1-2011

Code No: V3203/R07

III B. Tech - II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011

DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES

(Civil Engineering)

Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80

Assume missing data suitably.

Answer ONE from Part-A and any THREE from Part-B

IS-800-1984 to be permitted

PART-A (Marks-32)

1. A column in an industrial building has to carry a total load axial load of 1750kN. Its

length is 5.25m.and is effectively restrained in position as well as direction at

both the ends. Design a double I section for the column. The column will be battened

or laced after design. Draw to scale the sectional views.

or

2. Design the central section of a plate girder for an effective span of 20m if the total

dead and live loads amount to 30 kN and 60kN respectively. Draw to scale the

longitudinal and cross sections.

PART-B (Marks-32)

3. a). Explain various types of welding processes with neat diagrams.

b). A 200mm × 10mm plate is to be welded to another plate 120mm ×10mm by fillet

welding. The size of the weld is 6mm. Calculate the maximum shear force which the

section can resist.

4. a). Explain various shapes of sections which can be used as beam members. Explain

their uses. What are various names given to the structural members classified as

beams?

b). Design a beam of effective span 5m and carrying a uniformly distributed load of

25 kN / m for the whole length. Compression flange of the beam is laterally restrained

against buckling through out the length

5. a). What is tension member? Explain various modes of failure of a tension member.

b). Design a T section to act as a tension member carrying an axial tension of 220 kN.

Check the suggested section for slenderness ratio.

6. Design a gantry girder for an industrial building to carry an electric overhead

traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 250 kN. Weight of crane

excluding crab is 200 kN. Weight of crab is 5 kN. Span of crane between rails is18 m.

Minimum hook approach is1.0 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 9 m.

Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m. Height of rail section is 50mm. Check the suggested

section for bending stresses.

7. A pitched roof is to be provided for an industrial building of effective san 12m. The

trusses are spaced at 4m center to center and purlins at 1.6m center to center. The

pitch of the roof is 280. The weight of the roofing material is 16 kg/m and the normal

wind pressure is 150 kg/m2. Design an angle purlin assuming the permissible bending

stress as 165Mpa.

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Set No: 1

Code No: V3203/R07



(Civil Engineering)





PART-A (Marks-32)

1. Design the web and flanges of a plate girder for an effective span of 15m if the live

loads amount and 50kN/m exclusive of self weight. Show curtailment of flanges using

either graphical methods or by calculations. Draw to scale the cross section and

longitudinal sections.

Or

2. a). Design a gusseted base under a column carrying an axial load of 1000kN. The

column section consists of ISMB 350 with plates 250mm × 12mm on each side of the

I section. The allowable pressure of the concrete pedestal is 4 N/mm2. Design

required connections also.

b). Draw to scale plan and two side views of the gusseted base for the above problem.

PART-B (Marks-16)

3. a). Explain eccentric welded connection.

b). A bracket of T section (10mm thick) is welded to a steel stanchion by using flange

welds as well as web welds as shown in figure. Determine suitable weld size taking

permissible shear stress of 110 N/mm2 in the welds.

4. a). What is tension member? List out various section that can be used as tension

members.

b). Design a C section to act as a tension member carrying an axial tension of 220 kN.

Check the suggested section for slenderness ratio.

1 of 2

150kN

8cm

150mm

150mm

Set No: 2

Code No: V3203/R07

5. The top chord member of a lattice girder consists of the section with four ISA 75×50

× 10mm angles and cover plates 250mm × 10mm thick forming a box cross section

with outer dimensions 200mm × 250mm. The effective length of the member is

5m. The section has to carry a maximum compression of 1000kN. Check weather the

design is safe or not.

6. Calculate maximum bending moment and shear force on a gantry girder of for crane

with the following data. Crane capacity is 250 kN. Weight of crane excluding crab is

100 kN. Weight of crab is 10 kN. Span of crane between rails is15 m. Minimum hook

approach is1.0 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 10 m. Weight of rail

section is 30 kg/m. Height of rail section is 75mm.

7. a). Explain procedure for calculation of loads for analysis of a roof truss and describe

various combinations considered to arrive at most critical conditions.

b). A pitched roof is to be provided for an industrial building of effective san 12m.

The trusses are spaced at 4m center to center and purlins at 1.6m center to center. The



stress as 165Mpa.

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Set No: 2

Code No: V3203/R07



(Civil Engineering)





PART-A (Marks-32)

1. a). Design the cross section of a plate girder for the following data

Effective span of the girder = 25m. Superimposed loading = 45 kN/m

Design the connection and longitudinal section of the girder to a suitable scale

showing intermediate stiffeners.

b). Draw to scale the cross section and longitudinal section of the girder showing the

intermediate stiffeners and bearing stiffeners.

or

2. Design a gantry girder for an industrial building to carry an hand operated overhead

traveling crane with the following data. Crane capacity is 250 kN. Weight of crane

excluding crab is 200 kN. Weight of crab is 5 kN. Span of crane between rails is18 m.

Minimum hook approach is1.0 m. Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 9 m.

Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m. check the suggested section for bending stresses.

Draw Cross section and longitudinal section.

PART-B (Marks-16)

3. Design the section of a beam of 8m effective span and carrying superimposed load of

15kN/m and a point load of 20kN at mid point. Check the suggested section for web

buckling and diagonal buckling and maximum permissible deflection.

4. a). Explain various types of butt welds. Describe procedure for designing a butt weld.

b). Determine the depth of the fillet weld required to join a plate bracket with flange

of a stanchion as shown in figure.

5. a). Draw various probable cross sections of a typical tension member. Discuss relative

merits. What are various conditions where a structure is subjected to tensile loads?

b). The main tie of a building roof truss has to carry a maximum axial tension of

200kN. Design a suitable section for the member as per IS specifications. Design the

section as two angles placed back to back of a gusset plate.

1 of 2

50kN 20cm

300mm

Set No: 3

Code No: V3203/R07

6. a). What is compression member? Explain various modes of failure of a compression

member.

b). A column of 3.25 m effective length consists of two channels ISMC 150 @ 16.4

kg/m placed back to back with a gap of 100 mm and covered with two plates 300 mm

× 10mm on either side. Calculate the strength of the column.

7. A pitched roof is to be provided for an industrial building of effective san 12m. The

trusses are spaced at 4m center to center and purlins at 1.6m center to center. The



stress as 165Mpa.

2 of 2

Set No: 3

Code No: V3203/R07



(Civil Engineering)





PART-A (Marks-32)

1. A bracket has to transmit an end reaction of 150KN to the column to which it is fillet

welded on three sides as shown in figure. Design the joint as per I.S specifications.

Draw to scale: a) Elevation of the beam and column showing rivet position b) Side

view of connection c) Junction details

or

2. Design a gusseted base under a column carrying an axial load of 750kN. The column

section consists of ISMB 350 with plates 250mm × 12mm on each side of the I

section. The allowable pressure of the concrete pedestal is 4 N/mm2. Design required

connections also. Draw to scale plan and two side views of the gusseted base for the

above problem.

PART-B (Marks 16)

3. A compound beam is built up with a channel ISMC attached as a top flange for a web

of 350 × 12mm plate. The bottom flange consists of a plate 150 × 16mm. Determine

the maximum allowable bending moment about the major axis if the bending stresses

is not to exceed 165MPa.

4. The main tie of a building roof truss has to carry a maximum axial tension of 200kN.

Design a suitable section for the member as per IS specifications. Design the section

as a T section placed on one side of gusset plate.

1 of 2

250mm

150KN 250mm

260mm

280mm

Set No: 4

Code No: V3203/R07

5. a). What is compression member? Classify compression member based on

slenderness ratio of the column.

b). Design a suitable section for a column to carry an axial load of 350kN. The

column is 4m long and is fixed in position as well as direction at one end and fixed in

position at the other end.

6. a). List out various components of a plate girder.

b). Design a plate girder to withstand a uniformly distributed load of 1000 kN (W)

over a span of 20 m. The maximum depth of the beam is to be restricted to 1500mm.

7. Calculate maximum wheel loads for an overhead traveling crane with the following

data. Crane capacity is 100 kN. Weight of crane excluding crab is 200 kN. Weight of

crab is 5 kN. Span of crane between rails is18 m. Minimum hook approach is1 m.

Wheel base is 3.0 m. Span of gantry girder is 9 m. Weight of rail section is 30 kg/m.

2 of 2

Set No: 4

Code ��: V3218/R07


DIGITAL SIGNAL PROCESSING

(Common to EEE, ECE, EIE)


Answer any FIVE Questions

All Questions carry equal marks

*****

1. a)Determine whether each of the following systems defined below is (i) causal (ii)

linear (iii) Dynamic (iv) time invariant (v) stable

}{ ][ log][ 10 nxny = ]2[][ −−= nxny

b) Determine the response of the system with impulse response ][][ nuanhn

= to the

input signal ].10[][][ −−= nununx

2. a) Compute the DFT of the square wave sequence �� where N is even.

b) Compute the DFT of �� with T=0.5. Plot the DFT sequence

suggest a method for improving frequency resolution.

3. Draw the signal flow graph for 16-point DFT using DIT-FFT and DIF-FFT

algorithms.

4. a) Determine the impulse response of the system described by the difference equation

]1[2][]2[4]1[3][ −+=−−−− nxnxnynyny using z-transforms.

b) Obtain the direct form-II realization for the system described by

]1[2

1][]2[

8

1]1[

4

3][ −++−−−= nxnxnynyny

5. a) Convert the following analog filter with transfer function 9)1(

1)(

2++

+=

s

sSH into a

digital IIR filter by using bilinear transformation method. The digital IIR filter is

having a resonant frequency of �� .

b) Explain method of constructing Butterworth circle in the Z-plane using bilinear

transformation method.

6. Design an ideal low pass filter with a frequency response :

�� !��"#$ � %& ' %&��"#$� %& ('( % � Find the values of h[n] for N=11. Find H(z) and also plot the magnitude response.

7. a) Describe the decimation process with a factor of ‘M’. Obtain necessary expression.

b) Obtain the necessary expression for Interpolation process.

8. Explain the features of TMS320C54x DSP processor.

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Set No: 1

Code ��: V3218/R07







*****

1. a) Define causality and stability of LSI system and state the conditions for stability.

b) Find the impulse and step responses for the given system:

]1[2][]1[][ −−=−+ nxnxnyny

2. a)If X(K) denotes the N-point DFT of N-Point sequence x[n] then show that with N

even and if �� then * �� + b) Compute the DFT of a sequence ��, for N=4.

3. a) Find the DFT of a sequence }1 ,2 ,3 ,4 ,4 ,3 ,2 ,1{][ =nx using DIT algorithm.

b) Compute the IDFT of the sequence 0} 0, 0, 4, 0, 0, 0, ,12{][ =kX using DIF

algorithm.

4. a) Obtain the transposed direct form-II realization for the system described by

]1[][]2[4

1]1[

2

1][ −++−−−= nxnxnynyny

b) Determine the cascade realization of the system )1)(1(

))(()(

11

11

−−

−−

−−

−−=

bzaz

bzazzH with

only three delay elements.

5. A digital low pass filter is required to meet the following specifications:

Pass band attenuation � 1db Pass band edge = 4kHz

Stop band attenuation � 40db Stop band edge = 8kHz

Sample rate 24 KHz

The filter is to be designed by performing a bilinear transformation on an analog

system function. Design butter worth filter and realize it.

6. Design a filter with :

�� !�-�.�/ �� %0 ' %0/��%0 ' % � Using a Hamming window with N=7.

7. a) Explain Multirate Digital Signal Processing.

b) Consider ramp sequence and sketch its interpolated and decimated versions with a

factor of ‘3’.

8. Discuss the on chip peripherals available on the TMS320C5X processor and explain

their function.

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Set No: 2

Code No: V3218/R07







*****

1. a) For each of the following discrete-time signals, determine whether or not the

system is linear, shift-invariant, causal and stable.

(i) 1�� (ii) 1�� .�� b) Determine the particular solution of the difference equation 1�� 23 1�� 43 1�� &� 5 ��; when the forcing function is �� &,6��+

2. a) Explain how DFT can be obtained by sampling DFS for a given sequence.

b) Compute the DFT of a three point sequence�� &� �� &�. Using the same

sequence, compute the six point DFT and compare the two DFTs.

3. a) Compute the DFT of the sequence �� &� 7� 0� 8� 9� :� using DIF

algorithm.

b) Derive the algorithm and draw N=8 flow graph for the DIT-FFT algorithm.

4. Determine the system function H(z), impulse response h[n], magnitude and phase

response of the LSI system defined by the difference equation:

].2[]1[2]1[3][][ −−−+−+= nynynxnxny

5. a) Find the order and poles of a low pass Butterworth filter that has a –3dB bandwidth

of 500 Hz and an attenuation of 40dB at 1KHz.

b)Compare Butter worth and Chebyshev approximations..

6. a) Distinguish between Infinite Impulse Response & Finite Impulse Response filters.

b) Design a FIR filter approximating the ideal frequency response

�� ! �-��/ �� (�( %9/��%9 (�( %� Determine the filter coefficients for N=13.

7. Implement a two state interpolator to meet the following specifications:

I=20, Pass band: 0�F�90 transition band: 90�F�100

Input sampling rate: 10,000Hz, Ripple: ;4 � �- � ; � �-.

8. Discuss various interrupt types supported by TMS320C5X processor.

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Set No: 3

Code No: V3218/R07







*****

1. a)Determine the stability and test the causality for the following functions:

(i) h�� &,6�� (ii) <�� -3(,(

(iii) <�� 8,6�7 � �� (iv) <�� 4.�-,6�� b) Determine the impulse and unit step response of the system described by the

difference equation: 1�� +:1�� +�1�� &� 5 &�� &�.

2. a) Prove the modulation and time shifting properties of distribute time Fourier

transform.

b) Find the DFT of a sequence: �� =��"#$� � &��#><�$'?@� � for N = 8 and also plot

the magnitude and phase spectrum of X(k).

3. a) Compute the eight point DFT of the sequence �� using

DIT-FFT algorithms.

b) Implement the DIF-FFT algorithm of N-point DFT where N=8. Also explain the

steps involved in this algorithm.

4. a) Obtain the direct form –I structure for the system described by 1�� 231�� 5 43 1�� &� 5 �� 5 �� . b) Determine H(z) and also discuss the stability of the system described by

A1�� 91�� 5 1�� &� � �� 5 �� .

5. Design a butter worth low pass filter satisfying the following specifications:

"B � +��C/��DB � +8EF

"G � +�8�C/��DG � �8EF/ ��H � ��C+

6. Design a band pass filter to pass frequencies in the range 1 to 2 radians/second using

Hanning window with N=5. Draw the filter structure and plot its spectrum.

7. Design a two stage Decimator for the following specifications:

D=100, Pass band: 0�F�50 transition band: 50�F�55

Input sampling rate: 10,000Hz, Ripple: ;4 � �-4� ; � �-.

8. Explain the features of TMS320C54x DSP processor.

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Set No: 4

Code No: V3216/R07


THERMAL ENGINEERING-II

(Mechanical Engineering)




*****

1. (a) In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet to turbine is saturated at pressure of 30 bar

and exhaust pressure is 0.25 bar . determine

(i)The pump work (ii) Turbine work (iii) Rankine efficiency

(iv) Condenser heat flow (v) dryness at the end of expansion.

Assume flow rate of 10 kg/s

(b) Write short note on adiabatic flame temperature? (12+4)

2. (a) Explain simple vertical boiler with neat sketch?

(b) Give the comparison between fire tube and water tube boilers? (8+8)

3. Steam at 10 bar and 0.98 dry expands through a convergent divergent nozzle to a back

pressure of 0.1 bar. The discharge through the nozzle is 0.55 kg/s. The enthalpy drop

used for reheating the steam by friction in the divergent portion is 10% of the overall

enthalpy drop. Determine

(a) the throat pressure

(b) number of nozzles required if the throat area of each nozzle is 0.5 cm2

(c) exit diameter of each nozzle

(d) cone angle of divergent portion if its length is 10 cm. (16)

4. What is compounding? Describe various ways of compounding impulse turbines and

give their merits and demerits. (16)

5. (a) Show that for a Parson’s reaction turbine the degree of reaction is 50%.

(b) In a 50% reaction turbine stage running at 3000rpm, the exit angles are 300and the

inlet angles are 500. The mean diameter is 1m.The steam flow rate is10000kg/minute

and the stage efficiency is 85%.

Determine:

i. Power output of the stage.

ii. The specific enthalpy drop in the stage.

iii. The percentage increase in the relative velocity of the steam when it

flows

over the moving blades. (8+8)

6. (a)Draw the schematic diagram of low level counter flow jet condenser and explain

its working principle.

(b) What are the advantages and limitations of surface condensers over jet

condensers? (8+8)

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Set No: 1

Code No: V3216/R07

7. A closed cycle gas turbine using Argon as the working fluid has a two compression

with perfect inter cooling. The overall pressure ratio is 9 and pressure ratio in each

stage is equal. Each stage has an isentropic efficiency of 85%. The turbine is also two

stage with equal pressure ratio with inter change reheat to original temperature. Each

turbine stage has an isentropic efficiency of 90%. The turbine inlet temperature is

1100K and the compressor inlet is 303K. Find

(a) work done per kg of fluid flow

(b) work ratio

(c) The overall cycle efficiency.

The properties of argon are Cp= 0.5207kJ/kg 0K,� =1.667 and R=0.20813kJ/kg0K

(16)

8. (a)What are the important elements used in rocket engines? Explain their functions.

(b)Describe the nuclear rocket engine with a neat sketch and explain its merits and

demerits. (8+8)

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Set No: 1

Code No: V3216/R07







*****

1. (a) Explain with the help of diagram a ‘reheat cycle’? state the advantages and

disadvantages of reheating.

(b) A simple Rankine cycle works between pressure of 30 bar and 0.04 bar, the

initial condition of steam being dry saturated, calculate the cycle efficiency, work

ratio, and specific steam consumption. (8+8)

2. (a) Explain Lancashire boiler with neat sketch?

(b) How boilers are classified? (10+6)

3. a) Prove that maximum flow rate per unit area through a nozzle occurs when the ratio

of pressure at the throat to inlet pressure is equal to (2/n+1)n/n-1

where

n=isentropic index of expansion.

(b) Explain various types of nozzles and their distinguish features. (10+6)

4. (a) Derive the expression for maximum blade efficiency in a single stage impulse

turbine?

(b) Explain the difference between an impulse turbine and reaction turbine? (10+6)

5. (a) The following data refers to a particular stage of a Parsons Reaction turbine:

Speed of the turbine = 1500 r.p.m

Mean diameter of the rotor = 1metre

Stage efficiency=80 %

Blade outlet angle=2000

Speed ratio= 0.7

Determine the available isentropic enthalpy drop in the stage.

(b) What do you mean by combined velocity diagram with reference to steam

turbines? (10+6)

6. Draw the schematic diagram of parallel flow jet condenser and explain its working

principle.

(b) Explain the advantages and limitations of surface condensers over jet

condensers. (8+8)

7. In a gas turbine plant, the air at 2830K and 1 bar is compressed to 4 bar with

Isentropic compressions efficiency of 80% . The air is heated in the regenerator and in

the combustion chamber till its temperature is raised to 9730 K and during the process

pressure falls by 0.1 bar. The air is then expended in the expander isentropic ally and

passes through the regenerator which has 0.75 effectiveness and cause a pressure drop

of 0.12 bar. Determine thermal efficiency of the plant if the isentropic efficiency of

expander is 0.85. (16)

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Set No: 2

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8. (a) Where is rocket propulsion is used? What are the kinds of rocket propellants?

(b) Describe a liquid propellant rocket engine with a neat sketch. (12+4)

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Code No: V3216/R07







*****

1. (a) Describe the different operations of Rankine cycle and also derive the expression

for its efficiency.

(b) Write short note on adiabatic flame temperature? (12+4)

2. (a) With a chimney of height 45 meters, the temperatures of flue gases with natural

draught was 3700c.the same draught was developed by induced draught fan and the

temperature of the flue gases was 1500c. Mass of the flue gases formed is 25 kg per kg

of coal fired. The boiler house temperature is 35 0C. Assume Cp =1.004 kj/kg k. for the

flue gases. Determine the efficiency of the chimney.

(b) Explain simple Babcock and Wilcox water tube boiler with neat sketch? (6+10)

3. (a) Derive an expression for maximum mass flow per unit area of flow through a

convergent- divergent nozzle when steam expands isentropic ally from rest.

(b) Explain supersaturated flow and its effects? (10+6)

4. What do you mean by compounding of steam turbine? Discuss various methods of

compounding steam turbines? (16)

5. In a stage of impulse reaction turbine provided with single row wheel, the mean

diameter of the blades is 1 meter. It turns at 3000 r.p.m. the steam issues from the

nozzle at a velocity of 350m/sec and the nozzle angle is 2000. The rotor blades are

equiangular. The blade friction factor is 0.86. Determine the power developed if the

axial thrust on the end bearing of a rotor is 118N. (16)

6. (a) Explain the working principle of counter flow jet condenser with neat sketch?

and discuss the merits and demerits.

(b) What are the sources of air leakage in steam condensers? Explain the effect

of air leakage on condenser performance. (8+8)

7. (a) Explain different applications of gas turbine power cycles in power sector

industries.

b) Draw the schematic diagram of closed cycle gas turbine and explain its working.

(8+8)

8. (a) Define and explain the terms:

i. Thrust

ii. Thrust power,

iii. Effective jet exit velocity,

iv. Propulsive efficiency related to turbojet engines.

(b)What is ramjet? Explain the working of a ramjet with a neat sketch. (8+8)

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Code No: V3216/R07







*****

1. (a) Explain with the help of neat diagram a ‘regenerative cycle’. State the advantages

of regenerative cycle over simple Rankine cycle.

b) How is analysis of exhaust and flue gas carried out? (8+8)

2. Explain any three boiler mountings with neat sketches? (16)

3. A convergent divergent steam nozzle of throat area 150 mm2 is supplied with dry and

saturated steam at 1.2 MN/m2. The expansion is supersaturated up to throat and

normal afterwards. The exit pressure is 0.1 MN/m2, Find:

(a) degree of under cooling

(b) degree of super saturation

(c) mass flow when the expansion were in thermal equilibrium

(d) mass flow when the expansion is in metastable and

(e) exit velocity. (16)

4. (a) Define the following as related to steam turbines.

i. Speed ratio

ii. blade velocity coefficient

iii. Diagram efficiency

iv. stage efficiency

(b) Derive the expression for maximum blade efficiency in a single stage impulse

turbine. (8+8)

5. (a) Define the term ‘degree of reaction’ as applied to a steam turbine. Show that

parson’s reaction turbine the degree of reaction is 50 %.

(b) List out the advantages of steam turbines over gas turbine. (8+8)

6. (a) State the comparison between jet and surface condensers?

(b) Explain the effect of air leakage in a condenser?

(c) What are the reasons for inefficiency in surface condenser? (6+4+6)

7. a) Explain different applications of gas turbine power cycles in power sector

industries.

(b) Draw the schematic diagram of closed cycle gas turbine and explain its working.

(8+8)

8. (a) Explain with a neat sketch a Turbo-jet Unit.

(b) What are the fundamental differences between jet propulsion and rocket

propulsion? (10+6)

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Set No: 4

Code No: V3225/R07


INFORMATION SECURITY

(Computer Science & Engineering)




*****

1. a) What is an attack? List the types of attacks? Briefly describe the classifications of

attacks.

b) What is a route table? Briefly describe the process of route table modification.

2. a) What is symmetric encryption? What are the ingredients of symmetric encryption? With

a neat diagram briefly describe simplified model of symmetric encryption.

b) What is Message authentication code? Briefly describe Message authentication using

one-way hash function.

3. a) Briefly describe applications and requirements for Public Key Cryptography.

b) What is a certificate? With a neat diagram, briefly describe x.509 format and elements of

a certificate.

4. a) What is detached signature? Why does PGP generate a signature before applying

compression, describe.

b) What is Canonical form? Briefly describe S/MIME functionality.

5. a) What is transport adjacency? With neat diagrams, briefly describe Basic combinations of

security associations.

b) With a neat diagram, briefly describe ISAKMP header format.

6. a) Briefly describe SSL Protocol stack and SSL record protocol.

b) With a neat diagram, briefly describe construction of dual signature.

7. a) What is SNMP? What are the key capabilities of SNMP? Briefly describe the role of

SNMP.

b) With a neat diagram, briefly describe SNMPv3 message format with user security

model.

8. a) What is packet filtering router? Briefly describe the weaknesses of packet filtering

firewall.

b) What is Bastion Host? Briefly describe characteristics of Bastion host.

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Code No: V3225/R07







*****

1. a) What is a service? Briefly describe security services.

b) What is RFC? With a neat diagram, briefly describe Internet RFC publication process.

2. a) What is cryptography? Briefly describe the three independent dimensions used for

classifying cryptographic systems.

b) What is Message authentication? Briefly describe Key distribution approaches for

Message Authentication.

3. a) What is digital certificate? Briefly describe X.509 directory authentication service.

b) What is key-exchange protocol? Briefly describe man-in-the-middle attack.

4. a) What is PGP? Briefly describe the PGP Services.

b) What is trust flag byte? Briefly describe the contents of trust flag byte.

5. a) What is SA? Briefly describe SA parameters and SA selectors.

b) What is ISAKMP? Briefly describe ISAKMP payload types.

6. a) What is Alert protocol? Why Alert protocol is used? Briefly describe Alert protocol.

b Briefly describe key features of SET and SET participants.

7. a) What is SNMPv2? What are the categories of deficiencies of SNMP? Briefly describe

security features of SNMPv1.

b) With neat diagrams, briefly describe USM message transmission and reception.

8. a) What is a firewall? What are the characteristics of firewalls? Briefly describe the four

general techniques, that firewalls use to control access and enforce the site security policy.

b) What is SOCKS? What are the components of SOCKS? Briefly describe Bastion host��

�

�

�

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Code No: V3225/R07







*****

1. a) What is security mechanism? Briefly describe the relation between security services and

mechanisms.

b) What is buffer overflow? Briefly describe TCP session hijacking.

2. a) What is AES? Briefly describe triple DES.

b) What is feistel cipher structure? With a neat diagram, briefly describe parameters and

design features of feistel cipher structure.

3. a) With a neat diagram, briefly describe Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm.

b) What is digital signature? Briefly describe Kerberos authentication service.

4. a) What is PGP? Briefly describe the reasons for PGP growth.

b) What is S/MIME? Briefly describe header fields defined in MIME and the elements of

MIME specifications.

5. a) What are IPSec documents? With a neat diagram, briefly describe IPSec document

overview.

b) What is ISAKMP? Briefly describe Oakley key determination protocol.

6. a) What is TLS? Briefly describe SSL architecture.

b) What is SET? What are the services provided by SET? Briefly describe the requirements

of SET.

7. a) What is MIB? What are the three foundation specifications of NMPA? Briefly describe

SNMP.

b) What is USM? Briefly describe available cryptographic functions in USM.

8. a) What is a firewall? Briefly describe the capabilities and limitations of firewall.

b) What is reference monitor? Briefly describe the concept of trusted systems.

�

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�

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Set No: 3

Code No: V3225/R07







*****

1. a) What is IESG? Briefly describe IETF areas.

b) What is an attack? Briefly describe ARP attacks.

2. a) What is a symmetric encryption? Briefly describe the rules for secure use of symmetric

encryption.

b) What is codebook? With a neat diagram, briefly describe CFB mode.

3. a) What is RSA? With an example, briefly describe RSA algorithm.

b) What is CA? Briefly describe Public-key certificates.

4. a) With a neat diagram, briefly describe PGP cryptographic functions and notation of PGP.

b) What is VeriSign certificate? Briefly describe S/MIME certificate processing.

5. a) What is IPSec? Briefly describe applications and benefits of IPSec.

b) What is ESP? With a neat diagram, describe fields of IPSec ESP format.

6. a) What is payment authorization? Briefly describe contents of SET authorization request

message.

b) Briefly describe SSL handshake protocol message types.

7. a) What is NMA? What are the key elements of SNMP? Briefly describe network

management protocol architecture.

b) What is USM? Briefly describe USM message parameters.

8. a) What is state ful inspection firewall? Briefly describe Application level and Circuit level

gateway.

b) What is Data Access Control? Briefly describe Access control structure.

�

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Set No: 4

Code No: V3232/R07


BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING

(Chemical Engineering)




*****

1. (a) Define protein and give its structure.

(b) Discuss the biological functions of proteins [6+10]

2. Explain ‘modulation & regulation of enzyme activity’. [16]

3. Write the steady-state material balance on a spherical, permeable immobilized pellet

using the thin-shell method. [16]

4. Describe various phases of cell growth in a batch culture, with a neat diagram. [16]

5. Define ‘metabolism’ and describe Kreb’s cycle [16]

6. What are the various types of bioreactors? Bring out their salient features [16]

7. Derive the equations pertaining to the power requirements for sparged & agitated

vessels. [16]

8. (a)Describe the principles chromatographic separation process

(b) Explain the working of a gas chromatograph [8+8]

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Code No: V3232/R07







*****

1. Define ‘microbiology’ and write about ‘procaryotic cells’, ‘eucaryotic cells’ [16]

2. Discuss the influence of the following parameters on enzyme activity

(a) PH (b) Temperature [8+8]

3. Describe about “utilization & regeneration of cofactors” [16]

4. Describe the “Monod model” for specific growth rate. [16]

5. Discuss about the metabolic pathways. [16]

6. Distinguish between aerobic and anaerobic fermentations, and describe them

briefly. [16]

7. How do you estimate kLa and power requirement in agitated vessels [16]

8. Discuss about the following membrane processes.

(a) Dialysis (b) Ultra filtration (c) Reverse osmosis [5+5+6]

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Code No: V3232/R07







*****

1. What are important cell types? Discuss the classification of microorganisms

belonging to protists. [16]

2. Discuss about ‘Michaelis-Menten kinetics’ [16]

3. Define ‘immobilization’ and discuss several techniques of enzyme immobilization.

[16]

4. What is Malthu’s law? Derive the different kinetic models for cell growth [16]

5. Discuss about ‘biosynthesis’ and ‘cell membranes’. [8+8]

6. a) What are the distinct advantages of the fed-batch systems in bioprocessing?

b) What are the essential requirements of a fermentation medium? [8+8]

7. Derive the equations to calculate the power requirements for sparged & agitated

vessels. [16]

8. (a) Describe the importance of downstream process steps in bioprocessing.

(b) What are the various unit operations you come across in downstream processing

[8+8]

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Set No: 3

Code No: V3232/R07







*****

1. What are nucleotides? What are the components nucleotides? [16]

2. Discuss the influences of different parameters on enzyme activity. [16]

3. Define ‘effectiveness factor’? Discuss the effect of external mass transfer resistance

on immobilized enzyme kinetics. [16]

4. Describe structured & cybernetic models for cellular growth [16]

5. Discuss about the “stoichiometry of cell growth & product formation” [16]

6. a) What is the importance of sterilization in bioprocessing?

b) Discuss about sterilization reactors [8+8]

7. Discuss the applications of heat transfer in biological reactors? Give some heat

transfer equipment used in biological systems? [16]

8. Describe the various cell disruption techniques? [16]

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Set No: 4

Code No: V3239/R07 Set No. 1

III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011BIO-MEDICAL SIGNAL PROCESSING

(Bio-Medical Engineering)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80

Answer any FIVE QuestionsAll Questions carry equal marks

? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) Define axiomatic definition of probability

(b) Give the classification of Random variables

(c) State total probability theorem

(d) Define density function of Gaussian function. [4+4+4+4]

2. Prove that the density of sum of two random variables is equal to the convolutionof individual densities X and Y with joint density function F(x,y). [16]

3. (a) Classify data compression techniques and list the features of each technique.

(b) Discuss any one type of lossy data compression technique with an example.[8+8]

4. (a) Discuss an algorithm to calculate the heart rate from the ECG signal.

(b) Discuss how baseline drift can be removed from the ECG recording.[10+6]

5. Write short note on

(a) Write the differences between static filter and adaptive filter.

(b) Explain the principle of an adaptive filter [8+8]

6. (a) Explain the acquisition procedure of fetal ecg signal? Draw the waveform.

(b) Explain the AR modeling of fetal breathing movement. [6+10]

7. Obtain Y-W equations for the following models

(a) y(n)=0.54 y(n-1) +e(n)

(b) y(n)=1.5 y(n-1) -0.5 y(n-2) +e(n) solve for Ryy(1) and Ryy(2). [8+8]

8. Give a flow chart of prony’s exponential estimation method. [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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? ? ? ? ?

1. Consider the probability density function f(x)=ae−b|X| , where X is a random vari-able whose allowable values ranges from X= - ∝ to + ∝

(a) Find the c d f F(x)

(b) Find the relation ship between a and b

(c) Find the probability that the outcome X lies between 1 and 2. [5+5+6]

2. (a) Write the Properties of auto correlation.

(b) Write the Properties of power spectral density. [8+8]

3. (a) What do you understand by lossy and lossless data compression techniques?

(b) Explain any one technique from each group. [6+10]

4. (a) Explain a technique to remove 50Hz noise from the ECG recording.

(b) How do you determine Tachycardia in an ECG recording? [8+8]

5. Primary Signal x(n)= EMG+ε(n), reference signal r(n)=C.EMG

(a) Find the optimum weight that minimizes the mean square error.

(b) Analyze the output. [8+8]

6. In a signal averaging application the noise amplitude is initially 4 times as large assignal amplitude. How many sweeps must be averaged to give a resulting signal tonoise ratio of 4:1. [16]

7. (a) Explain the Least squares technique in signal modeling?

(b) Explain the Polynomial technique in signal modeling. [8+8]

8. Explain the following in detail.

(a) Any two Clinical applications of prony’s method.

(b) Acquisition of event-related potential. [10+6]

? ? ? ? ?

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? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) Define normal density function.

(b) Prove that the Gaussian density is a valid density function.

(c) List out the properties of Gaussian distribution. [4+8+4]

2. (a) Define mean and variance of a random variable

(b) Write the Properties of mean and variance

(c) Prove that var(X+k)= var(X). [6+6+4]

3. (a) Draw the flow chart of AZTEC algorithm, explain Briefly

(b) Explain the limitations of AZTEC algorithm if it is applied on high frequencydata. [8+8]

4. (a) Explain a technique to remove 50Hz noise from the ECG recording.

(b) How do you determine Tachycardia in an ECG recording? [8+8]

5. Write the steps in LMS algorithm and explain how it enhances the fetal ECG withneat sketches. [16]

6. During ECG acquisition, signal is degraded by trends. Explain the technique toremove the trends. Write the relevant equations. Draw the flow chart for trendRemoval. [16]

7. How the prediction coefficients (AR parameters) can be obtained by using L-Dalgorithm. [16]

8. (a) Write the various non-stationary signals with characteristics.

(b) Explain the heart murmurs? Draw the their waveforms. [8+8]

? ? ? ? ?

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? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) Give the classical and axiomatic definitions of probability.

(b) Define joint distribution function. Explain how marginal density functions arecomputed from given their joint distribution functions. [6+10]

2. (a) Write the Properties of Covariance.

(b) Write the Properties of correlation coefficient. [8+8]

3. (a) Draw the flowchart for the line detection operation of the AZTEC algorithmand explain in detail.

(b) Draw the flowchart for the line processing operation of the AZTEC algorithmand explain in detail. [8+8]

4. (a) What are the specifications of an ECG amplifier.

(b) Explain about ECG data acquisition. [8+8]

5. (a) Explain the different types of interferences present during acquisition of bio-logical signals.

(b) Write the acquisition of ECG signal from a heart transplant patient. [8+8]

6. Explain the method to calculate the prediction coefficients of the AR model atstage M Can be obtained from stage (M-1). [16]

7. According to first order linear prediction theory e(n)=y(n)-ay(n-1),Ryy(1)=10,Ryy(0)=20.

(a) Calculate the optimum value and mean square error.

(b) Calculate the E[e(n) y(n-1)]. [10+6]

8. (a) Write the various non-stationary signals with characteristics.

(b) Explain the heart murmurs? Draw the their waveforms. [8+8]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: V3243/R07


MIDDLEWARE TECHNOLOGIES

(Information Technology)




*****

1. a) Define client/server computing. Write its advantages.

b) Describe two-tier client/server architecture. (8+8)

2. a) What is a distributed CORBA object? Explain ORB.

b) Explain about the CORBA/Java object Web. (8+8)

3. a) Explain self reference in C#.

b) Describe versioning shared assemblies.

c) Discuss about understanding the .NET delegate type. (5+5+6)

4. a) Discuss in detail about attribute programming.

b) What are the .NET remoting namespaces? Explain. (8+8)

5. a) Discuss about your first CORBA-Enabled applet.

b) Discuss about the portable count. (8+8)

6. a) Discuss about Java-to-IDL mapping.

b) Explain CORBA constructed types.

c) Explain about the server side of CORBA. (5+5+6)

7. Discuss in detail about the Event-Driven JavaBean. (16)

8. Explain the following:

a) The EJB client/server development process

b) The EJB deployment classes

c) The container/Bean interfaces

d) CORBA OTMs (4x4)

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*****

1. a) Discuss in detail about disadvantages of Client/Server computing.

b) Describe Three-Tier client/server architecture. [8+8]

2. a) Briefly discuss about the anatomy of a CORBA2.0 ORB.

b) How CORBA/JAVA augment today’s Web? Explain. [8+8]

3. a) Describe nested type definitions.

b) Explain about building a shared assembly.

c) What are members of Sytem.MulticastDelegate? Explain. [5+5+6]

4. Discuss in detail about data access with ADO.NET. [16]

5. a) How ORBlets meet applets? Explain.

b) Discuss about the Dynamic Count. (8+8)

6. a) Explain about the CORBA2.0 Interface repository.

b) Discuss about mapping CORBA pseudo-objects to Java. (8+8)

7. a) Explain about the Introspective Javabean.

b) Describe about the Java security APIs. (8+8)


a. Support for transactions.

b. The remote EJB interfaces.

c) EJB design guidelines. (6+6+4)

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Set No: 2

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*****

1. Explain how Banking application works in client/server environment. [16]

2. a) Explain in detail about CORBA services.

b) Describe the anatomies of CORBA business object and Client/Server business

object. [8+8]

3. a) Describe casting between types.

b) Explain private assemblies and XML configuration files.

c) Discuss about Callback interfaces. [5+5+6]

4. a) Explain the role of ADO.NET data providers.

b) Discuss in brief about XML Web services. [8+8]

5. a) Discuss in detail about Multicount.

b) Explain about the static CORBA. [8+8]

6. a) Describe the introspective CORBA/Java object.

b) Discuss about the server side of CORBA. [8+8]

7. a) Discuss about the Beans in JARs.

b) Describe property editors and customizers. [8+8]


i. The EJB/container protocol

ii. EJB packaging [8+8]

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Set No: 3

Code No: V3243/R07







*****

1. Define centralized computing and distributed computing. Explain advantages and

disadvantages of both. [16]

2. a) Explain 3-tier client/server, object-style.

b) Explain about the evolution of web technologies. [8+8]

3. a) Explain the formal definition of the C# class.

b) Give an overview of .NET assemblies.

c) Discuss about events. [5+5+6]

4. a) Describe the System. Type class.

b) Explain about configuring objects for serialization. [8+8]

5. a) Explain dynamic invocations of the dynamic count.

b) Describe the Multi Console applet. [8+8]

6. a) Discuss in detail about CORBA3.0’s POA.

b) Explain general constructs of the CORBA IDL-to-Java mapping. [8+8]

7. a) Describe about Bean persistence

b) Discuss about event adapters. [8+8]

8. Explain in detail about EJBs and CORBA object transaction Monitors. [16]

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Set No: 4

Code No: V3246/R07


DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING

(Electronics and Computer Engineering)




*****

1. (a) Define the terms sampling and quantization. What is their role in image

quality and size?

(b) Write a brief note about the components of image processing systems. [8+8]

2. (a) Explain Walsh transform in detail

(b) Explain Hadamard transform in detail [8+8]

3. (a) Explain about spatial filtering in frequency domain.

(b) What is meant by Enhancement by point processing? Explain [8+8]

4. Explain the following

(a) Image smoothing

(b) image sharpening [8+8]

5. Explain color segmentation in HCI color space and RGB vector space? [8+8]

6. Explain image restoration using algebraic approach and Least Mean Squares?

[16]

7. a) Give a brief note about edge linking.

b) Give a brief note about region-based segmentation. [8+8]

8. a) Explain Pseudo color image processing?

b) Compare RGB color model with HSI Color model? [8+8]

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Set No: 1

Code No: V3246/R07







*****

1. What are the elements of digital Image Processing? Discuss them in detail [16]

2. (a)Explain Walsh transform in detail

(b) Explain discrete cosine transform in detail [8+8]

3. (a) How we can enhance an image using arithmetic/logic operations

(b) Define histogram and explain how image can be enhanced using histogram

specification? [8+8]

4. (a) What do you mean by image smoothing and how it is done?

(b) Explain about sharpening spatial filtering? [8+8]

5. (a) Explain Pseudo color image processing?

(b) Compare RGB color model with HSI Color model? [8+8]

6. (a) Explain Weiner filtering?

(b) What are degradations? Explain how degradations are modeled? [8+8]

7. (a) What is thresholding? Explain different types of thresholding?

(b) Write an algorithm for region splitting and growing? Explain it in detail?

[8+8]

8. (a) Explain source encoder and decoder in detail?

(b) Explain channel encoder and decoder in detail? [8+8]

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Set No: 2

Code No: V3246/R07







*****

1. Distinguish between spatial domain techniques and frequency domain

techniques [16]

2. Define 2D-FFT. List and Explain 2D-FFT properties [2+14]

3. What is meant by histogram equalization? Discuss how it is useful to Image

enhancement. [16]

4. (a) How smoothing and sharpening can be done for a color image?

(b) Explain color image compression? [10+ 6]



6. Give the expression for pdf of the following and plot them

i) Rayleigh noise.

ii) Gaussian noise.

iii) Erlang noise.

iv) Exponential noise.

v) Uniform noise.

vi) Impulse noise. [16]

7. (a) Explain how the second-order derivative of a 2-D function is

computed in spatial domain.

(b) Give a detailed note about Hough transform. [8+8]

8. (a) Draw the image compression model and describe the functions of each

unit in it.

(b) What are the various coding techniques for error-free compression and

discuss in detail Huff-man coding. [8+8]

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Set No: 3

Code No: V3246/R07







*****

1. (a) What is Image processing and explain the components of it?

(b) What is Spatial and Gray level resolution? [8+8]

2. (a) Explain Haar transform in detail

(b) Explain slant transform in detail [8+8]

3. (a) Prove that for continuous signal Histogram equalization results in flat

histogram.

(b) Explain how Histogram statistics helps in Image Enhancement. [8+8]

4. (a) Discuss the importance of image compression? Discuss about inter pixel

redundancy.

(b) Discuss how color smoothening and sharpening can be done. [8+8]



6. (a) Explain in detail about different types of order statistics filters for

Restoration.

(b) Name different types of estimating the degradation function for use in image

restoration and explain in detail estimation by modeling. [6+10]

7. (a) Distinguish between discontinuity and similarity..

(b) Explain about the following edge detection techniques

i) Lapalacian and ii) Laplacian of Gaussian. [8+8]

8. (a) Explain Lossy predictive coding with example?

(b) Explain different video compression standards? [10+6]

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Set No: 4


III B.Tech II Semester Regular Examinations, April/May 2011AEROSPACE PROPULSION-II

(Aeronautical Engineering)Time: 3 hours Max Marks: 80


? ? ? ? ?

1. Starting from the first principles and with the help of neatly drawn velocity trianglesobtain the following relationship:Ψ = 2Φ (tan β2 + tan β3)where ‘Ψ’ is the blade loading coefficient, ‘Φ’ is the flow coefficient, β2 and β3 arethe air angels. [16]

2. How do you estimate gas bending stresses in a rotor blade? [16]

3. (a) Explain the reasons why the use of after burning thrust augmentation methodis limited to only for a short periods.

(b) Draw the performance chart of an after burner engine and explain it in detail.[8+8]

4. What are the various assumptions made while analyzing an ideal ramjet engine?Explain the conditions occurring at the exit of diffuser section and combustionchamber.

[16]

5. Explain the rocket engine principle. Classify the rockets and write their salientfeatures.

[16]

6. How the solid rocket motor casing and nozzle are protected against high tempera-tures.

[16]

7. Write short notes on the following with respect to the liquid propellant rocket motor

(a) Ablative cooling.

(b) Film cooling

(c) Advantages of liquid rockets over solid rockets.

(d) Monopropellants [4+4+4+4]

8. Explain the ideal flight performance of a low thrust electric propulsion system. [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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? ? ? ? ?

1. With the help of a neat diagram, indicating angle of incidence, efflux angle, chord,pitch, opening between consequent blades for the flow of gas etc. Discuss thevariation in profile loss coefficient (Yp) as a function of angle of incidence(i) for both impulse and reaction type turbine blades. [16]

2. Discuss in detail the limiting factors in turbine design. [16]

3. Explain the basic concepts of thrust augmentation through after burning concept,and discuss in detail about the associated pressure losses. [16]

4. (a) Define ‘Effective jet Mach number’ for a ramjet engine and derive the rela-tionship for it.

(b) Write a detailed note on ‘variable geometry ramjet engine’. [8+8]

5. (a) Derive the equation for thrust of a rocket motor.

(b) Differentiae between the rocket and missile. [8+8]

6. Explain the following with respect to solid propellants:

(a) Fuels

(b) Formulations and Ingredients

(c) Toxicity

(d) Particle size parameters. [4+4+4+4]

7. What are the various types of propellant tanks in the case of liquid rocket mo-tors? Explain the role, desirable characteristics, advantages and disadvantages ofpropellant tanks. [16]

8. What are the sub-systems of a typical electrical propulsion system? How will yourelate them to solid propellant rocket motor sub systems? [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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? ? ? ? ?

1. (a) For a free vortex turbine blade with an impulse hub show that the degree ofreaction (∧) at any radius ‘r’ is related to the hub radius ‘rh’ by the followingrelation:Λ = 1- (r−h / r)2

(b) For such a turbine determine the degree of reaction at the mean and tipdiameters when the root and tip diameters are 50 and 100cms respectively.

[10+6]

2. Discuss in detail about the quasi-steady and periodic fluctuating type of stressesacting on a conventional turbine blade, which could lead to crack initiation andeventual failure of the blade. [16]

3. Write notes on the following with respect to solid rocket motors:

(a) Thrust vector control

(b) Moveable Nozzles. [8+8]

4. A ramjet is to propel an aircraft at Mach 3 at high altitude where the ambientpressure is 8.5 kPa and the ambient temperature Ta is 220 K. The turbine inlettemperature T is 2540 K. If all components are ideal, i.e. frictionless determinethe following:

(a) The thermal efficiency

(b) The propulsion efficiency

(c) The overall efficiency

Let the specific heat ratio (γ) be 1.4 and fuel-to-air ratio, f = 0.03. [16]

5. (a) Derive the equation for thrust of a rocket motor.

(b) Write a note on sounding rockets. [8+8]

6. What are the design considerations of a propellant grain of a solid propellant rocketmotor. [16]

7. Explain the various liquid fuels for liquid rocket motors. Write down their advan-tages, disadvantages and area of application. [16]

8. (a) Differentiate between chemical and nuclear rockets.

(b) Write a note on solar sails. [8+8]

? ? ? ? ?

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? ? ? ? ?

1. Define the loss coefficient for nozzle blades and derive the following relationshipwith the help of T-s diagram.YN = λN { 1 + [(γ - 1) M2

2] / 2}

where YN is the nozzle blade loss, λ N is the nozzle blade loss coefficient, M2 is theMach number at blade exit, and γ is the ratio of specific heats. [16]

2. Write short notes on the following:

(a) Internal and external air cooling of turbine blades

(b) Internal and external liquid cooling of turbine blades. [8+8]

3. Write short notes on the folloeing

(a) Jetavators

(b) Moveable nozzle (ball/socket/gimbal ring) [8+8]

4. (a) Define Effective jet Mach number for a ramjet engine and derive the relation-ship for it.

(b) Write a short note on External Drag of ramjet engine. [8+8]

5. Explain briefly what is meant by

(a) Hypergolic propellants.

(b) UDMH

(c) RFNA

(d) Gelled propellants. [4+4+4+4]

6. (a) Compare the various exhaust gas properties of a typical composite solid pro-pellant (with aluminum and prechlorate ) with that of a cryogenic liquid pro-pellant such as O2-H2.

(b) Explain the distinct features, advantages and disadvantages of the followingwith respect to the solid propellant rocket motor:

i. Jetavators

ii. Moveable nozzle ( ball/ socket/ gimbal ring). [8+4+4]

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7. What is the advantage of using cryogenic propellants in liquid rockets? Mentionthe typical cryogenic propellants and their applications. What are the precautionstaken while handling them?

[16]

8. Explain the different types of electric propulsion devices. What are the typicalapplications of electric propulsion? [16]

? ? ? ? ?

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Code No: V3260/R07


HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO

Time: 3 Hours

1. a) What is Radiation? Explain briefly

b) Determine the steady state rate of heat transfer

homogeneous slab with its two faces maintained at u

The thermal conductivity of the material is 0.19 W/

c) Define Fourier’s law of heat conduction

2. The inner surface of a high temperature reactor will

will have an overall thickness of 350 mm and is to

material (kr = 0.86 W/mK), covered with a layer of insulation ( K

insulating material has a maximum operating tempera

temperature will be 293 K and it is estimated that

surface of the insulation will be 10 W/ m

insulation, which gives minimum heat loss, and the

calculate the surface temperature of the insulation

3. (a) Explain the phenomena of heat transfer through turbulent bo

heat transfer coefficient.

(b) A thin plate, 2.5 m length and 1.5 m breadth, i

its surface. Calculate the coefficien

heat transferred. The data is given as:

Thermal conductivity of air at 20

is 1000

C and the bulk temperature of air is 20

4. What electrical power is required to maintain a 0.0

400 K in an atmosphere of quiescent air at

meter. At a mean film temperature the physical properties

�=20.76X10-6

m2/s

k=0.030 03 W/m.K

5. Cooling water flowing inside a horizontal condenser

300C. The tube is surrounded by steam at 0.2 atm absol

meters, necessary to produce a turbulent film of co

Enthalpy of vaporization = 2.359

At 37.50

C the properties of the condensate are:

K = 0.626 w/mK; P = 994 kg/m

II Semester Regular, Examinations, April/May 2011

HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO- PROCESSES

(Biotechnology)

Max. Marks: 80



*****

s Radiation? Explain briefly

b) Determine the steady state rate of heat transfer per unit area through a 4.0 cm thick

homogeneous slab with its two faces maintained at uniform temperatures of 38

The thermal conductivity of the material is 0.19 W/m.K.

c) Define Fourier’s law of heat conduction

e inner surface of a high temperature reactor will operate at 1623 k. The wall of the reactor

will have an overall thickness of 350 mm and is to be made up of an inner layer of firebrick

= 0.86 W/mK), covered with a layer of insulation ( Ki = 0.16 W /mK). This

insulating material has a maximum operating temperature of 1473 K. The ambient

temperature will be 293 K and it is estimated that the heat transfer coefficient at the exposed

surface of the insulation will be 10 W/ m2 K. Calculate the thickness of refractory and

insulation, which gives minimum heat loss, and the magnitude of this loss in W/ m

calculate the surface temperature of the insulation

the phenomena of heat transfer through turbulent boundary layer and define film

(b) A thin plate, 2.5 m length and 1.5 m breadth, is exposed to a flow of air (2m/s) parallel to

its surface. Calculate the coefficient of heat transfer from the plate to the air and th

heat transferred. The data is given as:

Thermal conductivity of air at 200

C = 2.59 10-2

w/moC . The surface temperature of plate

C and the bulk temperature of air is 200 C.

What electrical power is required to maintain a 0.076 mm diameter,0.6 m long vertical wire at

400 K in an atmosphere of quiescent air at 300 K? The wires resistance is 0.0118 ohms per

At a mean film temperature the physical properties is as follows:

Pr=0.697

�=1/T=0.00286 K-1

Cooling water flowing inside a horizontal condenser tube maintains its outside surface at

C. The tube is surrounded by steam at 0.2 atm absolute. Find the outside diameter, in

meters, necessary to produce a turbulent film of condensate at the bottom of

Enthalpy of vaporization = 2.359 106

J/kg

C the properties of the condensate are:

K = 0.626 w/mK; P = 994 kg/m3 ; = 0.68 cp.

1 of 2


Max. Marks: 80

nit area through a 4.0 cm thick

niform temperatures of 38oC and 21

oC.

(6+6+4)

operate at 1623 k. The wall of the reactor

be made up of an inner layer of firebrick

= 0.16 W /mK). This

ture of 1473 K. The ambient

the heat transfer coefficient at the exposed

K. Calculate the thickness of refractory and

magnitude of this loss in W/ m2. Also

(16)

undary layer and define film

s exposed to a flow of air (2m/s) parallel to

t of heat transfer from the plate to the air and the amount of

C . The surface temperature of plate

(8+8)

76 mm diameter,0.6 m long vertical wire at

300 K? The wires resistance is 0.0118 ohms per

(16)

tube maintains its outside surface at

ute. Find the outside diameter, in

ndensate at the bottom of the tube.

(16)

Set No: 1

Code No: V3260/R07

6. a) In a counter heat flow heat exchanger, the hot stream is cooled from 120 to 30oC while the

cold stream temperature changes from 20 to 60oC. If the same exchanger was operated with

parallel flow, what would be the exit temperature of the two streams?�

b) Write short notes on 1-2 shell & tube type exchanger with neat sketch (8+8)

�

7. 5000 kg/hr of a 20% aqueous sodium hydroxide solution enters an evaporator with an inlet

temperature of 333 K. It is concentrated to a product of 50% solids. Calculate the steam used,

steam economy and the heating surface area using the following data.�

Overall hat transfer coefficient = 1560 W/m2 K

Temperature of Saturate steam used = 114.6 0C

Latent heat of steam used = 2214 kJ/kg

Enthalpy of 20% NaOH at 60oC = 214 kJ/kg

Enthalpy of 50% NaOH at 90oC = 50 kJ/kg

Boiling point of 50% NaOH = 90oC

Enthalpy of saturated steam 90oC = 2667 kJ/kg (16)

8. a)What is the importance of sterilization in bio-processing? (8+8)

b)What are the different methods of air sterilization?

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2 of 2

Set No: 1

Code No: V3260/R07



(Biotechnology)




*****

1. (a) Derive an expression for steady state heat conduction through compound resistances a

series of a cylinder.

(b) Explain in detail about the radiation with suitable examples (8+8)

2. A pipe with 150 mm OD is lagged with double layer of insulation-earth of equal thickness,

that is, 50 mm. The thermal conductivity of one of the insulating materials is five times that of

the other. What will be the ratio of heat loss when the better insulating material forms the

outer layer to that of the better insulating material placed next to the pipe. Assume the inner

and outer surface temperatures of the composite insulation are fixed. (16)

3. (a) Describe the phenomena of heat transfer through turbulent boundary layer and define film

heat transfer coefficient.

b) Explain briefly various correlations available for estimation of heat transfer coefficient in

forced convection (8+8)

4. Estimate the heat loss from a vertical wall exposed to nitrogen at one atmosphere and 4 o

C.

The wall is 1.8 m high and 2.45m wide. It is maintained at 50 o

C. For nitrogen at a mean film

temperature the physical properties is as follows:

�=101421 kg/m3, k = 0.02620 W/m.K, �=15.63X10

-6 m

2/s, Pr=0.713 (16)

5. a) Draw heat flux versus temperature curve for pool boiling of saturated liquids and identify

various points in it

b) Explain in detail about the applications of condensation heat transfer (10+6)

6. A shell and tube steam condenser is to be constructed of 2.5 cm OD, 2.2 cm ID, signal pass

horizontal tubes with steam condensing at 54oC on outside of the tubes. The cooling water

enters at 20oC and leaves at 36

oC at a flow rate of 1 kg/s. The heat transfer coefficient for the

condensation of steam is 7900 W. Calculate the tube length. If the latent heat of condensation

is 2454 kJ/kg. Calculate the condensation rate per tube. The properties of water are as follows:

specific heat 4180 J/(kg.oC), viscosity 0.86X10

-3 kg/m.s, thermal conductivity 0.61 W/(m.

oC).

The heat transfer coefficient for turbulent flow in a pipe may be determined by Nu = 0.023

Re0.8

Pr0.4

. (16)

1 of 2

Set No: 2

Code No: V3260/R07

7. A solution of organic colloids in water is to be concentrated from 8 to 45% solids in a single

effect evaporator. Steam is available at a gauge pressure of 1.03 atm. A pressure of 120 mm

Hg absolute is to be maintained in the vapour space. The feed rate to evaporate is 20,000

kg/hr. The overall heat transfer coefficient can be taken as 2,800 W/m2o

C. The solution has a

negligible elevation in boiling point and a negligible heat of dilution. Calculate the steam

consumption the economy and hat surface required if the temperature of the feed is 51.7oC.

The specific heat of the feed is 3.77 J/goC and latent heat of vaporisation of the solution may

be taken equal to that of water. Radiation losses may be neglected.

Latent heat of the solution at 1.958 atm = 517oC 2379 kJ/kg

Latent heat of the steam at 120.5oC = 2200 kJ/kg (16)

8. a) Describe thermal sterilization methods for heat labile components in the culture media.

b) Write a note on the sterilization of the fermenter. (8+8)

2 of 2

Set No: 2

Code No: V3260/R07


HEAT TRANSFER IN BIO

Time: 3 Hours

1. A laboratory furnace wall is constructed of 0.2m th

The furnace inner brick surface is at 1250 K and th

at 310 K. Calculate the steady state he

the interfacial temperature T

2. A chemical reactor, 1 m in diameter and 5 m long, operates at a temper

covered with a 500 mm thickness of lagging of therma

from the cylindrical surface to the surroundings is

coefficient from the surface of the lagging to the

How would he heat loss be altered if the coefficien

3. (a) Explain the boundary layer development for cold

(b) Water flow in a tube (1.5 cm inner diameter) at

wall heat flux of 1000W/m2. Calculate the value of

(i) Local heat transfer coefficient

(ii) (ii) Wall temperature at a section when velocity an

developed and local bulk mean temperature is 40

4. a) Differentiate between natural co

b) Write the important dimensionless numbers that a

c) Write few situations that we will co

5. (a) Explain the regimes of Pool boiling.

(b) Pure saturated potassium vapour at a pressure o

Given (Ts – Tw ) = 50 C and L=1m. Calculate the valule of the condensing

co-efficient if Nusselt’s solution is valid.

W/m-K. = 705 kg/m3



(Biotechnology)

Max. Marks: 80



*****

A laboratory furnace wall is constructed of 0.2m thick fireclay brick having k

The furnace inner brick surface is at 1250 K and the outer surface of the insulation material is

at 310 K. Calculate the steady state heat transfer rate through the wall in W/m

the interfacial temperature T2 between the brick and the insulation.

1 m in diameter and 5 m long, operates at a temperature of 1073 K. It is

overed with a 500 mm thickness of lagging of thermal conductivity 0.1 W/mK. The heat loss

from the cylindrical surface to the surroundings is 3.5 kW. What is the heat transfer

coefficient from the surface of the lagging to the surroundings at a temperature

How would he heat loss be altered if the coefficient were halved?

(a) Explain the boundary layer development for cold horizontal flat plate exposed to ho

(b) Water flow in a tube (1.5 cm inner diameter) at a rate of 0.05 m3/h. It receives a uniform

. Calculate the value of

Local heat transfer coefficient

(ii) Wall temperature at a section when velocity and temperature profiles are fully

developed and local bulk mean temperature is 400 C.

a) Differentiate between natural convection and forced convection

b) Write the important dimensionless numbers that are important in natural convection

c) Write few situations that we will come across natural convection in day to day life

(a) Explain the regimes of Pool boiling.

(b) Pure saturated potassium vapour at a pressure of 100 mm condenses on a vertical surface.

C and L=1m. Calculate the valule of the condensing side heat transfer

efficient if Nusselt’s solution is valid. For potassium= ë = 2077 kJ/kg;

= 0.00016kg/m-sec

1 of 2


Max. Marks: 80

ick fireclay brick having kb=0.07W/m.K.

e outer surface of the insulation material is

at transfer rate through the wall in W/m2, and determine

(16)

ature of 1073 K. It is

l conductivity 0.1 W/mK. The heat loss

3.5 kW. What is the heat transfer

surroundings at a temperature of 293 K?

(16)

horizontal flat plate exposed to hot air

receives a uniform

d temperature profiles are fully

(8+8)

important in natural convection

me across natural convection in day to day life

(6+6+4)

f 100 mm condenses on a vertical surface.

C and L=1m. Calculate the valule of the condensing side heat transfer

K = 35.8

(6+10)

Set No: 3

Code No: V3260/R07

6. The wall of cold storage unit comprises a brick layer (thickness �B=0.1 m, thermal

conductivity KB=1.4 W/mK) and an inner layer of polyethane foam (thickness �p=0.005 m,

thermal conductivity Kp = 0.015 W/mK). Assume one dimensional heat transfer by

conduction through the composite wall, and that the inner surface of the polyethane layer is at

temperature Tc and the outer surface of the brick layer is at temperature Th.

Derive an expression for the heat flux per unit area through the wall.

Calculate the rate of heat gain when Tc=-10°C and Th=40°C. The surface area for heat transfer

is 260 m2. (16)

7. An aqueous solution of a solute is concentrated from 5% to 20% in a single-effect short-tube

evaporator. The feed enters the evaporator at a rate of 10 kg/s and at a temperature of 300 K.

Steam is available at a saturated pressure of 1.3 bar and the corresponding saturation

temperature of steam is 320 K. If the overall heat transfer coefficient is 5000 W/m2K,

Calculate the:

steam economy

Heat transfer surface area. (16)

8. a) How do you describe the effect of temperature on sterilization?

b) What is meant by “inactivation factor”? Give and expression for it. (6+10)

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2 of 2

Set No: 3

Code No: V3260/R07



(Biotechnology)




*****

1. a) A plane wall 0.15 cm thick, of a homogeneous material with k=0.40W/m.K, has steady and

uniform temperatures T1= 20 o

C and T2=70 o

C. Determine the heat transfer rate in the positive

x-direction per square meter of surface area.

b) What are the range of thermal conductivity values for gases, liquids and solids

c) Define black body, grey body and white body (6+4+6)

2. The heat loss through a firebrick furnace wall 0.2 m thickness of insulating brick necessary to

reduce the heat loss to 400 W/m2. The inside furnace wall temperature is 1573 K, the ambient

air adjacent to the furnace exterior is at 293 K and the natural convection heat transfer

coefficient at the exterior surface is given by hC = 3.0�T0.25

W/mK, where �T is the

temperature difference between the surface and the ambient air. (Thermal conductivity of

firebrick = 1.5 W/mK, thermal conductivity of insulating brick = 0.4 W /mK). (16)

3. a) Explain the boundary layer development for cold vertical flat plate exposed to hot air and

hot vertical flat plate exposed to cold air cases.

b) What is thermal diffusivity and write its analogy terms in momentum transfer.

c) Define Nusselt number and Greatz number (8+4+4)

4. Write in detail about the natural convection (16)

5. (a) Explain briefly, the Nusselt’s assumptions in the analysis of heat transfer in film wise

condensation.

(b) Steam is condensing at 1.2 atm in the shell side of a horizontal tubular condenser

containing 100 tubes of 2 cm O.D. arranged in 10 rows. The tube wall temperature is 800

C.

Calculate the steam side heat transfer coefficient in Kcal/hr-m2-0-C, if the properties of water

are K = 0.7 Kcal/hr-m-0C; Cp = 1.2 C cal/kg

0 C. Viscosity = 0.9 Cp. What is the rate of

condensation if the tube is 2 metres? (8+8)

6. An existing shell and tube heat exchanger cools 45360 kg/hr of oil (specific heat = 0.6) from

940 C to 38

0 C by a counter flow of 36000 kg/hr of water entering at 21

0C. It is proposed to

build another heat exchanger of the same dimension but longer in length in order to cool the

same flow of oil to 270C with the same water and water flow. Calculate the ratio of length of

the two tube bundles. (16)

1 of 2

Set No: 4

Code No: V3260/R07

7. A continuous single effect evaporator is to be fed with 6000 kg/hr of a solution

containing 5% wt. The feed is at a temperature of 310 K. It is to be concentrated to a

solution of 8 wt% solute. The evaporation is at atmospheric pressure of 51.33 kPa.

What will be the requirement for the evaporator? Saturated stream is applied at 163.6

kPa for heating. The overall heat transfer coefficient – 176 3 W/m2 K.

Stream Temperature

(k)

Enthalpy, kj/kg

Liquid Vapour

Feed

Product at

51.33 kPa

Steam at

163.6 kPa

310

355.15

387.3

154.9

343.8

478.3

2569.0

2647.1

2697.2

(16)

8. a) Compare and contrast the batch and continuous sterilization processes.

b) Define the efficiency of air filter in sterilization of air.

c) What is meant by Del factor? (8+4+4)

2 of 2

Set No: 4

1-2011

Documents

various section

column section

suggested section

weight of rail section

central section

c section

height of rail section

weight of crane