET

A 5 B 10

C 2 D 4

A 9 B 11

C 15 D 25

A 2 select input line B 4 select input line

C 5 select input line D 8 select input line

A Infrared rays. B Ultraviolet rays.

C Burst of microwaves D None of these

A 1100 B 1001

C 0101 D 0110

9 The number of address bits needed to operate a 2K × 8-bit RAM are:

12 The Gray code for decimal number 6 is equivalent to

10 A one-to-sixteen demultiplexer requires

11 EPROM contents can be erased by exposing it to

SUJJECT CODE: 2/13 PGCET

C 0101 D 0110

A a NAND or an EX-OR B an OR or an EX-NOR

C an AND or an EX-OR D a NOR or an EX-NOR

A Successive-approximation A/D converter. B Parallel-comparative A/D converter.

C Counter ramp A/D converter. D Dual-slope A/D converter.

A x B x + x(y + z)

C x(1 + yz) D x + yz

A EX-OR gate and NOR gate B EX-OR gate and OR gate

C EX-OR gate and AND gate D Four NAND gates.

A Binary code. B BCD.

C Excess – 3 D Gray.

13 The output of a logic gate is 1 when all its inputs are at logic 0. the gate is either

16 The gates required to build a half adder are

17 The code where all successive numbers differ from their preceding number by single bit is

14 The speed of conversion is maximum in

15 When simplified with Boolean Algebra (x + y)(x + z) simplifies to

18 If the input to T-flipflop is 100 Hz signal, the final output of the three T-flipflops in cascade is

SUJJECT CODE: 2/13 PGCET

A 1000 Hz B 500 Hz

C 333 Hz D 12.5 Hz.

A D type flip-flop. B R-S flip-flop.

C J-K flip-flop. D none of these

A ECL B TTL

C CMOS D PMOS

A Lower Propagation delay. B Higher Propagation delay.

C Lower Power dissipation. D Higher Power dissipation.

A Open collector output B Totem Pole

19 For which of the following flip-flops, the output is clearly defined for all combinaMons oftwo inputs.

21 In digital ICs, Schottky transistors are preferred over normal transistors because of their

22 Which TTL logic gate is used for wired ANDing

20 The digital logic family which has the lowest propagation delay time is

SUJJECT CODE: 3/13 PGCET

C Tri state output D ECL gates

A ECL family B TTL family

C CMOS family D None of these

A division by two. Baddition by two.

C multiplication by two. D subtraction by two.

A 2,2. B 2,3.

C 3,3. D none of these.

A DRAM. B SRAM.

C ROM. D Magnetic tape.

A Reducing the electronic circuits used. B To map the given Boolean logic function.

25 How many two-input AND and OR gates are required respectively to realize Y=CD+EF+G

26 Which of following can not be accessed randomly

23 Advanced Low Power Schottky is a part of

24 Shifting a register content to left by one bit position is equivalent to

27 Karnaugh map is used for the purpose of

SUJJECT CODE: 3/13 PGCET

CTo minimize the terms in a Boolean

expression.D

To maximize the terms of a given Boolean

expression.

A Two inputs and one output. B Three inputs and three outputs.

C Two inputs and two outputs. D Three inputs and two outputs.

A By the user any number of times. B By the manufacturer during fabrication of the

device.C By the user using ultraviolet light. D By the user once and only once.

A N precision resistors. B 2N precision resistors.

C N + 1 precision resistors. D N – 1 precision resistors.

A 8 K 64 × memory B 8 M1 × memory.

C 8 M 32 × memory. D 64K× 6 memory.

29 The information in ROM is stored

30 A weighted resistor digital to analog converter using N bits requires a total of

28 A full adder logic circuit will have

31 Which of the following memories stores the most number of bits

SUJJECT CODE: 4/13 PGCET

A B9FFH B C9FFH

C AAFFH D B900

A w B x

C y D z and x

A 7585 B 4774

C 8575 D 7447

33 The Boolean function f(w,x,y,z ) = ∑ m (5,7,9 ,11 ,13, 15) is independent of variables.

34The contents of BC register pair after the execution of the following program in an 8085 microprocessor

is ………..... LXI H,7585 H

32 What is the end address of 8k X 8 memory ,if the starting address is AAOOH?

PUSH B

LXI B, 4774 H

POP B

XTHL

HLT

SUJJECT CODE: 4/13 PGCET

A 1 & 2 only B 1,3 and 4

C 1,2 and 4 D 2 and 3

A P,R & S B Q & R

C Q & S D R & S

A 40 k ohm B 80 k ohm

C 640 k ohm D 320 k ohm

37 A 6 bit DAC use binary weighted resistors. If MSB resistor is 10 k ohm, the value of LSB resistor Is

35 Which of these statements are true?

(1) A flip-flop can store 1-bit information

(2) Race condition occurs in a J-K flip flop when both inputs are 1

(3) Master Slave configuration is used in flip flops to stroe 2- bits of data.

(4) A transparent latch consists of a D-type flip-flop.

36 Pick up the correct statement(s) from the following:

(P) Open collector outputconfiguration enables to generate OAI logic.

(Q) Power consumption is minimum in CMOS family.

(R ) Minimum two transistors are required to construct dynamic RAM cell.

(S) Single comparator is used in successive approximation type of ADC.

SUJJECT CODE: 5/13 PGCET

C 640 k ohm D 320 k ohm

Aripple counter increases, but that of

synchronous counter remains the same B Both ripple counter and synchronous counter decreases.

CBoth ripple counter and synchronous

counter increases.D None of these

A short both J and K and connect D to it. B Connect D to J Directly and D to K through

inverter.C Connect D to K and leave J open. D Connect D to J and leave K open.

A its conversion time is very small. B its accuracy is very high.

C it does not require a comparator D None of these

A 1.2 V B 0.2 V

C 0.4 V D 0.8 V

A 4 B 8

38 As the number of flip flops are increased, the total propagation delay of

41 The noise margin of a TTL gate is about

42A memory system of size 32 k bytes is reqiured to design using memory chips which have 12 address

lines and 4 data lines each. The number of such chips reqiured to design the memory system is

39 To convert J K flip flop to D filp flop.

40 The advantage of using dual slope ADC in digital voltmeter is that

SUJJECT CODE: 5/13 PGCET

C 16 D 32

A 10 MHz B 5 MHz

C 20 MHz D 50 MHz

A 1,2 B 2,3

C 1,2,3 D none of these.

AROM is a Volatile memory while RAM is a

Non Volatile memory.B Both ROM and RAM are Volatile

C Both ROM and RAM are Non Volatile DRAM is a Volatile memory while ROM is a Non

Volatile memory.

45 find the correct statement.

46 For a logic famliy correct relationship is

43 An 8 bit ripple counter uses flip flops with propagation delay of 25 ns each. The maximum clock

frequency which can be used is

44 The application of shift registors are :

(1) serial to parallel data conversion

(2) parallel to serial data conversion

(3) Provide delay to the input

SUJJECT CODE: 6/13 PGCET

A VOH > VIH > VOL > VIL B VIH > VOH > VIL > VOL

C VOH > VIH > VIL > VOL D None of these

A 4.88 m V B 9.775 m V

C 20 m V D None of these

A 5 B 3

C 4 D 11

A the three unused inputs are left open B the three unused inputs are connected to 0

C the three unused inputs are connected to 1 D none of these

A 1,3 B 1,2

C 2,3 D none of these

46 For a logic famliy correct relationship is

49 A 4 input NAND gate is to be used as an inverter. Which is preferrable ?

50 which are charcterstics of sequential circuits ?

(1) Feed back

(2) output depends on previous inputs

(3) gates are arranged in sequence.

47 A 10 bit ADC is used to convert analog voltage of 0 to 10 V into digital. The resolution is

48 To design a sequential circuit having 11 states, minimum number of memory elements required is

SUJJECT CODE: 6/13 PGCET

A 4 B 8

C 12 D 13

A dual slope B weighted resistor

C Successive-approximation. D none of these

A fan out X fan in B propagation delay time X power dissipation

C gain bandwith product D none of these

A 8 B 10

C 12 D 16

A one bit magnitude comparator B an inverter

53 The figure of merit for a logic family is

54 To count 2500 bottles in cold drink plant, the minimum number of flip flops requered is

51 The number of address bits needed to operate a EPROM 8192 X 8 is

52 Which one of the following is D/A conversion technique

55 One XOR gate can work as

SUJJECT CODE: 7/13 PGCET

A one bit magnitude comparator B an inverter

Cboth one bit magnitude comparatoe and an

inverterD none of these

A CMOS B TTL

C ECL D none of these

A increases with frequency B decreases with frequency

C remain constant with frequency D none of these

A D/A converter B A/D converter

C both D/A and A/D converter D none of these

A resistor of one value only B resistor of many different values

C resistor of two different values D none of these

A 100/2N+1 B 100/2

N-1

57 The power dissipation per gate

58 Quantzation error occurs in

56 which is non-saturating logic family

59 A binary ladder network D/A converter requires

60 If number of bits is N, the % resolution in analog to digital conversion is

SUJJECT CODE: 7/13 PGCET

C 100/N D 100/2N

A only AND array programmable B only OR array programmable

C both OR & AND array programmable D none of these

A ±LSB B ±1/2LSB

C ±1/4LSB D none of these

A All RAMS B Dynamic RAM

C EPROMS D static RAM

A 2 B 3

C 4 D 5

61 Internal structure of PLA :

62 The accuracy of A/D conversion is generally

65 A buffer is

63 Which memory requires periodic recharging

64 If number of information bits is 11, the number of parity bits in Hamming code is

SUJJECT CODE: 8/13 PGCET

A Always inverting B Always non-inverting

C inverting or non-inverting D none of these

A POS B Hybrid

C SOP D none of these

A Hybrid B SOP and Hybrid

C POS D SOP

A FIFO B LIFO

C FILO D None of these

A because 8085 has 8 bit address bus. B because 8085 has 8 bit data bus and 8 bit ALU.

C because 8085 has 8 bit stack pointer D None of these

A Overflow Flag B sign Flag

65 A buffer is

66 In--------- function each term is known as min term.

69 Why 8085 is called an 8 bit processor?

70 Which is not a flag of 8085?

67 In--------- function each term is known as max term

68 Which stack is used in 8085?

SUJJECT CODE: 8/13 PGCET

C carry Flag D zero flag

A Either 256 input devices or 256 output devices B 256 input output devices

C 256 input devices and 256 output devices D none of these

A Reset,Reset B Set, Reset

C set,set D reset,set

A Lower the HOLD input B Lower the READY input

C rise the HOLD input D rise the READY input

A It is level triggered B It is edge triggered

C It is level triggered and positive edge

triggeredD None of these

73 To put the 8085 microprocessor in the wait state

74 The TRAP is one of the interrupts available its INTEL 8085. Which one of the following statements is

true of TRAP?

71 In 8085 microprocessor how many I/O devices can be interfaced in I/O mapped

I/O technique?

72 In an 8085 microprocessor, the instruction CMP B has been executed while the contents of

accumulator is less than that of register B. As a result carry flag and zero flag will be respectively

SUJJECT CODE: 9/13 PGCET

Ctriggered

D None of these

A 6 transistors. B 2 capacitors only.

C 2 transistors and 2 capacitors. D 1 transistor and 1 capacitor.

A as a microprocessor. B as a dynamic memory.

C to realize a combinational logic. D to realize sequential logic.

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

77 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

as per the following code.

A. Schottky transistors are preffered over normal transistors in digital circuits.

R. Schottky transistor when used as a switch, switches between cuttoff and active region.

75 A dynamic RAM consists of

76 A PLA can be used

SUJJECT CODE: 9/13 PGCET

A Inverter. B NOR gate.

C NAND gate. D XOR gate.

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

78

The circuit in Fig is used to realize the logic function of

79 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

as per the following code.

A.Boolean expressions can be easily simplified using K-map.

R. K-map can be drawn for minterms as well as maxterms.

SUJJECT CODE: 10/13 PGCET

A J = 0, K = 0 B J = 1, K = 1

C J = 1, K = 0 D J = 0, K = 1

A AB B A+B

C AB' D (A+B)'

A 5 states B 32 states

C 16 states D None of these

A Multiplexer B Demultiplexer

C Encoder D Decoder

A Dual slope B Successive approximation.

C Parallel conversion D Counter type

81 The Boolean Expression A'B + AB'+AB is equivalent to.

82 A ring counter consisting of five Flip-Flops will have

80 What J-K input condition will always set ‘Q’ upon the occurrence of the active clock transition?

83 A device which converts BCD to Seven Segment is called

84 The A/D converter whose conversion time is independent of the number of bits is

SUJJECT CODE: 10/13 PGCET

A 15 ns B 30 ns

C 45 ns D 60 ns

A Associative law B Commutative law

C Distributive law D All of these

A Three variable term B Single variable term

C Two variable term D Four variable term

A More than 10 gates on the same chip B More than 25 gates on the same chip

C More than 75 gates on the same chip D More than 100 gates on the same chip

85 A 4-bit synchronous counter uses flip-flops with propagation delay times of 15 ns each. The

maximum possible time required for change of state will be

86 Boolean Algebra obeys

89 The minimum number of 2 input NAND gates required to implement boolean function X Y ' Z , if X,Y,Z

are available

87 In a four variable Karnaugh map two adjacent cells give a

88 Large screen integration refers to

SUJJECT CODE: 11/13 PGCET

A 2 B 3

C 4 D 5

A W=Z, X=Z' B W=Z, X=Y

C W=Z,X=Y' D W=Y=Z'

A Y=A'B'C'D + A'BC'+AC'D B Y = A'B'C'D+ BCD'+AB'C'D

C Y=A'BCD' +'B'C'D+AB'C'D D Y=A'BCD' + B'C'D + ABC'D'

A XOR gates and multiplexer B 2 input ANDs only

C 4 input NOR and multiplexer D None of these.

are available

90

If the functions W,X,Y,Z are as follows: W = R+P'Q+ R'S ; X =PQR'S'+ P'Q'R'S'+PQ'R'S' ; Y = RS + (PR +

PQ'+P'Q')' ; Z= R+S+(PQ + P'Q'R'+PQ'S')'

91

The Boolean Expression Y=A'B'C'D+A'BCD'+AB'C'D+ABC'D' can be minimized to

92 A 2bit binary multiplier can be implemented using

SUJJECT CODE: 11/13 PGCET

A 4 B 6

C 8 D 10

A D=AB+A'B, X= A'B B D= A'B+AB', X = AB'

C D= A'B+AB', X = A'B D None of these.

A 20H B 02H

93 The output Y of a 2-bit comparator is logic 1 whenever the 2 bit input A is greater than the 2 bit input

B. The number of combinations for which the output is logic 1 is

94 For a binary half subtractor having two inputs A and B , the correct set of logical expressions for the

outputs D = A-B and X (=borrow) are

95 The following program starts at

Location 0100H

LXI SP, 00FF

LXI H,0107

MVI A,20H

SUB M

The contents of accumulator when the program counter reaches 0209H is

SUJJECT CODE: 12/13 PGCET

A 20H B 02H

C 00H D FFH

AOnly if an interrupt service routine is not

being executed.B Only if a bit in the inturrept mask is made 0.

COnly if inturrepts have been enabled by an

EI instructionD none of these.

A 3000H - 3FFFH B 7000H - 7FFFH

C 5000H - 5FFFH and 6000H - 6FFFH D 6000H - 6FFFH and 7000H - 7FFFH

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

97 If CS = A'15 A14A13 is used as the chip select logic of 4K RAM in an 8085 system, then its memory range

will be

98The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

as per the following code.

A. A PROM can be used as a synchronous counter.

R. Each memory location in a PROM can be read synchronously.

96 In an 8085 microprocessor system, the RST instruction will cause an interrupt

SUJJECT CODE: 12/13 PGCET

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

99The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

as per the following code.

A. Gray code is used in shaft position encoding.

R. In gray code only a single bit change occurs when going from one code to another.

100 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

as per the following code.

A.ECL gate has very high speed of operation

R. Trsistors in ECL do not go into saturation region.

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A fast turn-on B fast turn-off

C large collector-base reverse bias D large emitter-base forward bias

A avalanche breakdown. B zener breakdown.

C breakdown by tunnelling. D high voltage breakdown.

A Voltage controlled resistor. B Current controlled current source.

C Voltage controlled current source. D Current controlled resistor.

A does not contain mobile carriers B contains both free electrons and holes

C contains electrons only as free carriers D contains holes only as free carriers

A doubles for every 10°C increase in temperature B does not change with temperature

1 The early effect in a bipolar junction transistor is caused by

2 The breakdown mechanism in a lightly doped p-n junction under reverse biased condition is called

5 The reverse – saturation current of a silicon diode

3 For a large values of |VDS|, a FET – behaves as

4 Space charge region around a p-n junction

SUJJECT CODE: 1/10 PGCET

A doubles for every 10°C increase in temperature B does not change with temperature

C doubles for every 10°C decrease in temperature D None of these

A Current controlled current device. B Current controlled voltage device.

C Voltage controlled current device. D Voltage controlled voltage device.

A The current through R1 will increase. B The current through R1 will decrease.

C zener diode current will increase. D zener diode current will decrease.

A Increases B decreases

C remains constant. D Initially increases and then decreases

6 Transistor is a

9 N-channel FETs are superior to P-channel FETs, because

7 In the voltage regulator shown below, if the current through the load decreases,

8 For a JFET, when VDS is increased beyond the pinch off voltage, the drain current

SUJJECT CODE: 1/10 PGCET

A They have large size B They consume less power

C Mobility of electrons is greater than that of holes D They are easy to fabricate

A Doping with tetravalent element B Doping with pentavalent element

C Doping with trivalent element D Doping with a mixture of trivalent and tetravalent element

A 50Ω B 20Ω

C 100Ω D 10Ω

A increases B decreases

C remains constant. D increases or decreases depending on semiconductor type

12 When the temperature of a doped semiconductor is increased, its conductivity

13 A zener diode

10 n-type silicon is obtained by

11 The forward characteristic of a diode has a slope of approximately 100mA/V at a desired

point. The approximate incremental resistance of the diode is

SUJJECT CODE: 2/10 PGCET

A Has a high forward voltage rating. B Has a sharp breakdown at low reverse voltage.

C Is useful as an amplifier. D Has a negative resistance.

A large input impedance. B large output impedance.

C large power gain D large votage gain.

A current controlled capacitor B voltage controlled capacitor

C current controlled inductor D voltage controlled inductors

A the mobility decreases B the transconductance increases

C the drain current increases D None of these

A junction capacitance B charge storage capacitance

C depletion capacitance D channel length modulation

A Emmiter B Collector

16 Thermal runaway is not possible in FET because as the temperature of FET increases

17 Which of the following is not associated with a p-n junction

14 Field effect transistor has

15 MOSFET can be used as a

18 Which of the transistor component is bigger in size?

SUJJECT CODE: 2/10 PGCET

C Base D All are of equal size

A Conductor B Semiconductor

C Dieelectric D None of these

A To find type of semi conductor (whether p OR n) B to find carrier concentration

C to measure conductivity D All of the above

A Base is lightly doped. B Emmiter is moderately doped

C Collector is moderately doped. D All statements are correct.

A Fermi Dirac distribution B Maxwell's distribution

C Richardsons Dushman equation D None of these.

19 In which material do conduction and valence bands overlap ?

21 Which statement is false as regards Transistors.

22 Thermionic emmision current is given by

20 Hall Effect can be used

23 In energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor the acceptor energy level is

SUJJECT CODE: 3/10 PGCET

A Slightly above valence band B in valence band

C Slightly below valence band D None of these.

A a hole can have at room temperature B an electron can have at room temperature

Cmust be given to an electron to move to

conduction bandD None of these.

A Platinum B Aluminium

C Tunguston D Silver

A Decreases B increases

C remains constant. D Initially decreases then remains constant

A reverse current B Forward current

C Forward breakdown D Reverse breakdown

25 Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

26 When a reverse bias is applied to PN junction, the width of the depletion layer

23 In energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor the acceptor energy level is

24 Fermi level is the amount of energy which

27 Surface leakage current is a part of

28 The cut in voltage of a diode is nearly equal to

SUJJECT CODE: 3/10 PGCET

A applied forward voltage B applied reverse voltage

C Barrier potential D None of these.

A reverse bised B forward bised

C biased to breakdown D unbiased

A PIN Diode B Schottky diode

C Tunnel diode D None of these

A PIN Diode B Schottky diode

C Tunnel diode D None of these

A Lower input impedance B high input impedance and high voltage gain

C higher voltage gain D high input impedance and low voltage gain

29 A varactor diode is

30 Which of these has highly doped p and n region?

31 Which of these has semiconductor metal junction?

32 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a JFET has

SUJJECT CODE: 4/10 PGCET

C higher voltage gain D high input impedance and low voltage gain

A Less noisy B Has better thermal stability

C Has higher input impedance D All of these

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

33 Compared to Bipolar Junction Transistor ,a FET has

34 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) When a photoconductor device is exposed to light,its bulk resistance increases.

(R) When exposed to light, electron hole pair are generated in the photoconducive device.

35 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) A PN junction diode is used as a rectifier

(R) A PN junction diode has low resistance in forward direction and high resistance in reverse direction.

SUJJECT CODE: 4/10 PGCET

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

37The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) When a high reverse voltage is applied to a p-n junction the diode breaks down.

(R) High reverse voltage causes avalanche effect.

38 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) In n-p-n transistor conduction is mainly due to electrons.

(R) In n type materials electrons are majority carriers.

36The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) Intrinsic semiconductor is an insulator at 0 degree Kelvin.

(R) Fermi level in intrinsic semiconductor is in the centre of forbidden energy band.

SUJJECT CODE: 5/10 PGCET

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

(R) In n type materials electrons are majority carriers.

39The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) The amount of photo electric emission depends on the intensity of incident light.

(R) Photo Electric emission can occur only if frequency of incident light is less than threshold frequency.

40The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) In intrinsic semiconductor the charge concentration increases with temperature.

(R) At higher temperatures, the forbidden energy gap in semiconductors is lower.

SUJJECT CODE: 5/10 PGCET

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

41The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) In p-n-p transistor ,collector current is termed negative.

(B) in a p-n-p transistor holes are majority carriers.

42 The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) A Hall effect is used to find the type of semiconductor.

(R) When a semiconductor carrying current I lies in a magnetic field , the force on electrons and holes is

in opposite directions.

43The following questions have two statements Assertion (A), and Reason(R) . Examine them and answer

based on the following statements .

(A) In a BJT, the base region is very thick.

SUJJECT CODE: 6/10 PGCET

ABoth A and R are correct and R is correct

explanation of AB

Both A and R are correct but R is not correct

explanation of A

C A is true, R is false D A is false, R is true

A 5 volts. B 10 volts.

C 0.1 volts. D 0.3 volts.

A 0.2 V. B 5V

C 0.1 V D 0.5 V.

A 0.5 V. B 0.5 Vµ .

C 0.35 V. D 0.35 mV.

45 In a transistor switch, the voltage change from base-to-emitter which is adequate to accomplish the

switching [for silicon transistor] is only about

46 The cut-in voltage of the aluminium n-type Schottky diode is about

(A) In a BJT, the base region is very thick.

(R) In p-n-p transistor most of holes given off by emmiter diffuse through the base.

44 The voltage between the emitter and collector of a silicon transistor when the transistor is

biased to be at the edge of saturation is:

47 Which of the following has highest conductivity ?

SUJJECT CODE: 6/10 PGCET

A copper B Aluminium

C cast iron D Mild steel

A VE< VB, VC< VB B VE< VB, VC > VB

C VE> VB, VC< VB D VE> VB, VC > VB

AThe current through diode is exponentially

related to the diode voltage.B The voltage acrosss diode is 0 V

C The current through diode is 0 A. DThe current through diode is of the form m

Vd, where m is contant and Vd diode voltage

A only 1 B only 2

C both 1 and 2 D None of these

49 Which of the following statements best describes a forward biased silicon diode?

50 Which of the following statement is correct?

(1 ) A P-channel MOSFET uses a n-type substrate or well

(2) Conduction in a MOSFET channel is primarily due to Majority carriers

48 For a NPN BJT transistor to be in saturation mode:

51 When a BJT is operates under cut-off condition

SUJJECT CODE: 7/10 PGCET

A Both junctions are forward biased B Both junctions are reverse biased

C CB in forward biased and EB is reverse biased D None of these

ALASER means Light Amplification by stimulated

emission of radiation B It is monochromatic coherent light source

C very small dimension D All of these

A 1 B 2

C 3 D 4

A 32 B 28

C 14 D 4

A Silicon B Germanium

C Mixture of silicon and Germanium D None of these

53 The types of carriers in a semiconductor are

54 The number of protons in a silicon atom is

51 When a BJT is operates under cut-off condition

52Which is true about LASER diode?

55 The most commonly used semi conductor material is

56 Holes act like

SUJJECT CODE: 7/10 PGCET

A Poitive charges B neutral atoms

C Negative charges D crystals

A Proportional to frequency B independent of frequency

C Proportional to ( frequency)2 D None of these

A Number of free electrons and holes are equal B Number of free electrons is greater than number of holes

CNumber of free electrons is less than number

of holesD none of these

A 52 B 49

C 48 D 46

57 Eddy current loss is

58 In an n type semiconductor

59 If α for a transistor is 0.98, β is equal to

60 Consider two well designed npn bipolar junction transistors , QA and QB. They are otherwise identical

except base of QA is doped twice as heavily as the base of QB. The base emitter diode saturation current

in Ebers Moll model, IES in transistor QA will be

SUJJECT CODE: 8/10 PGCET

A Same as QB B Less than QB

C Greater than QB D None of these

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3

C 2 and 3 D 1, 2 and 3

A 2 B 3

C 4 D 5

A cut-off and saturation B cut-off and active

C saturation and active D None of these

A Emitter current and VBE voltage B Emitter current and VCE voltage

C Collector current and VCE voltage D None of these

61 Which of the following statements are correct:

(1) Input impedance of a MOSFET is higher than that of a JFET.

(2) In MOS transistor, triode region is the saturation region.

(3) GaAsP LED produces light in visible region

62 The number of valence electrons in a donor atom is

ES

63 BJT acts like a switch by operating between these two regions:

64 The power dissipation in transistors is the product of

SUJJECT CODE: 8/10 PGCET

A P type B N type

C P type or N type depends on fabrication D none of these

A High power dissipation B Latch Up

C low speed D None of these

A Diffusion B Implantation

C Addition of dopant gases during deposition D All these three methods

A Implant dose B anneling temperature

C anneling time D All these three

A Recombination B thermal bonding

65 For a N type MOSFET , substrate is----------- type

66 Most Negative characteristics of CMOS logic family is

69 The merging of a hole and an electron is called

67 polysilicon can be doped by

68 Resistivity of implanted polysilicon primarily depends on

SUJJECT CODE: 9/10 PGCET

A Recombination B thermal bonding

C covalent bonding D None of these

A towards positive terminal B towards negative terminal

Ceither towards positive terminal ortowards

negative terminalD none of these

A Varactor diode B zener diode

C schottky diode D PIN Diode

A It is an unipolar device B Govern by majority and minority carrier

C Low input resiatance D None of these

A Thermionic emission B secondary emission

C Field emission D Photoelectric emission.

A Collector current B Base current

70 When a voltage is applied to a semiconductor crystal,the free electron will flow

73At sufficiently high temperatures some electrons acquire enough kinetic energy to escape from metal surface. This is called

74 In BJT which current is the smallest?

71 Which diode is used at microwave frequncies?

72 Which is the charactristic of FET

SUJJECT CODE: 9/10 PGCET

C Emitter current D Collector current and emitter current.

A LED B Photo voltaic device

C LDR D None of these

75 Which device converts solar radiation into electrical energy?

SUJJECT CODE: 10/10 PGCETSUJJECT CODE: 10/10 PGCET