1) Uncovering the Truths That Have Been Hidden From the Global Consciousness

One of the greatest distortions perpetrated by a league of ancient Jewish clerics and successfully passed onto not only the Jewish people, but on the whole world, including Muslims, was to forge the identity card of Pharoah; the tyrant who lived at the time of Moses (P), and whom Allah has specifically mentioned from among the many tyrants of the ancient world. Our aim here is to show you just how this forgery was done, what were the goals behind it, and how it has contributed to creating one of the greatest delusions that humanity has ever known. We will begin by asking you all the following question: What is the first image that comes to your mind when you are asked to paint a picture of Pharoah? Does the image look like picture #1, or does it look like picture #2?

Picture 1: An image of Pharoah

Picture 2: An image of Pharoah It is not strange that the first thing that will come to the minds of the vast majority of you, Ill say 99.99%, is that of picture #1, which shows one of the kings of the Nile valley. On the other hand, very few people (only 0.01%) will consider picture #2, which shows a traditional Arabian chief or ruler, even one as vile as Abu Sufyan or Al-Waleed Ibn Magheera. However, we can say, for certain, that there is a very tiny minority in our world who, after doing some searching in the darkest and most forgotten corners of history, who know for a fact that the Pharoah of Moses (P) was indeed more like picture #2, and that the figure shown in picture #1 is completely innocent of having anything at all to do with Moses (P) or the Israelites. The reason they keep this knowledge to themselves is simple: They are afraid that the vast majority will ridicule them, or perhaps they fear standing face to face with the Hamans of our age, just as Galileo was afraid of standing face to face with the heads of the Church, back in the Dark Ages, when he discovered that the Earth revolved around the sun, and not the other way around. As for the few men in this world who had the guts to stand up and declare the truth concerning the identity of Pharoah; men like Kamal Salibi, Ibn Qarnas, Ayman Fodah, Ahmad Dawood, Bernard Leeman, and others, did not receive any attention, neither from the media, nor from the

academic institutions of this world (and you all know who controls these institutions). As a result, the truth about the real identity of Pharoah remained hidden, buried under the rampant and traditional beliefs of people. Now, if you are among the majority who chose picture #1, we will ask you another question: what is your proof? To make it simple, we asked this question to a sample of 100 people in an Arab, Islamic country, and the number one answer that 80% of them gave was the following: Its common knowledge. Or parents told us this, and this is what we have always known. The remaining 20% of them pointed to the history books, and media (cinema, documentaries, books, etc) as well as their educational institution, all of which claim that Pharoah was the ruler of Egypt. Our question here is the following: Is common knowledge that is rampant in any society, irrespective of its culture or religious beliefs, necessarily the truth? For example, people in many cultures believe that statues and stone idols of Buddha, Sheeva, the saints, the graves of the Imams, the Wailing Wall, the Kaaba, etcall of them bring these people closer to the Creator. Is this common belief necessarily true? In the ancient world, there was common knowledge that the Earth was the center of the universe, and that the sun revolved around the Earth. This GREEK belief, originating from Aristotle (died 322 B.C) and later supported by Ptolemy, remained rampant in the old world for more than 13 centuries, until Galileo proved it wrong in the 1640 A.D. Was this common belief true? There are nearly one billion Catholics in the world today who believe that God sent his only son to die on the cross in Palestine some 2000 years ago, in order to absolve all humanity of their sins. The question remains: Is this really the truth? Or is it a LIE FABRICATED FOR POLITICAL MANIPULATION?? (Remember this phrase very well, because we will be returning to it very often, later on: A LIE FABRICATED FOR POLITICAL MANIPULATION). What we will say here is that any Muslim who takes any piece of information or knowledge as unquestionable truth, just because his parents or political leaders or religious figures say it is so, is going completely against the orders of the Quran and the warnings of Allahs messengers, and has only himself to blame for the consequences of his inherited beliefs. {And if they are told: "Come to what God has sent down, and to the messenger;" they say: "We are content with what we found our fathers doing." What if their fathers did not know anything nor were guided?}[5:104] {They said: "We found our fathers worshipping them."}[21:53] {And they will say: Our Lord, we have obeyed our leaders and our learned ones, but they misled us from the path}[33:67] According to the vast majority of Muslims, the word Misr which appears a total of 7 times in the Quran indicates Egypt, the Nile Country. Even Freeminds has adopted this common

translation of the word. As a result, it is common knowledge among them that Moses (P) and the Israelites were there, and that Pharoah was the title given to the rulers of Egypt, one of whom persecuted Moses and his people. Is this common knowledge necessarily the truth? Is it not open to debate? Is it really unquestionable? The fact is, the Quran does indeed say that Pharoah was the supreme ruler of Misr. We are not questioning that. In fact, Pharoah himself declares it: {And Pharaoh proclaimed among his people: O my people, do I not possess the kingship of Misr, and these rivers that flow under me? Do you not see?}[43:51] What we are questioning is, precisely: Does the word Misr actually mean Egypt? In order to answer this question, let us ask the people of the modern-day Republic of Egypt (since we are assuming - for the sake of argument only - that Pharaoh was indeed there, in the ancient times): What was the name that they called their country by, during the 6th Century A.D, which is the period when the Quran was revealed to Muhammad (P)? If we can find some piece of evidence, perhaps a formal letter or note exchanged between Arabia and the Nile country at that time, it will help us answer this question. According to Islamic traditions, the prophet Muhammad (P) sent several letters to the leaders of the neighboring empires, inviting them to embrace Islam, for their own sake. One of these letters was sent to the leader of the Nile Country (under Roman mandate), whose title was AlMuqawqas. Here is the translation of what the letter said: In the name of God, the Rahman, the Raheem. From Muhammad, son of Abdullah, to AlMuqawqas, Highest of the "Qibt": Peace be on those who follow the guidance. I hereby call upon you to embrace Islam, that you may be saved, and Allah will repay you twice. If you deny, you shall bear the responsibility for the sins of the Qibt As is made clear by the letter, Muhammad (P) called the leader of Egypt under Roman mandate Azheemul-Qibt. And this word, Qibt, was the name given by the Arabs, during Muhammads time, to the great country that lay across the Red Sea, and its people were known as Aqbat. Do you see the words Misr (to denote the land) or Misriyyoun (to denote its people) appear anywhere in Muhammads letter? In fact, Muhammad (P), strictly abided by the known protocols of international diplomacy at the time, as is made evident by the other letters he sent to other rulers. For instance, he addressed Heraclius, the Emperor of Byzantine Rome at the time as Heracl, Azeem ul Room. He addressed Khosrau, the King of Persian as Kisra, Malik ul Furs . And he addressed the Negus, ruler of Ethiopia as Al- Najashi, Azheem ul Habasha. It is as clear as the sun that the terms Room (Romans), Furs (Persians), and Habasha (Ethiopia) denote NATIONALITIES, and COUNTRIES not RELIGIONS. By the same logic, Al-Qibt denotes the country, and Al-Aqbat denotes their nationality. In fact, tradition also tells us that one of Muhamads wives was named Maria al-Qubtiyya.

This means she was Egyptian. And these same traditions also tell us that later on she embraced Islam, and despite this, she still retained the nickname Al-Qubtiyya, even after she became Mother to the Believers. This proves that the title of Qubti in its true, original meaning, denoted the Egyptian NATIONALITY. Hence, ALL Egyptians were called Aqbat by the Arabs, not just the Christians from among them, as is rampant today.

Picture 3: Letter purpotedly written by Muhamad's (P) own hand, and addressed to "AlMuqawqas" Regardless if the letter shown above was indeed written by the hand of Muhamad himself or not, just take a good look at the script. The way the words are written (no punctuation or accentuation marks on the letters) indicate that it must have been no later than the late 8th Century. So even if someone forged that letter and claimed that Muhamad (P) wrote it, it still doesnt change the fact that Egypt was in fact known to the Arabs as "Al-Qibt", at least until the end of the 8th Century A.D. Anyone who is familiar with the Arabic manuscripts of teh Quran, for example, can easily confirm this. So where did the name Misr come from then? This is the whole purpose of our search. Until now, we have seen that the Nile Country, during Muhamads time, was known as AlQibt. But this still doesnt tell us what the land was called during Pharoah s era, which came 1,900 years before Muhamads time (remember: we are still assuming for the sake of argument that Pharoah was the ruler of Egypt). So let us take a trip through history, to see just what that land was called during the ancient times. Perhaps it was called Misr during Pharaohs time, and then later on became Qibt? Lets check.

- The Nile Valley during ancient times: Historians generally agree to divide the history of Egypt into 2 periods: The Old Age (or Historic Age), and the Age of Dynasties (or Royal Age). During the Old Age, the land was divided into several, independent provinces, which gradually starting coming together, until they formed two big regions: Upper Egypt (the interior part) and Lower Egypt (the coastal part, which includes the Nile Delta area). Each of these two regions had its own ruler. This status remained until the year 3020 B.C, when king Narmer united both parts for the first time, and thus began the Age of Dynasties, which witnessed the rise of 30 royal families starting from Narmer of the first Dynasty, and ending with the Ptolemic Era, when Alexander the Great conquered Egypt in the year 332 B.C. What was the name of the land back then? During the Historic age, the Nile Valley was not yet unified. As a result, the historians and archeologists have not found a name for it, because it was composed of scattered towns and villages. It was not until the second age, when a unified name for the country finally emerged. This name was Kemet or Keme, as is evident in the hieroglyphs unearthed from the Nile. And this name, when translated, means The Black Soil, which is thought to indicate the fertility of the Nile valley. Some archeologist claimed that the country later became known as Het-Ka-Ptah, named so after the famous Egyptian Deity Ptah. However, the majority of academics dont agree on this isse, as they claim the name was given only to a particular region or city, not the entire valley. Whatever the case, we have three names that have been proposed as the original name of the Nile Country (Keme, Kemet, Het-Ka-Ptah) and NONE of them bear any semblance or relation to Misr whatsoever. - The Nile Valley Under Persian Rule: The Persians ruled the Nile Valley during two, separate, periods. The first was from the year 525 B.C until the year 404 B.C (total of 5 kings, the last of whom was Darius II) while the second, shorter period, came from 341 B.C until 332 B.C, when the Persians were expelled by the Greeks. And throughout the rule of the Persians, there is not a single record or archeological trace, whether in the Nile Valley or in Persia, that indicates that the Persians changed the name of the country. - Name of the Nile Valley during the Greek and Roman eras: The Ptolemic Age began in 332 B.C, under King Ptolemy son of Lagos (Ptolemy I), and ended with the Roman conquest of 30 B.C, under Emperor Augustus. We have decided to include both these periods together, because the trace they left on the names of the towns and the administrative divisions was mostly the same. The only exception was that the Greeks changed some of the names of the cities because they could not pronounce their original, native names. For example, the city of Mem-Noffer became Memphis, while Kheem became Litopolis. But about the entire country? What name did they give to it?

The Greeks and Romans have left us one name, that has endured until now. This name, as it appears on the Greek maps, was Aegyptus. On the Roman maps, it appears as Egyptus.

Ancient Greek map, showing the name Aegyptus

Roman map By Marcus Vispanius (year 20 A.D) And it is this name, E-gypt-us that is pronounced Qobt (or "Qibt") in Arabic. As for the name Misr, we did not find a SINGLE archeological trace for it until that time. We did not find ONE town that bore it. We did not find a single map that showed it. Throughout the 5000 year history of that ancient land , there has never been a single indication, in all of the ancient world, that the Nile country was ever called Misr, or anything even remotely resembling Misr by anyone. EVER. How can the name of such an ancient and famous land be changed like that? How can it be given a name that never existed in its entire history? While if you look at the two maps above, you will note that Libya maintained its same name since the Greek age, until today, despite the fact that Libya was far less influential and important than Egypt in the politics of the ancient world. Who was behind this forgery? - The Originality of the Word Egypt. In our present day, whenever a resident of the Nile country wants to introduce himself to an

American or a European, he says to them: I am Egyptian (Meaning: I am a Qibty), without even being aware of it. Yet when he is talking to an Arab person, he will say I am Misri!! This is truly a mind-boggling phenomenon that we dont see anywhere else in the world. The reason why Westerners arent familiar with the term Misr or Misri, is because they chose to stick to the ORIGINAL name of that land, which is Aegyptus Egyptus. And can we blame them? Put yourselves in their place: Do you approve of changing the original and ancient name of a great land or kingdom, like China, or Persia, or India, just because some ignorant fool during the ABBASID AGE, decided, with a stroke of a pen, to give it a new name in his records? Now you will ask me: What is your proof that Al-Qibt is the original name of the Nile Country? I will tell you that: EGYPT = QIBT. Can it be any simpler than that? This is the real name of the Nile Country that has been known in the East and West since forever. And it was the name known by Muhamad (P) and the Arabs during his time. Who the Hell are we to change it? On the other hand, I defy you to be able to analyze the word Misr and to be able to find one common, unified, name that even remotely resembles it, in all corners of the world like we did with Egypt without twisting the word to make it fit by force. Going back to the originality of the word Qibt (Or Qobt as some pronounce it), we can say for certain that this name is much much older than was first thought. It goes back to an age even far earlier than 3020 B.C, when Narmer unified both regions of the land. This name appears in the Legend of Osiris, which was related to us by the Greek historian Plutarch. The legend states that: When Isis learned of the death of her husband, Osiris, at the hands of Set, she wore the black shroud and mourned him, in great sadness, and she cut the curls of her hair from the weight of the catastrophe, and the land became known, since then, as Koptos meaning the land that weeps/mourns. And she went to look for her husbands body, for Set had thrown it in the Nile. And that, folks, is the story of the name. Koptos Coptos Qobt Qibt Egypt. It is a name that goes back in originality over 5000 years. Where does Misr fit in? You tell me? Just how in the Hell did Egypt become Misr?. Did Allah, in His final message to mankind, decide to name it so? Is it possible that Allah, who is quoting Pharoah himself in the Quran (43:51) label the land with a name it never new in its entire history?

WHAT HAPPENED TO OUR BRAINS??? Do we ever think? Where did the name Misr come from then? This is what we will answer soon. For now, I think the picture has become clear to you: The term Qobty Qibty is the Arabic term that must be used to describe ALL Egyptians, whether they are Muslims or Christians. This name is their national identity that has been hijacked from them by some criminals of the Abbasid Age, and replaced with the forged name Misr. Have you ever asked yourselves why the Christians of Egypt call themselves "COPTS" - Qibty" (Aqbat in the plural form?). It is because, without being aware of it, they kept their original identity name! In truth, there is no religious sect called Qibty. This is a fallacy. The Christians of Egypt are no different than their Greek Orthodox fellows in Lebanon, Syria, or even Russia. Same belief system, same rituals, and same spiritual reference (the Eastern Church). And the Muslims of the Nile country today, had better realize that they too are Aqbat. They are Muslim Aqbat. Simple as that To be continued

I will continue this thread.. Let me start by clearing a few things out, first: Quote Otherwise you must use the quran in order to proove that Egypt isnt masr. I most certainly will. Until now, I have relied only on a few maps, traces from Arab traditions, and some realities on the ground. Once we get to the serious parts (archeology + analysis of the Quranic verses), you will deduce by yourself that the word "misr" is NOT a proper noun, nor does it indicate a country, and that the geography of the events mentioned in chapter 12 of the Quran (which relates the story of the prophet Joseph) could not possibly have taken place in Egypt. They took place in a mountainous country, and along a trade route. Quote I would also like to point out tht root mSr in rabic has a meaning which deals with settlement, settlements, cities, populated and built areas. It is quite possible, s is now th csase in Egypt that a populated and built place, specially big, like Cairo, be called MaSr. My guess is that it is that its use as a proper name is an extension of its primary meaning. So a settlement, you call that the settlement par excellence, the one you have at hand, the one which is important to you.

At last, the voice of reason has spoken! You have lept ahead of me there. Even today, our fellow Egyptians (both Christians and Muslims) when they are travelling to Cairo, they will say: "We are going down to 'misr'". However, as soon as they reach Cairo, they drop the word 'misr' from their speech, and switch to Cairo instead! Isn't that strange? There is something deep-rooted in the memory of all Egyptians, which causes them to link their capital, Cairo, with the word "misr". And this thing originated with the Arab conquest of Egypt, which happened some 20 years after Muhamad's (P) death, as you will soon see. @Noon dhe plume: First thing you should know is that the Quran did NOT borrow words from any other language. Arabic doesn't need to borrow any words from Greek, because Arabic is eons older than Greek. It's the other way around, actually. Stecchini was right. The reason some people THINK there are non-Arabic words in the Quran is purely due to their ignorance of the Arabic roots. And this ignorance also causes them to produce supernatural and mythological interpretations for it. For example: IF you look at most translations of the Quran, you will see that the word "Iblees" is kept as it is - untranslated - because it is perceived as a proper noun of a supernatural creature. These same people will tell you that the Quran borrowed it from the Greek word "di-abolos" (diablos). This is absolutely ridiculous and unfounded. The word "Iblees" from the root verb "balasa" state: DESPAIR.

comes

. From it, we can derive the plural adjective "mublisoon" as well as the wrod "Iblas" , which denotes a certain mental or emotional{Surely, the criminals will abide in the retribution of jahannam * It will not be removed from them; and they will be full of despair (mublisoon) therein}.... 43:74,75

{Until We open for them a door of immense retribution, then they become full of despair (mublisoon)}.... 23:7 It is obvioulsy an original Arabic word (and a common noun, at that) or else how can you explain all its derivatives?

Another Example:

The word "Shaytan" is thought of as a non-Arabic word, taken from the Latin "Satanicus" (Satan). HOGWASH!! It's the other way around. Latin took it from Arabic. The word comes from the root

, which means: to go far, or become distant. The Arabic expression "Bi'r shatoon" means "deep well" (a well whose bottom is very far and distant). Hence, al-Shaytan is the tendency inside each and everyone ofverb "Shatana" us to "distance ourself from the universal divine laws". And as a result of this, we end up in despair (state of "iblas", from which comes "iblees"). I can give you dozens of examples, but since Arabic is not your mother tongue, you probably won't understand what I'm jabbering about. Besides, I don't want to stray from the subject, anyway. Now concerning the Amarna Tablets, first thing you need to know is that they were not written in Hieroglyphic, but in cuniform Akkadian, which appears to have been the language of diplomacy back then. The word "MISR" does NOT exist in the Ancient Egyptian language, and no trace of it appears in any hieroplyphic ruins (nor does the word "Pharoah" for you information). I can say this with 100% confidence. It is a Semitic word, as Huruf pointed out, but there is no proof that it was the proper noun for the Nile country, in teh Akkadian language. And even if it was, it is totally irrelevent to our argument, because the Quran is quoting Pharoah directly:

{And Pharaoh proclaimed among his people: O my people, do I not possess the kingship of Misr, and these rivers that flow under me? Do you not see?}[43:51] It is Pharoah himself who is speaking there. So, if we are assuming that Pharoah was king of the Nile Valley, this means that he was calling his own land "Misr", and expecting his people (teh listeners) to understand him. If you scroll back up to my first post, you will note that the methodology we built the entire search on was to ask the people of EGYPT ITSELF, what THEY called their land in the old times. Not what OTHER people called it. So if the Accadians called Egypt "Misr", I could care less, and it it is totally irrelevent to our discusion, because Pharoah was not a mesopotamian ruler. There is ZERO archeological proof in Egypt itself, that the land was ever called "Misr" BY THE EGYPTIANS THEMSELVES. Every evidence found suggests either "Kheme", "Keme" or "Kemet" as the name of the land, with "Koptos" as a possible adjective for it. Quote I too have seen programmes about Palestine having no link to what's in the Torah and also saw a programme about Yemen and a city discoved there with ritual baths which was taken by jews but it's thanks to your showing clearly all proofs that we now know. In the same series they alos

showed where kingdom of Sheba existed and said that excavation showed the garden which matched the description given in the Qur'an. My friend, there are secrets burried under Asir and Yemen that we could only dream of. Arabia has not seen 1% of what it deserves in terms of archeological excavation. Once that land is allowed to speak, and spill forth its contents, you can rest assured that it will turn everything we know about history upside down. The Saudi and Yemeni rulers are sitting on their asses having no idea what is burried under their feet. The reason they don't dig is not because they don't want to "violate the sacntity of the dead"". This is just an excuse. It's because they are AFRAID. Afraid of what they may find. But the memory of the people who live in those areas, contains all the stories of the prophets whom we have always thought lived elsewhere. ________ Peace....

Let's go on now....

2) Pharoah or Pharoas? Since the only reliable source of information for Muhamad (P) concerning the identity of Pharoah was the Quran, let us then return to Allahs scripture and read it carefully, and with reflection. The first thing that strikes us is the fact that the Quran NEVER mentions Pharoahs in the plural form. There was only ONE person, mentioned in the Quran, who went by that name or title, and that person was EXCLUSIVELY the tyrant during Moses time. Yet how did the misguided Muslims deal with this truth? They transformed the singular into plural, thus sending the wrong message to their awareness, by using the term Pharaos in the plural, until eventually, it became common knowledge among the masses that there was more than one Pharoah! So let us read the Quran carefully, and let its verses direct our beliefs, not the other way around. If you go to the search box in the Freeminds Quran translation and type in the word Pharaoh (and by the way the correct spelling is Pharoah, not Pharaoh) it will give you all the Chapters and verses in which this name appears. The word Pharoah appears no less than 50 times in the Quran, and not ONCE does it appear in the plural noun. You can go and check anytime you like.

One of the great delusions of our time is that there were over 100 Pharoahs who ruled Egypt, starting from king Narmer, and ending with Cleopatra. The great catastrophy that we are not aware of is that the Quran completely denies this, and tells us very clearly that after Pharoah and his men drowned, the Israelites eventually inherited the entire land! Open your eyes and read this: {And We let the people who were weak inherit the east of the land and the west of it which We have blessed. And the good word of your Lord was completed towards the Children of Israel for their patience; and We destroyed what Pharaoh and his people were doing, and what they contrived}[7:137] {So Pharaoh sent gatherers to the cities * "These are but a small band." * "And they have done what has enraged us." * "And we are all gathered and forewarned." * So, We evicted them out of gardens and springs * And treasures and an honorable station * As thus, We made the Children of Israel inherit it}[26:53-59] What have we here? Something that the Muslims have never paid attention to, unfortunately. The Quran is telling us that the Israelites INHERITED everything that Pharoah left behind! Has anyone in this world ever even heard a passing reference of Bani Israel having inherited or ruled the land of Egypt around 1300 BC? (the presumed date of Moses). This is why, in the entire Quran, we do not see the name or title Pharoah ever mentioned before or after Moses time. The proof: Go and read Chapter 12 of the Quran, which recounts the story of the Prophet Joseph. Allahs book which the Muslims have thrown behind their backs tells us that the title of the ruler of the land during Josephs time was Al-Malik (the king). And his assistant was titled Al-Aziz (meaning He Who Has High Station or something of the sort). THERE IS NO MENTION OF PHAROAH ANYWHERE DURING JOSEPHS TIME, even though it is presumed that Joseph came 150-200 years before Moses. No, my dear brothers and sisters. There was only ONE PHAROAH, and that is EXCLUSIVELY the title of the tyrant who persecuted Moses and his followers. Try to imagine this: One of the Kings of England (Edward) was labeled Longshank by the people. (Maybe he had a physical deformity, or his arm was long meaning he stole too much from the treasury). Does this mean that ALL the kings of England who came after him must also be called Longshanks, just because one of them bore that title? Of course not! And yet, for some reason, thats exactly what the Muslims did to the rulers of the place referred to in the Quran as misr. They projected the title of ONE PARTICULAR RULER, Pharoah, to all those who ruled before and after him!! This is a complete fallacy and is a screaming contradiction to what the Quran is telling us. How the Hell could there be other Pharoahs? The man drowned along with his followers, and died, and thats it. Where are our brains? So where do we look for this tyrant then? Do we look for him in Egypt? Absolutely not. There is ZERO archeological evidence of there ever having been a Moses or Israelites in the land of the Nile. Not one shred of evidence has ever been uncovered to even remotely suggest this.

The next question is:

3) When did Moses (P) live? Historians cant really pin-point the exact date. If you read everything that was ever written about this subject, you will find yourself in the range of anywhere between 1500 BC and 1200 BC, with 1250 BC as the approximate date of the Great Exile (as the Jews call it). So now, let us check out the names of all the rulers of Egypt (since we are assuming Moses was there) in that time period, to see who the possible candidates for Pharoah are. We found that the period coincides with the 18th and 19th Dynasties: Here follows the name of the ruler, his given title as shown in the hieroglyphic writings, (in brackets) and the year of his reign, as is agreed upon by the vast majority of experts on this issue: 18th Dynasty 1. Ahmose I (Neb-Bahti-Ra) 1550 1525 BC 2. Imhotep I (Jesr-Ka-Ra) 1525 1504 BC 3. Tahutmose I (Aa-Khabr-Ka-Ra) 1504 BC 1492 BC 4. Tahutmose II (Aa-Khabr-An-Ra) ? (alternated with his successor) 5. Tahutmose III (Men-Khabr-Ra) ? (alternated with his precedor) 6. Hatshepsut queen (Maat Kara) 1473 1458 BC 7. Imhotep II (Aa-Khabro-Ra) 1427 1401 BC 8. Tahutmose IV (Men-Khabro-Ra) 1401 1391 BC 9. Imhotep III (Neb-Maat-Ra) 1391 1353 BC 10. Imhotep IV (Akhnaton) 1353 BC (labeled a madman / started a religious revolution/ didnt last long) 11. Nefer Khebro (Wa-An-Ra) 1353 1335 BC 12. Semenkara (Aankh-Khabro-Ra) 1335 1333 BC (was assassinated) 13. Tutankhamon (Unknown) 1333 1324 BC (rose to the throne at the age of 9, and died at age 18) 14. Ai (Khabro-Ra) 1323 1319 BC 15. Hor-Mheb (Jesr-Khabro-Ra) 1319 1307 BC

19th Dynasty 16. Ramses I (Men-Bahty-Ra) 1306 1307 BC 17. Seti I (Men-Maat-Ra) 1306 1290 BC 18. Ramses II (Osir-Maat-Ra-Setep-An-Ra) 1290 1224 BC (#1 Candidate for THE Pharoah) 19. Merneptah (Ban-Ra-Hotep-Er-Maat) 1224 1214 BC (#2 candidate for THE Pharoah) 20. Seti II (Osir-Khebro-Ra-Setep-An-Ra) 1214 BC 1204 BC 21. Amonmes (unknown) 1204 (led a short-lived rebellion; didnt last long) 22. Septah (unknown) 1204 1198 BC 23. Towsert queen (unknown) 1198 1196 BC

There, you have in front of you the names of more than 20 of Egypts rulers, covering a time span of over 300 years, to guarantee that the age of Moses (P) falls within the reign of one of them. I ask you now: Do you see, in the above list of names or titles anything that even remotely resembles the word pharaoh? Can you twist any of the above names or titles to make it into pharaoh? We should note here that the Jews usually point to Ramses II as the most likely candidate for the tyrant who persecuted Moses (P). Do you see in Ramses name or title (Osir-Maat-Ra-Setep-AnRa) anything that resembles the word pharoah? In addition, please note that the titles of these rulers, as was discovered from the translation of the Hieroglyphic murals, always carry the meaning of servitude or glorification to their prime deity, Ra (note how the name Ra is common in every one of the titles). So for example, the king of Egypt would be addressed as such: Ramses II, Eternal Servant of Ra. Or, for example: Seti II , Watchful Eye of Ra, etc And thes titles always came AFTER the name of the king, not before it. How is it possible that they carried these titles of servitude and glorification to their deity, when the Quran says, from the tongue of Pharoah himself: {And Pharaoh said: "O you elites! I have not known of any rabb for you other than me! O Haman, fire-up the mud (clay) and make for me a high platform, so perhaps I may take a look at the god of Moses; though I think he is one of the liars." }[28:38] And When he says: {I am your supreme rabb} ?? Is the Quran talking about a king of the Nile Valley? Or are we missing something?? Did the Egyptians build their high platforms and lofty temples from mud hardened by fire? Or did they make them from solid stones? There is only one spot of land on the entire planet that has been known to make skyscrapers from mud, and to have them endure for hundreds of years, and it is not Egypt. Soon I will show you where that land is. The great Syrian scholar of mythology and ancient religions, Dr. Firas al Sawwah, in his book entitled The Torah and Ancient Near East on page 98, says: Quote As for the date of the Exile, there is a general consensus that it was around 1260 BC, during the time of Ramses II.However, despite the enormous effort made by archeologists in trying to find a historic basis for this story, they have failed miserably, and the thousands of hieroglyphic texts unearthed in Egypt have remained silent on this event that is so central and paramount in the TorahTo even think that 600,000 persecuted slaves escaped through the delta area and made their way across any body of water towards the Sinai desert, where they succeeded in causing the Pharoah himself to drown, and that the records of that period which is considered

the most richly and intricately documented period in the history of Egypt did not mention ANYTHING about such an event, is out of the question.

The Exile from Egypt is a myth. It never happened. What is even more shocking is the following fact: There is absolutely no proof and I mean ZERO PROOF that the title of Pharoah was ever used to describe the rulers of Egypt!! Thats right, brothers and sisters. You heard it right. If you review the names and titles of ALL the rulers of united Egypt, from King Narmer in 3020 BC, all the way to the year 332 BC when the Greeks conquered Egypt, you will not find a single trace of the word Pharoah ANYWHERE in Egypt. Not on the walls of the templenot on the murals of the pyramidsnot in the papyrus documents or diplomatic letters sent to and from EgyptNOT ANYWHERE doe the title Pharoah exist in Egypt. The people of Egypt did not name their rulers Pharoah. Moreover, that word doesnt even fit with the phonetics of the ancient Egyptian tongue. It is totally ALIEN to their culture. This word was hijacked and forced into ancient Egyptian culture by means of a great forgery which we will soon expose to you. The modern experts in the field of hieroglyphics tried in vain, for many long years, to find even one word in the political protocols of Egypt that is anywhere close to the word Pharoah which appears in the Torah, until finally, after some agonizing efforts, they found a single, orphan solution to the problem. In fact, this solution was the accomplishment of one man, a scholar by the name of James Henry, who claimed the following: Quote And so, as the years passed, the Egyptian people began to call the government The Great House. Then, eventually, it became the title of the king. And this title, in their ancient language, was pronounced br-aa. And the Israelis later on adopted it as Pharoahand how numerous were the symbolic and figurative adjectives that the subjects of the Egyptian court used to describe their king! There you have it folks! The origin of the corruption. Are you convinced by Mr. Henrys claim? The claim that the compound hieroglyphic expression br-aa (meaning the Great House or Great Court) was the origin of the word Pharoah is not only false (which is why most objective academics have rejected it), but is also plain comical and downright ridiculous, as we will soon prove. The goal of Mr. Henry and others of his ilk, in propagating this lie, was to force the word Pharoah into the culture of the ancient Egyptians, at any cost and by any means, in order to give historic credence to the claim that the events described in the Torah took place in Egypt. On this occasion, I would like to address the Muslims, who claim that they resort to the Quran for guidance by saying: If you accept the twisted logic of Mr. Henry, then you have to accept that when Allah told Moses (P):{Go to Pharoah, for he has transgressed}[20:24]

Allah actually meant to say Go to the Great House, for he has transgressed. Are you confortable with this conclusion dear readers? The truth of the matter is that the word Pharoah , which appears in the Quran as Faroun (exact transliteration: Far3oun) is NOT the Hebrew nor the Greek translation for br-aa. It is nothing but a sad, and pathetic attempt to force the word Pharoah into the culture of the Egyptians, for reasons that will soon become apparent to you. You want more evidence that the title doesnt exist? Why dont we take a look at some translated Hieroglyphic cartouches, to see how the ancient Egyptian speech was actually pronounced, in order to see if the word br-aa appears anywhere in the mention of the king. The following is a table which shows the translation of several cartouches, as examined on the pyramid murals, all of which mention the king. You will note that the cartouches have two words in common: Hor (which is an allusion to Horus-Ra, their main deity), and Tetti which denotes the king. I will show you the sentence in English, followed by the transliteration (actual pronunciation) in parenthesis.

Cartouche 563/A: The mouth of the King is as incense, and the lips of the King are as myrrh (djed merdu re en teti em senetjer sepeti teti em onetiu)

Cartouche 563 / B: Descend, O King, to the field of your mate, Ka. To the field of your servants (hhai teti em sekhet ka eke er sekhet hetep) Cartouche 563 / C: The food of the King is like the food on the ship of the god (noret khefat net teti mi netjer depet) Cartouche 564 / A: The reign of the King is more than a year, and his servants more plenty than the Nile (onekh teti ir renepet aut teti er hep)

Cartouche 609 / A: O, King Osir, rise. Hor has come, and He calls you among the gods (djed merdu usir teti pu oho ere k heru ip ef tju em o netjeru en tju heru).

Do you see the word Pharaoh appearing on any of these cartouches? Still not convinced? You think this is my own opinion? Heres a few links you might want to check out: http://ashraf62.wordpress.com/2011/06/18/ancient-egypt-had-no-pharaohs-2/ http://www.aldokkan.com/society/pharaoh.htm (read what it says in the 6th row of the table, under Titles) Dear brothers and sisters: I promise you that in years to come, more and more scientists and archeologists will come and have the courage to speak, and to expose one of the greatest delusions that humanity has ever known. The truth is beginning to dawn as we speak, and the awakening has begun. Egypt had KINGS and QUEENS. It did NOT have Pharoahs. So now we come to the critical question: Just what does the word mean? Since I have shown you, in my response to member Noon dhe plume, that the Quran contains only Arabic words, and does not borrow ANYTHING from other languages, I will now tell you what the word Far3oun actually means. If you are a native Arabic speaker, prepare yourself for the shock of your life: The word "Far3oun"

is made up of the root

+ the suffix

.

Now if

you go and open the old Arabic lexicons, and look up the meaning of the word Far3

,

you will get:

Far3 (verb): to lead the people or head the community Far3 (noun): That which is high or standing tall. The suffix oun used in Arabic to denote something small, or to belittle something. Like for example: Abd-Abdoun (a small adb). Saad-Saadoun (a small saad). HamadHamdoun (a small hamad). It is used mostly as a nickname for children. FOr example, if a kid is named "Zayd" , he gets the playful title "Zaydoun" (which means, mini Zayd, or small Zayd). But when used for an adult, and in a certain context, it can be demeaning and derogatory. And that is EXACTLY how the Quran meant it to be. The word Far3oun is not a Hebrew or a Greek term. It is a 100% genuine Arabic word, which means Little Chief or Small Leader. In its essence, it is a demeaning and belittling title given to that tyrant, and has absolutely nothing to do with br-aa (the Great House), and NOTHING to do with Egypt.

The events did not take place in the Nile country. WAKE UP FROM YOUR DELUSION. Far3oun is the title given by the Quran to ONE and ONLY ONE person: The chief or boss of a fortified trade citadel, who persecuted Moses(P) and the Israelites. And in time, I will show you where these events took place ________________ Peace.... Quote Brother Pazuzu, The Egyptians built bricks out of mud(clay) and reeds baked in the sun (or heated). The same thing which is said in the Quran 28:38 Pharaoh said, "O commanders, I have not known of any god for you other than me. Therefore, O Haman, fire up(fa-awqid) the bricks (l-ni means clay) and build me a platform, so perhaps I may take a look at the god of Moses! I am certain he is a liar." So where is the inconsistency you are talking about? The Egyptians built their HOUSES from mud. The houses of the common people. Not their temples, graves, or Pyramids. Those were made from solid rock, which they took from quarries. Can you show me a siingle Egyptian temple or pyramid made from mud? It is clear from the verse that "Far3oun" was asking from some towering structure to be built, so he could look upon "Moses's God". Can you show me where there is such a structure in Egypt? Quote Please this complete nonsense! How can you say the word "pharaoh" is not a name that the Egyptians used??? You have to remember that OTHER PEOPLE lived during the antiquities and had lived during the period when the Egyptians still had power(or were declining in power)! So the term "Pharaoh" had to have been a COMMON TERM back then used to describe the Egyptian rulers. The Egyptian empire WAS WELL KNOWN So alot of the simple things like what was the name of there leader was obviously known during the antiquities and EVERYONE ELSE THAT LIVED DURING THE FALL OF THE EGYPTIAN EMPIRE! Read the records of the Alexander's conquest and the empowerment of his subordinates after his death!!! Didn't Ptolemy (one of Alexander's subordinate) rule Egypt??? Do you think that he didn't know what the people called the ruler of Egypt???

NO, it was not a "common term" back then. This was a term that the Septuagint priests injected

into the culture of Egypt. the Ehyptians called their rulers "teti", which means KING, as I showed you in the cartouches. THere famous graveyard over there is called the "Valley of the KINGS" (NOT teh Valley of the Pharoahs). But you stubbornly insist on ignoring the archeological evidence I have provided. THe word "Pharoah" was taken from the Aramaic Torah. It is a SEMITIC WORD, not an ancient Egyptian word. Once I prove to you that Aramaic was nothing but a dialect of the Mother Tongue (Arabic), you will then understand that it was derived from "Far3oun", which means "small chief". Quote Are you serious brother? Yes, I am dead serious. THe archeologists were baffled by the word "Pharoah" because there is absolutely no mention of it anuwhere in the culture of the Nile Valley. The only ancient Egyptian word they found that remotely resembles it is "brr-aa" (or "prr-aa"), which literally means "Great House" or "Great Court". Once they found that word, some of them jumped to the conclusion that the so-called "Hebrews" must have corrupted it into "Pharoah". The fact is, the Egyptian kings were never called "Great House". If you even bothered to read that link I posted, you would have seen the proof. In case you didn't, I will save you this trouble. In one of their temples, they found the following poem glorifying their prime deity, Ra. The translation of the hieroglyphs reads:

Homage to thee o thou lord of brightness thou who art at the head of the great house (pr-aa) prince of night and of thick darkness he comes to thee being a pure soul ..o, grant thou unto him His mouth that he may speak therewith, At the season when there are clouds And darkness As you can see, the ancient Egyptian used to refer to their supreme god as "the head of the great house"(Not the Great House ITSELF). Furthermore, that was the epithet of Amun-Ra in many of their religious texts., and it had NOTHING to do with their kings. Once I reach the part of the article that deals with the Septuagint forgery, and how they projected the events which took place in a land which the Torat called "Misraim" onto Egypt, then you will understand how the word "Pharoah" was introduced, by means of this forgery, into the culture of ancient Egypt. For now, it is enough to know that the title never existed in Egypt. Quote

Also remember that Ptolemy's time was before the rise of Roman empire. Did I ever claim otherwise? If so, please show me where I have done so. Quote Also why are you surprised brother that there is no proof of Moses ever existing in Egypt? What person who has high esteemed for there culture would record anything about a man with a stick defeating an empire. Isn't that cause for shame? Oh, is it? Well pray explain to me why the Egyptian records, which mentioned details as trivial as the shape of their king's stool, failed to mention ANYTHING about the alledged 600,000 "Hebrew" slaves who were forced into menial labor in building the pyramids. Can you explain that? Better yet, can you explain why there is ZERO mention of pyramids in the Torah? Was that an oversight by the scribes? So are we to believe that The Torah, which described, in detail, the striped shirt worn by the Prophet Joseph (P) "forgot" to mention those towering structures, that remained, for 5000 years, the most spectacular works of construction made by the hands of man? For how long do we have to believe in this nonsense? Quote Please name one who made it plural. It is 74 times in Grand Qur'aan Name one who made it plural? I never said that. What I said was very clear, but you seemed to have misunderstood. I said that the Quran calls ONLY ONE person by the title of "Far3oun". And that person was STRICTLY the tryant during Moses' time, who ruled a WALLED AND FORTIFIED TRADE CITADEL (as I will soon prove to you). There were no "Pharoas" before him, and no "Pharoas" after him. Can I be any more clear than this? However, there is a common belief now which says there were over 100 "Pharoas", and that they were the rulers of Egypt. THAT'S what I meant to say.

@Noon dhe plume Quote Peace jeffry -- a few snippets taken from the article... Go ahead.. Take as many snippets as you want from that article. And yes, there IS mention in the Arabic books of tradition that the wife of "Faroun", whose

name they claim was "Asia", had an Arabic name. Even some historians (notably Yaqoot al Hamwi) have claimed this. But these sources cannot be trusted or brought anywhere near the level of the QUran, or the archeological evidence. And the latter are alone enough to prove that the events surrounding Joseph, Moses, and the Israelites did not take place in Egypt.

@Mazhar Quote This sort of translations reveal how poorly the translator is equipped with the understanding of grammar of the language that indicates relationship of words in the sentence. Poorly equiped? Is there ANYONE who can read and understand Arabic here? if so, I call on him to read the following verse (26: 59) and tell me what they means, in all honesty, and without any deception:

You see that word outlined in blue, Mr. Mazhar? it says

,

As a native Arabic speaker, I don;t think I need anyone to teach me that the word means: INHERITED. A 6 year old Arab will tell you that it means INHERITED... What did teh Isrelites INHERIT, and from whom?? I think if you read the verses immediately before it, it will be as clear as the sun in a midnight sky that they inherited the entire blessed land of which Far3oun's WALLED CITADEL was part of. Once "Far3oun" drowned and was gone from the scene forever, the stage was set for the Israelites to form their kingdom. Now, the Quran tells us that the followers of Moses were reluctant to enter a certain town, because they were afraid of its mighty inhabitants, so as a consequence, Allah made it restricted for them for 40 sana (which, by the way, doesn't necessarily mean "year"). However, they still inherited the entire land, and eventually, they established their kingdom in THAT SAME LAND, under David and Solomon. So no, its not a case of mistranslation. I;ll tell you what it's a case of: It's a case of you twisting and corrupting the meaning, because the Quranic truth is disproving the Septuagint lies which you are unknowingly marketing., by insisting that the Israelites were in Egypt. Quote They were made the inheritors of the Easts of the land/Egypt [the city where they were made third rate poplace-weak segment] and the Wests of the Land whose peculiarity is indicated as having been blessed. Which area is on the Easts of Egypt and is the Wests of Mecca?

DO you realize what you just said, Mr. Mazhar?? YOu just called "Egypt" a city!! The city where they (the Israelites) were made 3rd rate citizens'. You just blurted out the truth without even realizing it. The Quran speaks of "misr". And this "misr", as you will soon see, was a WALLED TRADE CITADEL somewhere in South West Arabia. It had nothing to do with EGYPT whatsoever. Quote Yes, Arabic word "Misr" is the best, actual and true mirroring/description of country named, now named and recognized as Egypt.

LIES... The name of that land is KOPTOS- QIBT- EGYPTUS....A name that goes back over 5000 years in time. Quote Despite a number of highly pertinent, and compelling, evidence from egyptology some "free minds" are refusing to free their mind by simply ignoring a mountain of solid evidence, proving that Misr simply cannot refer to Egypt, they are reacting like the Sunni they so criticize. Such irrational behaviour is evidence of a flawed and fettered and doctrinary mind. And there is more evidence still to come. I feel it is my duty to continue this thread, because that small minority here, those few of you who have been having that nagging doubt in their consiousness that there is something seriously wrong, twisted, and illogical in all that we have been tought as the truth, need to understand that their doubt does in fact have a foundation. ________ Peace...

While you two are at it, I'm going to continue... _________________________________________ We are still searching for Far3ouns true identity, and will continue to do so until the truth of the matter is finally revealed. Untill now, we have encountered a few surprises on the road, which have made us doubt many beliefs we had thought were truths not open to discussion. So lets continue; maybe there are more surprises waiting for us still 4) Arab Conquest of Egypt:

According to the vast majority of Muslim historians, the Arabs, under the military command of Amro bin al-As, marched on Egypt for the first time, some 15 20 years after Muhamads death ( exact date has never been pinpointed). The history books tell us that the conquest of the Nile country came shortly after the conquest of New Jerusalem in Palestine (Or the Daughter of Jerusalem, as the Torah calls it).

Prominent historian and geographer Yaqoot al Hamwi (died around 1230 A.D), in his book entitled Mu3jam al- Buldan (Glossary of Countries Volume 4) describes with some detail the military campaign led by Amro Ibn al-As, and relates to us the contents of several letters exchanged between Amro, and the Khalif of the time, Umar bin al-Khattab. According to Yaqoot, the first station of the Arab march on Egypt was the town of 3arish ( ,)which today lies on the border of Palestine and what is called the Sinai peninsula, not far south west of Gaza. The Arab army camped there for a while, then moved on towards the town of Al-Farma, where the first military confrontation took place (Yaqoot tells of a battle which lasted 2 months, and which the Muslims won). Afterwards, he relates to us a crucial point in the campaign, which is when Amros army reached a fortified keep which he calls Babloun or Bab-lioun. These are Yaqoots exact words (Arabic readers can verify): " : ."... [/b][/size] He then describes to us a fierce battle, in which Amro succeeded in storming the Keep, beside which he set his tent (camp) which he called: Al-Fustat. Now, read carefully what Yaqoot says about Al-Fustat in page 453 of Volume 5 of his book: " ... ." [/b][/size] Let me translate for you: "It (the Keep) fell in Amros hands, and, in its place, he built Al-Fustat , which is the city of Misr today. What Yaqoot is telling us is very clear: the setting of Amros camp, AL-Fustat, is what became known later, in Yaqoots time, as the City of Misr". As such, we can deduce the following: 1- That Misr was originally the name given to the CITY, which stood in the exact spot where Amrs camp (Al-Fustat) had stood some 600 years earlier. 2- The Keep that had fallen in Amrs hand was called Bablioun (This is how Yaqoot wrote it).

Yaqoots words are also supported by other prominent Arab historians, notably: Tabari, Atabki, and Ibn Katheer, all of whom agree that what became known as Misrin their time, was originally called Bablioun. Now, before you all jump at me and claim that Im using unverified records, I will tell you that these historians got it absolutely right, and the proof is as follows: If we look for a place called Bablioun (or something close to it) in the old maps of Egypt, and precisely in a spot somewhere near the Nile delta area, we find this:

The above is an old map from Europe, which shows the location of the Keep of Babylon, in the exact spot where the city of Cairo now lies. (In the blue circle, you can see the name magnified). In fact, British scholar, Alfred Butler, in his book entitled Arab Conquest of Egypt (pages 353 -355), says that the Keep was built in the era of Roman emperor Trajan, and was called Babylon en Keme (Dont be confused, brothers and sisters. This is Babylon, Egypt, not Babel in Mesopotamia). Does the word Keme sound familiar? Does it ring a bell? Could it be that the Romans, who had conquered Egypt previously, had built a fortified Keep in the delta region, and decided to name it The Babylon of the Black Land? (Remember: Keme is the ancient name of the Nile Valley, as it was called by the EGYPTIANS themselves, and the word means black land or black soil, as an indicator of its fertility). So as you can see, we have evidence proving that the Arab historians were right on that one. At any rate, it is clear that the word Misr was NOT the original name of that keep, and that it later became Al-Fustat, which was the name given to Amro bin Al-As' camp. Now the question is: How and why did the keep of Bablioun (as the Arab historians called it) become known as Misr? Here follows the answer: Yaqoot al Hamwi relates to us that the Keep of Bablioun became the CENTER of the military operations of Amros army, and that he then marched from it, westward towards Alexandria, which also fell into his hands with surprisingly little resistance. Once there, he sent a letter to Umar bin al-Khattab, updating him on the status of the campaign, and asking him whether he should move the center of operations to the newly conquered city on the Mediterranean coast. Umar replied: Will there be a body of water between me and the Muslims? Amr replied: Yes. The Nile Umar: I do not like to have water between me and the Muslims, neither in winter, nor in summer. And so it was that Amrs camp, Al-Fustat, became the new center for the Arab state in Egypt, gradually grew into a city, and became a second capital for the Muslim Empire. Hence, during Yaqoot al-Hamawis age (the Abbasid era) it became known as Misr. And now, in our modern day and age, AL-Fustat is nothing but a small district in Old Qahira (the capital of Egypt), barely the size of 4 city blocks. The resounding truth, dear readers, is that it was many years AFTER the Arab conquest of Egypt that the word Misr was introduced, for the first time, (on the maps), into Egypt. However, its introduction did not initially spread to the whole of the land. It was ONLY the city of AL-Fustat (which is now a district of Qahira) that was called Misr. But why? Why did the Arabs do that? Why did they introduce that name into the Nile country,

and cause the future generations so much confusion? Lets read on and find out: In his book Lisan ul-Arab (The Arab Tongue), Ibn Manzhour as a common noun, as follows (Arab readers can verify): mentions the word misr

" [/b][/size]

"

Ibn Manzhour mentions the tamseer of a place, (i.e. turning it into a misr). What is he telling us? The turning of a previously insignificant land or site into a CENTER of attraction, and a destination for travelers, is referred to as tamseer. Hence, this place, which was previously only an unattractive or unimportant spot in the wilderness, is turned into a misr, an URBAN CENTER. Can it be any clearer than that? Member Huruf put it quite nicelyif you care to scroll up and read his words again. In fact, in his book entitled "Futooh al- Buldan" Conquest of Countries (Volume 2, page 338), Arab historian al-Balazhiri talks about the tamseer of Kufa (turning a previously insignificant hamlet in Iraq into the misr the URBAN CENTER - which later became known as Al- Kufa. Hence, Al-Kufa became the misr of Iraq, just as Al-Fustat had become the misr of Egypt before it). Can it be any simpler? Every major city in the world today was established through tamseer the turning of an insignificant plot of land into a civic center, and a destination for travelers. In the ancient days, tamseer often involved building some kind of wall or enclosure around the town, so it becomes a safe haven not only for traders and their caravans, but also for adventurers and fortune-seekers, who sought shelter from the dangerous wilderness areas. And so it was that Al-Fustat became the misr - the prime destination and civic center of the land of Egypt, under the Arab conquest, replacing Alexandria which previously played that role. This why, even today, when our brothers in modern Egypt want to go to Cairo (the capital), they will say "We are going to Misr". (Even though they are ALREADY in Egypt!). Why is that? It is because, deeply rooted in their memory, they knwo that somehow, the name "Misr" was associated to Old Cairo. But the great catastrophe came later on, when this word, misr, which had gradually become a proper noun (as in "THE Misr" - which effectively identified AL-Fustat) was eventually stretched to identify the ENTIRE land of Qibt (Egypt), and was interpreted as the very same misr that was mentioned in the Quran, as the setting for the story of Moses (P), Pharoah and

the Israelites. This catastrophic delusion slowly infiltrated the beliefs of Muslims worldwide, and has been rampant for centuries untold. Well, the time has come to rid the world of this false belief, which the archeologists now are beginning to identify for what it really is: no more than a delusion. And the only divine scripture that can expose this delusion is the Quran the book which the Muslims have deserted and made it of no account. So how did it happen then? How did the Muslims and the rest of the world get so confused concerning this issue? How was the delusional connection between Egypt and the events surrounding Moses (P) and the Israelites, born in the consciousness of the masses? This is what we will answer next. But before we do that, lets go back to an important sentence we said earlier: A LIE PROPAGATED FOR POLITICAL MANIPULATION, as we uncover a modern Holy Forgery that is under execution as we speak. ________________________

5) A "Holy Forgery" Under Execution And the time will come when our children (the American Indians), will realize that they are descendants of the House of Israel, and that they are the Children of God; and then they will know the legacy of their ancestors, and rejoice in it (The Book of Mormon 14:15) [/b] What we will place before you, dear reader, is a blatant, and living example of Holy Forgery, perpetrated in the name of God (God Said So!), which will help us better understand the forgery that was successfully passed on the Muslims after Muhamads time, and the residents of Arabia in general. The example that we are about to give you must have begun as a kind of joke or a comical farce, until eventually, after many centuries (and constant repetition of the LIE), it became a living, breathing, catastrophe, whose effects we are witnessing right now, as you are reading these very words. In the year 1830 A.D, an American by the name of Joseph Smith published his Holy Book which he called the Book of Mormon. And this divine book, as he claimed, was the result of a translation that Smith did of old glyphs carved into golden tablets which date back to the 4th Century B.C. The story, as Smith relates it, is that the tablets were buried for centuries under the earth, near his home town in the suburbs of New York City; and, had it not been for the guidance of a divine agent, an angel by the name of Mormon who appeared to him on September 21, 1823,

he would never have found those tablets. The angel then inspired to Smith the meaning of the ancient hieroglyphs, and thus began the story that Smith told the American people when he published his book. Among the divine truths that the book mentions, is the story of events that took place between 600 B.C and 400 B.C (as he claims), when two groups of Jews, one from Jerusalem and another from Babylon migrated to the New Lands, which is known today as North America!! The story of Mormon goes that the Babylonian group eventually dissipated (disapeared or became extinct) while the Israeli group survived and multiplied, until their descendants became what is known today as the "Red Indians!" It also labeled the American territory, with some biblical names to including "the land of Zion. No one was unable to see the golden plates that Smith allegedly translated, because the angel had recovered them from Smiths possession - as he claimed. But this did not prevent the establishment of a new Church by Smith, which was called: "The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints".

A portrait of the LIAR, Joseph Smith And the story doesnt end here! In 1842, Smith came out to the public with a second book, no stranger than the first, which he called: The Book of Abraham. Joseph claimed again that he had found papyrus scrolls containing ancient Egyptian hieroglyphs , locked up inside the coffins of mummies which were on display in Kirtland, Ohio. Immediately, Smith realized the importance of his new find, as he claimed the scrolls contained writings by the hand of the Patriarch Abraham himself!! So Smith bought the scrolls, then began translating them again with the help of a divine agent and they eventually became part of his second book, which contains three illustrations copied from the original scrolls. Among those drawings, was an illustration that showed Abraham (P) lying on a sacrificial altar, in the presence of the King himself, and about to be sacrificed to the gods of Ancient Egypt!. Now the fact is that no one could even debate with Joseph Smith concerning these outrageous allegations, because, back then, there were very few people in the world who could decipher Egyptian Hieroglyphs, and it wasnt easy to locate or reach those few. So this gave Smith the opportunity to write pretty much whatever suited him, without any objection from anyone, and then cloak his work with the famous declaration of God Said So!. And then, it was thought that the original papyrus scrolls were lost in the famous Chicago fire of 1871, leaving only the Book of Abraham and the Book of Mormon, as the sole testaments of Smiths claims. And as the years went by, the number of Americans embracing the Last Testament (as they called it), continued to grow. These people actually believe, among other things, that those two books are divine in origin, and contain the words of God. Thats it. No proof needed, because God Said So!. But then came the year 1966, which brought two big surprises for the new church. The first surprise was the discovery of a bundle of ancient papyrus scrolls stashed deep inside the vaults of the New York Metropolitan Museum of Art. And guess what: among them where the very same scrolls containing the illustrations which Smith copied into his second book. The second surprise was that by that time, there were huge advancement in the science of archeology and ancient languages, which made it possible to translate the Egyptian hieroglyphic writings with great accuracy. And as was expected, no sooner than the scrolls were discovered which Smith was claimed to have translated into English over a century earlier - that scientists began to pour over them, in an attempt to translate them. And it was then that they immediately discovered the lies, the deceptions and the forgeries that Joseph Smith perpetrated in his interpretation of the ancient text. The Book of Abraham turned out to be nothing but a collection of falsehoods written by Smiths OWN HANDS, and attributed to God (does this sound familiar, brothers and sisters?).

The top part shows the original scrolls, which Joseph Smith had copied into his book (the bottom part).

The original papyrus scrolls depicted the ancient rituals of burying the dead in Egypt, and mentioned some very well-known names and terms in the culture of the Nile Valley (Osiris, Horus, Set, etc). On the other hand, the Book of Abraham completely falsified the contents of the scrolls, and mentioned names and terms that were nowhere to be found in the original copy, like Abraham, Pharoah and Angels. This important discovery caused a storm of objections and ridicule towards Smiths writings, as scientists expressed their anger at the nerve shown by Smith in his forgery of the ancient Egyptian culture, and thousands of articles were written about the controversy and the great scandal. Yet, despite all the overwhelming SCIENTIFIC PROOF that what Joseph Smith had written was no more than a collection of garbage, and that the so-called Red Indians (the original inhabitants of America) had absolutely nothing to do with the ancient Israelites, the 120 years which had passed between Smiths writing of his books and the translation done in 1966, were enough for those false ideas and dogma to spread. And now, it is estimated that the number of Mormons worldwide is close to 13 million, with some 40% of them living in the USA. Statistics and forecasting projections also show that the number of followers of this church is expected to reach over 200 million by the year 2080. These people actually believe that the original inhabitants of the American continent, (the socalled Red Indians), are descendants of Israel! Which means, technically, that the Children of Israel were the first inhabitants of America, during the bygone era of some 2600 years ago! And the only proof that these people have is God Said So!. What is the hidden agenda here? I think youve already figured it out, havent you? In case you havent, Ill tell you: The ultimate purpose of this LIE is that the Zionists have the right to claim America as their own, for the interests of Gods Chosen People; ideologically at first, then gradually hijacking its sovereignty for their future generations to establish full control over the rich continent, all under the guise of God Said So!. And the fruits of this holy forgery are already starting to mature. So what is the point of this story? The point is to show you how LIES are perpetrated. The point is to show how EVERY SINGLE LIE that has ever corrupted our religion, had political motives behind it. You must keep this truth in mind, as you go along. The purpose of this story is to show you how the evil doctrine of The Promised Land has shown tremendous success in hijacking Palestine from its rightful inhabitants, under the very nose of the international community, and with its full blessings. And soon you will see that the LIE which claims that Egypt was the setting of the events concerning Moses (P), Pharoah, and the Israelites was not any different in its goals from the falsehoods published by Joseph Smith. __________

To be continued.... OK, that's IT. Time to jump foreward a little bit. I think It's time I put the nail in the coffin of this "Sea Crossing" dogma. I would like all of you to look carefully at the map below:

Now, I would like member Layth in particular, who INSISTS that they crossed the REd Sea, to considerr the following : Do you know what the average width of the Red sea is? I'll save you the trouble of looking it up. It's 200 KM. That's TWO HUNDRED KILOMETERS.

Now, to prove to you that you don't read the Quran, take a close look at thefollowing verses, paying special attention to the underlined phrases.

{And We inspired Moses: "Go, with my servants, in secret. You will be followed" * So Far3oun sent gatherers to the towns * "They are but a small band." * "And they have enraged us." * "And we are all gathered and forewarned." * So, We evicted them out of gardens and springs * And treasures and an honorable station * As such, We made Bani Israel inherit it all * So they were pursued at sunrise * But when the two groups saw each other, the companions of Moses said: "We are caught!" * He said: "No, my Rabb is with me and He will guide me." * So We inspired to Moses: "Strike forth towards the bahr with conviction." So it split into two, each side like a great cliff face * And We then brought the others (the pursuers) near * And We saved Moses and all those with him *Then We drowned the others}....[26:52-66]The Israelites, led by Moses (P), fled "misr" at night. This is the essence of "Isra'a". It is a secret departure from a place, without attracting attention. It t doesn't necessarily have to be at night, by the way. It could be at full noon. The important thing is that it is done in secret We are deducing that Moses' departure was at night from the context of the verses. (By the way, there are some horrendous mistakes in th FM translation). It was not until AFTER Far3oun realized Bani Israel had left, that he began to gather searchers from the nearby towns, to make a full puruit of what he called " A SMALL BAND". Tell me something: Would the great Kings of Egypt, who lived in huge palaces, with an army at the ready near them, ready to take on rival empires at any time, need to send callers to nearby towns to organize a searh party? Would Ramses, Merneptah or Imhotep, PERSONALLY take it upon themsleves to chase a small band like that? Furthermore, how the HELL could there be 600,000 Israelites? Is 600,000 considered a "small band"? Small enough that Far3oun could gather enough men to chase them on the SAME night? It is clear as the sun that Far3oun was nothing more than the small chief. Furthermore, how far had Moses and the Israelites gone before Far3oun caught up to them? Let's think a bit: The verses are saying clearly that Far3oun and his band of hunters moved faster than the Israleites, because despite the latter's head start, the pursuers were still able to gather

themselves and catch up to them at dawn of the next day. Now here comes the delicate part: The Quran is telling us that the two parties reached a point

{But when the two groups saw each other, the companions of Moses said: "We are caught!"}where the ywere close enough to gaze upon each other: HOW THE HELL COULD THEY BE GAZING AT EACH OTHER FROM ACROSS THE RED SEA??? Would a party standing at point B (on the Arabian coast of the Red Sea) be able to see a party standing at point A, on the Egyptian side, 200 KM away? What is wrong with you people?!! Moses had not gone far at all when Far3oun caught up to him. There's not a chance in Hell that he could have reached the RED sea coast in ONE NIGHT!! And the two parties were almost ON each other when Far3oun drowned. So where did these events take place?

Allah commanded Moses (P) to strike forth towards "AL-Bahr"

.

Who told you that "Al-Bahr" necessarily means "SEA"?? Didn't you know that the Quran speaks of teh barrier between two "bahrs", one fresh and the other salty? WHAT IS A FRESH "BAHR" I ask you? The word simply means: A body of abundant water. It could be a lake, a river, a spring, a sea, or an ocean. Furthermore, I will remind you again that Bani Israel eventually inherited everything Pharaoh had left behind. All the land around "misr" became theirs. How can you explain the following verses?:

{Moses said to his people: "Seek help with Allah, and be patient; the earth is for Allah, He will inherit it to whom He pleases of His servants; and the ending will be for the righteous."* They said: "We were being harmed before you came to us and since you have come to us." He said: "Perhaps your Lord will destroy your enemy, and make you successors in the land, so He sees how you work?"}... [7:128,129]Which land did the Isrelites become SUCCESSORS OF PHAROAH in? Was it not the SAME

land that Pharoah was in? Has anyone ever heard of Bani Israel succeeding to the throne of Egypt? When are you going to wake up from this delusion? Quote I am surprized that this thread still carries traction You haven't seen anything yet. Quote They moved out on eastern side, Gulf of Suez, crossed it over the emerged Reef-the dried up skeloton passage, and landed by the side of At Tur, in Sinai Peninsula. This is what is stated in the Qur'aan.

Show me where in the Quran does it say that Al-Tur is in Sinai? So you're telling me that Moses was able to reach the western border of Sinai pennisula in ONE night, and Pharoah caught up to him at dawn? The geography is so WRONG that no matter how much you try to twist it, it just doesn't fit. ___________ To Be Continued..

Quote I'm trying to say that actually there is only one river in Egypt.. it is Nile. Those "so-called" 7 rivers are not "rivers" actually.. They are just extensions of Nile's own silt prior to reach Mediterranean Sea Exodus...don't trouble yourself. These people wouldn't accept the truth even if it stared them right in the face. But I will soon expose this fallacy. The dream of Joseph the Prophet contains another major clue which blows their Egypt theory right out of the water. The king of the land surrounding "misr" saw a vision in a dream. He saw 7 fat cows being eaten

by 7 thin ones. Dreams are symbolic of course. So he sought the help of Joseph (who had been in jail by that time, as he was falsely accused of a crime he didn't commit with the governor's wife). Joseph went on to interpret the dream to the people as a warning that years of drought would eventually come. He told them to start storing some grain for the next 7 years, in order to prepare for the coming drought. After the drought, RAINFALL would come, and the crops would grow again. Here is what the verse says:

{Then after that will come a year in which the people will have abundant rain and which they will be able to produce once again}...[12:49]What does this tell us? It tells us that the land where Joseph lived (and where Moses lived after him) DEPENDED ON RAIN for planting crops. Now the question is: Does the Nile Valley need rain for its agriculture? The answer to this question is a resounding NO, it does NOT. Egypt receives no more than 8 inches of water the whole year on the coastal areas, and less than 2 inches of it in the Nile Valley. This fact is common knowledge to the Egyptians themselves. A first year student of geography will tell you that it only rains for about 7 days a year in Egypt. I met an Egyptian woman online once, who happens to be an agricultural engineer. I rememember a chat session I once had with her, where I asked her about this particular issue, and she confirmed it. Now of course, if you want proof, you can always go look it up: http://wiki.answers.com/Q/Why_it_doesn%27t_rain_in_Egypt http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20070424225957AAmlYDu http://socyberty.com/history/ancient-egyptian-agriculture/2/ There are loads of evidence for this fact, staring us in the face.

For thousands of years, Egypt has depended on irrigation of the Nile itself to provide water for the crops growing on its banks. Egypt does not need rain for its agriculture. In fact, Theodor Noldke, a well known Zionist, once mocked the prophet Muhammad, claiming that there was a glaring geographical innacuracy in the Quran concerning Egyptian agriculture. The following are Noldke's exact words: Quote ....The problem with this passage is that Egyptian civilization has never depended on rain for the success of its crops. Egyptian agriculture has always dependeded on the flooding of the Nile for

water. Clearly, Muhammad was ignorant of Egypt's geography and climatology and he demonstrates this by associating good harvests with rainfall.

Of course, the ignorant Muslims couldn't defend their "beloved Prophet MUhammad" from the claims of the Zionist swine Noldke. Why is that? Because the Muslims are victims of the same delusion that the rest of the world has believed in for centuries: The delusion that the "misr" mentioned in the Quran is none other than Egypt. Had they known the truth, they would have found the response to that arrogant Zionist swine, who accused Muhamad (P) of ignorance, and told him to shut his mouth, because the EVENTS CONCERNING PROPEHTS JOSEPH (P) AND MOSES (P) DID NOT TAKE PLACE IN EGYPT. The events took place in a land that depended on RAINWATER for agriculture. A land whose many rivers could dry up if rain stopped for a lehgthy period. A land whose rivers were not permanent like the Nile or the Amazon, or the Euprates. A land that built WELLS to store rainwater - a phenomenon completely alien to Egypt. (This is why we find Joseph in a well at the begining of the story). The land that Joseph (P) lived in is a land that depended on a type of agriculture which is called, in Arabic . This is a kind of agriculture that takes place on stepped MOUNTAIN SLOPES, and requires abundant rainwater. Mountains... I'd like Mazhar and Layth to show me where there are mountains in the Nile Valley. Dear brother Exodus: In teh end, it is matter of PROOF.. Who can present the stronger argument. But it's our duty to show the people of this world that there are hidden facts which they are not aware of, and then we leave it up to them to decide. Quote Dear Pauzu, Peace, You have much consumed the space of forum just to suggest that Musa alahissalam never lived in Misr-known in English world as Egypt. If you are concerned with forum space, don't worry about it. Once I finish this thread, I will immediately delete all the photos and maps.

______ To Be Continued...

@ Exodus You mention the word "Yughthu". This is derived from "Ghayth". And the word apperas many times in the Quran in the context of RAIN. See, for instance: The underlined words: "Yunzil al ghayth" , which means: "He brings down the rain". Here's FM's own translation of the verse: {With God is the knowledge regarding the Hour. And He sends down the rain, and He knows what is inside the wombs. No soul knows what it may gain tomorrow, nor does any soul know in which land it will die. God is Knowledgeable, Expert}...[31:34] Another example: Again we see the same expression: "Yunzil al ghayth". {And He is the One who sends down the rain after they had despaired, and spreads His mercy. He is the Supporter, the Praiseworthy}...[42:48] Then we have the following example which clearly associates "ghayth" with cultivation: {Know that the worldly life is no more than play and distraction and adornments, and boasting among you, and to increase in wealth and children. It is like plants that are supplied by an abundant rain, which appear pleasing to the rejecters. But then they dry-up and turn yellow, and become useless hay. And in the Hereafter there is severe retribution, and forgiveness from God and acceptance. This worldly life is no more than a deceiving enjoyment}...[57:20] So although I agree with you that "ghayth" or "igathah" is the general term for "help or aid", however, as you can see, the context of the above verses clearly indicates rain. So why should we deal with the verses concerning Joseph any differently? _____

I already have. I've read TONS about it, and I can tell you with 100% confidence that the Nile River (and not rain) has always been the lifeblood of Egypt. As long as the Nile river flows, they are OK. I will not say anymore about this subject. In my next post I will go straight to the point, and show you where exactly the "misr" of Joseph and Moses was located, and what it actually looked like. Peace...

6) The Misr of Joseph (P) - The Great Storage System. The first mention of the word "misr" the Quran occurs in the story of the Prophet Joseph (P), in Chapter 12. And the first clue as to what this misr is, comes to us in the following verse: {One among them said: "Do not kill Joseph, but if you are going to do a thing, then cast him into the bottom of the well, so that any travelling caravan will pick him up.}...[12:10] This tells us that Jacob (P) and his children lived close to a trade route, since they KNEW for certain that a caravan would pass and pick Joseph up, and then they would be rid of him forever (or so they thought). So they dropped him in a well that stood on this route. Now the question is: Where did Jacob live? The Quran gives us a clue to this in: 12:16 {And they came back to their father, in the evening, crying}...[12:16] This tells us that the distance separating Jacobs home from the trade route wasnt very far, since the children (the jealous brothers of Joseph) returned home in the evening, after having thrown Joseph in the well, that same day. After having done the deed, we come to the following key event: {And a traveling caravan came and they sent their man to draw water, but when he drew he said: "Good news, there is a boy!" So they hid him as merchandise. And God is aware of what they did}...[12:19] As the jealous brothers had planned, a caravan did eventually pass by, stopped at the well for a drink, and lo and behold! They found a boy down at the bottom. Now, the terms: Good News and Merchandise shows the nature of those who picked him up from the well. These people were merchants on a trade trip, and this was their lucky day. Their hands fell on free human inventory. {And they sold him for a low price, a few darahim, and they regarded him as insignificant}...[12:20] The selling of Joseph for a cheap price, as the Quran tells us, indicates that the merchants sold

him at the nearest opportunity they could, and this for two reasons: 1- To be rid of the expenses necessary to sustain the boy (food, drink, and encumbrance of carrying living merchandise). 2- The boy was acquired for free, so the business mentality dictated that they offer him for sale at the nearest and soonest opportunity, before the expense became more than the income of the sale. What does this tell us? It tells us that there is not a chance in Hell that Joseph could have remained in the possession of the merchants the whole distance between Palestine and Egypt, as the translators of the Torah (The Great Imams of FORGERY) claimed. They sold the boy at the nearest market on the trade route, and were done with him. And this was what the brothers of Joseph had not counted on. It didnt occur to the children of Jacob (P) that Joseph would not end up very far from them, geographically. Now the question is: Where did the merchants sell Joseph? Lets read on {And he who had bought him from "misr" said to his wife: "Make his stay generous, perhaps he will benefit us or we may take him as a son." And it was thus that We established Joseph in the land and to teach him the interpretation of the narrations. And God has full control over his situation, but most of the people do not know}...[12:21] From the context of the above verse, we can see that they put him up for sale in a place which the Quran calls misr; wherein some man (the buyer) came there from his own village, to make the purchase. How is that so? The verse clearly says that the man bought him FROM MISR, which means that the place of purchase differed from the home village of the man. Had it been otherwise (i.e. had the place of purchase been the mans village itself), the verse would not have added from misr. It would have simply said: And he who had bought him said to his wife.... Now please note that there is a very glaring mistake made by the FM translation, and I'm not so sure it was intentional. The verse does NOT say that the buyer was from Misr. It says the man bought him FROM Misr. (i.e: the purchase was made there). There is HUGE difference in the meaning. Hence, from our rendering of the verse, we can see that the man came to misr from his village, bought the boy for a cheap price, then went back to his village, and asked his wife to take care of the boy. This gives us a clue as to how the trade routes of ancient Arabia functioned. Obviously, they did not branch to pass through EVERY village. The merchants would empty their cargo in certain stations placed at intervals along those trade routes. As for the villages where the people lived, they were located some distance from main the trade route, and could be reached by following

secondary paths branching off from the main route. This is exactly where Jacobs tented village was located. His children left their fathers home in the morning, went down to the main trade route, tossed Joseph in the well, then returned home in the evening. Which means the trade route did not pass through Jacobs village. Now, this leads us to investigate a bit the nature of these stations, which were located at intervals along the trade routes. What exactly were they? These stations were actually places that constituted not only markets for trade, but also rest and service stops for the caravans, and places where the traders could meet with the inhabitants of the nearby towns and mingle with them. They were also places where the inhabitants of the villages could sell their own goods (pottery, crops, or offer service labor). It is a fact that the trade caravans could not afford to burden themselves with supplies (food and water), as those would take up too much precious space space that could be used to carry profitable goods for trade instead. So, they relied on such stations to provide the services they needed. This is one of the many ways how Arabia became fabulously rich during that age. Is there any trace of such stations in Egypt? NONE. Goods in Egypt were carried mostly by BOATS along the Nile. Even the stones used to build the pyramids were carried along the Nile, from the rock quarries to the construction sites, as the illustrations and murals of the pyramids themselves have shown. (The Egyptians used an advanced system that relied on buoyancy to effectively cancel out the weight of the stones). Check out the following link: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=hhr7PHwNP98&feature=related Are there traces of such trade routes or stations in ancient Palestine? NONE. Lets continue Now some of these stations became so strategically important, either due to the fact that they were located on the intersection of several trade routes, or because they were surrounded by many villages, hence providing them with large markets. These important urban centers were called amsar (the plural of misr), which is a common Arabic noun. And Jacobs village was not very far from one of those urban centers. Then the years go by, and the Quran relates to us the story of what happened to Joseph (P): how he was accused of a crime he didnt commit, how he was jailed, and how he made some friends, and eventually rose to a high station in that land. He became a kind of councilor for the ruler, whom the Quran refers to as malik (NOT PHAROAH). There is NO mention of Pharoah whatsoever in the story of Joseph, whom the Quran tells us had the ability to interpret dreams. And we have seen already, if you scroll up to the previous posts, how Joseph interpreted a dream concerning the 7 cows and 7 pods, and warned the people of a coming drought, due to lack of rain. I showed you that the land Joseph lived in depended on seasonal RAIN for raising crops,

which is completely unlike