rbi reasoning
TRANSCRIPT
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
2. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (B)
3. The position of how many digits in the dumber 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code?
(A) 8% 51
(B) 85% 8
(C) 8@ 51
(D) 8% 31
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
5. In a certain code language ‘how many books’ is written as ‘sa da na’ and ‘many more days’ is written as ‘ka pa da’. How is ‘books’ written in that code language?
(A) sa
(B) na
(C) sa or na
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as ‘PKBNXSHQ’. How is SANCTION written in that code?
(A) TBODMNHS
(B) DOBTMNHS
(C) TBODSHNM
(D) DOBTOPJU
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
8. ‘BE’ is related to ‘GJ’ in the same way as ‘PS’ is related to……..?
(A) UY
(B) UX
(C) UZ
(D) VY
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
9. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest marks?
(A) P
(B) T
(C) R
(0) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
10. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, ‘she is the daughter of my grandmother’s only child’. how is the girl related to Nidhi?
(A) Sister
(B) Self
(C) Cousin sister
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W’s position from the right end of the row?
(A) Eleventh
(B) Tenth
(C) Twelfth
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 12—14) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow— Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organized in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organized on one of these days. Play D was organized before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organized on Saturday. Play C was not organized on the first day. Play B was organized on the next day on which play C was organized. Play A was organized on
12.On which day was play B organized?
(A) Thursday
(B) Friday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
13. On which day no play was organized?
(A) Monday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Data inadequate
(F) None of these
Ans. (A)
14. Which play was organized on Wednesday?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) D
(D) Data Inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
15. If’ ‘÷’ means ‘+‘; ‘x’ means ‘- ‘, ‘ + ‘ means x’ and - means +then 24-4 ÷ 6 x 3+ 4 =?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 4
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
16. What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 1 2 3 4 9 8
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement?.
(A) Q
(B) K
(C) P
(D) B
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
18. Meena correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after eighteenth May but before twenty second May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father’s birthday?
(A) Twentieth
(B) Nineteenth
(C) Eighteenth
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 19—20) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—
(i) ‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.
(ii) ‘P x Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.
(iii)’ P — Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.
(iv) ‘P + Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
19. Which of the following means ‘M is maternal uncle of ‘T’?
(A) M ÷ K + T
(B) M x K + T
(C) M x K – T
(D) M ÷ K – T
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
20. Which of the following means ‘H’ is paternal grandfather of ‘T’?
(A) H ÷ J ÷ T
(B) T x K + H
(C) H ÷ J x T
(D) H – J + T
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Following questions are based on the five three- digit numbers given below –
832 965 748 259 614
21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 4
Ans. (E)
22. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits of the highest number?
(A) 11
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number?
(A) 5
(B) 1
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 3
Ans. (A)
24.If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5
Ans. (E)
25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 1
(D) 7
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 26—31) In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.26. Statements:
All stones are poles.
All poles are desks.
Some desks are nets.
All nets are days.Conclusions:
I. Some nets are stones.
II Some desks are stones.
III. Some days are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only II and Ill follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
27. Statements:
Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years.
All years are buses. All buses are trains.
Conclusions:
1. Some trains are weeks.
ll. Some buses are weeks.
III Some trains are months.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
28. Statements:
Some stations are rails.
All rails are rivers.
All rivers are papers.
Some papers are cards.
Conclusions:
I. Some cards are stations.
II. Some rivers are stations.
III. Some cards are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
Ans. (C)
29. Statements:
All windows are roofs.
All roofs are glasses.
Some glasses are plates.
Some plates are carpets.
Conclusions:
I. Some plates are windows.
II Some glasses are windows.
III. Some carpets are roofs.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only I and II follow
Ans. (C)
30. Statements:
All trees are jungles.
All jungles are houses.
All houses are buildings.
All buildings are villages.
Conclusions:
I. Some villages are houses.
II Some buildings are jungles
III. Some houses are trees.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
31. Statements:
Some books are calendars.
No calendar is pa per.
All papers are pencils
Some pencils are chairs.
Conclusions:
I. Some chairs are books.
II. No chair is book.
III. Some pencils are calendars.
(A) None follows
(B) Only either I or II follows
(C) Only either I or II and III follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II follows
Ans. (B)
Directions—(Q. 32—37) Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below— M 5% P U 2 A $ 4 3 Z E K 1 9 Q R I @ D 7 F Ô 8 W N 6 # V (C) J * Y
32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the tight end of the above arrangement?
(A) N
(B) $
(C) 4
(D) W
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement?
(A) U
(B) D
(C) E
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by number?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans. (C)
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(A) P5A
(B) 4AE
(C) Q1K
(D) F8@
(E) VN*
Ans. (E)
37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end?
(A) E
(B) K
(C) Z
(D) D
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
Directions—(Q. 38—43) In each question below is given a group digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of Digits / Symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.Digit / Symbol:
5@ 3 © 98 % b142$ # 76 *
Letter Code:
PIMAEGFJHBDNRQTU
Conditions:
(i) If the first unit is a symbol arid the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit.
(ii) If the first unit is an even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both are to be coded as the code for the symbol.
(iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.
38. 9 @ 374 %
(A) EIMQBF
(B) FBQMIE
(C) ZIMQBZ
(D) FIMQBF
(E) None of these
Ans. (D)
39. 29 © $ # 1
(A) HEANRD
(B) DEANRH
(C) DEANRD
(D) HEANRH
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
40. * 479 @ C
(A) UBQEIA
(B) ZBQEIA
(C ZBQEIZ
(D) ABQEIU
(E) None of these
Ans. (C)
41. % 286 $ 3
(A) FDCTNF
(B) FDCTNM
(C) FCDTNM
(D) ZDGTNZ
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
42. 54 # * @ 6
(A) PBURIT
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAEB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
43. $ 63 © 94
(A) NTMAEN
(B) BTMAEB
(C) ZTMAFB
(D) NTMAEB
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
44. Who is to the immediate left of D?
(A) H
(B) C
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (B)
45. Who is second to the right of E?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) H
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (A)
46. Who is third to the left of B?
(A) E
(B) H
(C) F
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans. (E)
47. What is the position of C with respect to A?
(A) Third to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Fifth to the left
(D) Fourth to the right
(E) Fifth to the right
Ans. (D)
48. In which of following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons?
(A) BGC
(B) EFB
(C) DAH
(D) AEF
(E) GCD
Ans. (C)
Directions—(Q. 49—50)
In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, $, % and U are used with the following meaning as illustrated below—
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’
‘P U Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P’ is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
49. Statements:
D # K, K @ T, T $ M, M % J
Conclusions:
I. J @ T
II. J % T
III.D @ T
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only either I or II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
Ans. (E)
50. Statements:
R @ N © D, D $ J, J # B
Conclusions:
I. R @ J
II. J @ N
III. B @) D
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D)Only III is true
(E) Only I and III are true
Ans. (C)
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?(A)None(B) One(C)Two(D) Three(E) More than three2. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5 @9 #’ and NAME is written as ‘# 6%3’. How is MODE written in that code?(A)%653(B) %@63(C), %5@3(D) %@53(E) None of these3. How m meaningful English words Scan be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word?(A)None(B) One(C) Two(D) Three(E) More than three
4. if ‘R’ denotes ‘—‘, ‘Q’ denotes ‘X’, ‘W’ denotes ‘÷’ and ‘A’ denotes‘ +‘, then42 ‘W 7 R 8 A 6 Q 4 =?(A) -22(B) —168(C) 22(D) 28(E) None of these5, In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How isSOULFUL written in that code?(A) VPTKKTE(B) VPTKETK(C) TPVKKTE(D) TNRKMVG(F) None of these6. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number?(A)None(B) One(C)Two(D) Three(E) More than three7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walked 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point?(A) 95 metre(B)50 metre(C)70 metre(D) Cannot be determined(E) None of these8. What should come next in the following letter seriesP Q R S T A B C D E P Q R S A BC D E P Q R S A B C D P Q(A)R
(B)T(C)A(D)B(E) None of these9. In a certain code language, ‘how can you go’ is written as ‘ja da ka pa’; ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘ra pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language?(A) ja(B) na(C) pa(D) Data inadequate(E) None of these10. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet?CEA, IKG, OQM,?(A)STW(B) WUS(C)SWU(D) UWS(E) None of theseDirections—(Q. 11—15)Four statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from statements disregarding known facts.11. Statements:Some trains are cars.All cars are branches.All branches are nets.Some nets are dresses.Conclusions:I. Some dresses are cars.II. Some nets are trains.III. Some branches are trains.IV. Some dresses are trains.(A) Only I and II follow(B) Only II and III follow(C) Only I and IV follow(D) Only II, III and IV follow(E) None of these12. Statements:All papers are clips.Some clips are boards.Some boards are lanes.All lanes are roads.Conclusions:I. Some roads are boards.II. Some lanes are clipsIII. Some boards are papers.IV. Some roads are clips.(A) Only I and II follow(B) Only I and III follow(C) Only I ,II and Ill follow(D) Only II, III and IV follow(E) None of these13. Statements:Some pencils are kites.Some kites are desks.All desks are jungles.All jungles are mountains.Conclusions:I. Some mountains are pencils.II. Some jungles are pencils.III. Some mountains are desks.IV. Some jungles are kites(A) Only I and III follow(B)Only I, II and III follow(C)Only III and IV follow(D)Only II, III and IV follow(E) None of these
14. Statements:All stones are hammers.No hammer is ring.Some rings are doors.All doors are windows.Conclusions:I. Some windows are stones.II. Some windows are ringsIII. No window is stoneIV. Some rings are stones.(A) Only I follows(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows(ID) Only either I or III follows(E) Only either I or III and II follow15. Statements:All pens are clocks.Some clocks are tyres.Some tyres are wheels.Some wheels are buses.ConclusionsI. Some buses are tyres.II. Some wheels are clocks.III. Some wheels are pens.IV. Some buses are clocks.(A) None follows(B) Only I follows(C) Only II follows(D) Only III follows(E) Only IV followsDirections—(Q. 16—20) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is fourth to the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to the right of D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of C.16. Who is to the immediate right of F?(A) B(B) G(C) E(D) Data inadequate(E) None of these17. Who is third to the right of K?(A) F(B) E(C) C(D) Data inadequate(E) None of these18. What is F’s position with respect to B?(A)Second to the left(B)Third to the right(C)Fourth to the right(D)Third to the left(E)Fifth to the right19. Who is fourth to the left of C?(A)C(B)A(C)D(D)K(E) Data inadequate20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons?(A)GFB(B) BGH(C)ADC(D) KEC(E)EGFDirections_.(Q. 21—25) In the following questions, the symbols 0, C), ©, % and * are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q,‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’‘P * Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’‘P ? Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q,‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, III and IV given below them is/ are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.21. Statements;D? T ,T@R, R © M, M % KConclusions:I R@DII R%DIII K*TIV. M?T(A) Only either I or II is true(B) Only III and IV are true(C) Only either I or II and III are true(D) Only either I or II and IV are true(E) Only either I or II and III and IV are true22. StatementsJ @ F, F? N, N % H, H © GConclusions:I G*NII. N©JIII F*JIV. J?G
(A) Only I and II are true(B) Only I ,II and III are true(C) Only II, III and IV are true(D) All I, II, III and IV are true(E) None of theseConclusionsL R*DH. V*RI D@MIV. M%D23. Statements:R * K, K % D, D @ V,V ? MConclusionsI R*DII. V*RIII D@MIV. M%D(A) None is true(B) Only III is true(C) Only IV is true(D) Only either III or IV is true(E) Only either III or IV and II are true24. StatementsB © T, T * R, R % F, F @KConclusionsI B%RII F*TIII R%KIV. K*T(A) None is true(B) Only I is true(C) Only II is true(D) Only III is true(E) Only IV is true25.Statements:F % N, N © W, W ?Y, Y * TConclusions:I. F%WIL T%NIII N%YIV. T%W(A) Only I and III are true(B) Only I and IV are true(C) Only II and III are true(D) Only I, II and IV are true(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 26—30) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (I), (II) and (III). You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
26. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.
II. No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence gene ration of electricity needs to be augmented.
III No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only II is strong
(D) Only III is strong
(E) Only either I or II is strong
27. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night?
Arguments:
I. No, this way the work will never get completed.
II. No, there will be unnecessary use of electricity.
III. Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only III is strong
(D) Only II and HI are strong
(E) Only I and II are strong
28. Statement: Should all the deemed universities be derecognized and attached to any of the central or state universities in India?
Arguments:
I. Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.
II. No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.
III. Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.
(A) Only l and II are strong
(B) Only II and III are strong
(C)Only I and III are strong
(D) All I II and III are strong
(E) None of these
29. Statement: Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments:
I. No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.
II. Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts of the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
III. Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.
(A) Only I and II are strong
(B)Only II and III are strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) All I,II and III are strong
(E) None of these
30. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India?
Arguments:
I. No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
II. Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
III. Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings.
(A) Only II is strong
(B) Only III is strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) Only I is strong
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 31—35) In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions I, II and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement:
The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification.
II. Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasonable time.
III. The Govt’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private
(A) Only I and II are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only I and III are implicit
(E) None of these
32. Statement :
Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.
II. Most people may have access to electronic media for carrying out their daily routine activites.
III. People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before.
(A) Only I is implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) None of these
33 Statement :
The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focussed towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.
II. The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.
III. The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and II are implicit
34. Statement Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces.
II. People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.
III. The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings.
(A)None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only II and III are implicit
35. Statement :The airlines have requested all their bonafide passengers to check the status of flight operations before leaving their homes as the fog is causing immense problems to normal flight operations.
Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement?
I. The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their journey to the airport.
II. The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.
III Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal. -
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only I is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and III are implicit
Directions—.(Q. 36—40) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Give answers
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e., it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) If the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(D) If the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) If the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks—gross Non- Performing Assets (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008—is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more and more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowdown coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclical downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks that took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligently should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely within the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low interest rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, appear viable—till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable I It is now well established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more risks. A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macroeconomic fundamentals lead to excessive expansion of credit. It incentivizes banks to take on more risk in search of higher returns and to misprice risk.
36. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors.
37. Bank’s NPAs occur only due to economic factors.
38. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs.
39. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable.
40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and follow up of credit given by banks.
Directions—(Q. 41—45) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank
The Candidate Must :
(i) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in Std. XII.
(ii) have secured at least 55 per cent marks in Graduation in any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 60 per cent marks in post-graduate degree diploma in
Management/Economics / Statistics.
(iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 years as General Banking Officer in a bank.
(vi) have secured at least 50 per cent marks in written examination.
(vii) have secured at least 40 per cent marks in Personal Interview.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the above conditions except
(a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 per cent marks in CA or JCWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 per cent marks in the written examination and at least 35 per cent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answers :
(A) If the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
(B) If the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(C) If the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
(D) If the candidate is to be selected
(E) If the candidate is not to be selected.
41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the written examination and 50 per cent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.
42. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 per cent marks in HSC and 58
per cent marks in B.Com. She has also secured 50 per cent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.
43. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 per cent marks. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 40 per cent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 per cent marks in Std. XII. He was born on 25th February, 1975.
44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th November 1978. He has secured 65 per cent marks in Std. XII and 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has secured 58 per cent marks in M.A. Economics and 60 per cent marks in ICWA. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 per cent marks in the written examination and 45 per cent marks in personal interview.
45. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 per cent marks. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and Std. XII. She was born on 24th August, 1979. She has secured 70 per cent marks in the written examination and 38 per cent marks in the personal interview.
Answers:
1 E
2 D
3 C
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 D
11 B
12 E
13 C
14 E
15 A
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 A
20 E
21 E
22 E
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 C
27 D
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 B
32 C
33 C
34 C
35 E
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 D
41 A
42 D
43 E
44 B
45 CRelated Tags: Reas
India’s first Marine National Park is coming up in
(a) Palk Strait
(b) Gull of Khambat
(c) Gulf of Myanmar
(d) Gulf of Kutch
Ans. (d)
2. The depth of Ganga alluvial soil generally goes below the ground surface to the extent of
(a) 10Gm
(b) 600m
(c) 800m
(d) 600Gm
Ans. (b)
3. In India, the state known for its sandalwood is
(a) Assam
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) West Bengal
Ans. (b)
4. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Manas-Elephants
(b) Gir-Lions
(c) Ranthambor.Deers
(d) Kanha-Birds
Ans. (b)
5. The west facing slopes of covered with
(a) mangrove vegetation
(b) tropical wet evergreen forest
(c) tropical deciduous forest
(d) savanna and semi-desert scrubs
Ans. (b)
6. For the conservation and protection of wildlife, biosphere reserves in India were proposed at
(a) Nilgiris
(b) Andaman & Nicobar
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
7. Where in the country is Chandraprabha Sanctuary located?
(a) U.P
(b) M.P
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa
Ans. (a)
8. The four states of north-east India which are reported having more than 50% of the total area under forest, are
(a) Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura
(b) Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura
(c) Meghalaya, Manipur, Tripura, Nagaland
(d) Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (b)
9. Which area of Madhya Pradesh is known for white tigers?
(a) Chattisgarh
(b) Baghelkhand
(c) Malwa
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
10. Forests in Bihar cover an area of
(a) 28 lakh hectares
(h) 29 lakh hectares
(c) 30 lakh hectares
(d) 31 lakh hectares
Ans. (d)
11. The most useful forest type in India for paper and pulp industry is
(a) tropical evergreen forest
(b) temperate coniferous forest
(c) tropical monsoon forest
(d) temperate deciduous forest
Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following does not belong to bio sphere reserves set up so far?
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Great Nicobar
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Gulf of Kachchh
Ans. (d)
13. Sardar Sarovar Project is based in the stat
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (b)
14. Koyana Hydro electric Power Project is located in which of the following states ?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Kerala
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Orissa
Ans. (a)
15. Which one of the following Projects consists of the Gandhi Sagar Dam, the Kota Barrage and the Rana Pratap Sagar Dam?
(a) The Chambal Project
(b) The Kosi Project
(c) The Hirakud Project
(d) The Rajasthan Canal project
Ans. (a)
16. Salal hydro electric Project is in which of the
following states?
(a) Punjab
(b) Orissa
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Haryana
(e) Karnataka
Ans. (c)
17. Bhakra Nangal multipurpose project is constructed on the river
(a) Sutlej
(b) Damodar
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Thungabhadra
Ans. (a)
18. Sardar Sarovar Project is associated with which of the following rivers?
(a) Narmada
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Tapti
(d) Betwa
Ans. (a)
19. Machkunda hydro electric project is a joint venture of the states of
(a) West Bengal and Orissa
(b)) Orissa and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (b)
20. The Vidyasagar Sew is located at
(a) Cuttack
(b) Rameshwaram
(c) Madurai
(d) Calcutta
Ans. (d)
21. Telugu Ganga Project is planned to supply drink ing water to
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Bangalore
(d) Madras
(e) Trivandrum
Ans. (d)
22. The Ranjit Sagar Dam is being built in which state?
(a) Maharashtra
(a) Bihar
(c) Punjab
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (c)
23. Which of the following is the longest dam in India?
(a) Bhakra Nangal Dam
(b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Nagarjunasagar Sagar Dam
(d) Thungabhadra Dam
Ans. (b)
24. The states contributing to the construction of the Parbati Valley Hydel Project are
(a) Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Delhi, Haryana
(b) Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Delhi, Haryana
(c) Himachal Pradesh, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Rajasthan
Ans. (a)
25. The Subamarekha Barrage Project is proposed to be built in which State?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal
(e) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (b)
26. Which dam is built/being built in the earthquake prone region of India?
(a) Thungabhadra
(b) Sharavati
(c) Tehri
(d) Sardar Sarovar
Ans. (c)
27. them Dam is being constructed on the river
(a) Sutlej
(b) Ravi
(c) Beas
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
28. Srisailam hydroelectric project is on the river
(a) Sharavati
(b) Thungabhadra
(c) Krishna
(d) Cauvery
Ans. (c)
29. Which of the following groups of states takes benefit from Thungabhadra Project?
(a) Punjab & Haryana
(b) Karnataka & Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh & Bihar
(d) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(e) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
Ans. (e)
30. One of the dams which controls the release of Cauvery water to Tamil Nadu is
(a) Hirakud
(b) Mettur
(c) Krishnaraja Sagar
(d) Nagarjunasagar Sagar
Ans. (c)
31. Which of the following pairs of river dam project and state is not correct?
(a) Thungabhadra-Karnataka
(b) Gandhi Sagar-Gujarat
(c) Bhakra Nangal-Punjab
(d) Hirakud-Orissa
(e) All are correct
Ans. (e)
32. Nathpa-Jhakri Hydel project is located in the state of
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
33. Farakka Barrage was built to check
(a) water flowing into Bangladesh
(b) silting of Calcutta port
(c) erosion of Calcutta port
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
34. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Thungabhadra-Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(b) Damodar Valley-West Bengal and Orissa
(c) Chambal -Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Gandak-Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d)
35. Rihand hydro-electricity project is located in which of the following states?
(a) M.P.
(b) Punjab
(c U.P.
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (c)
36. The Kakarpara project is on the river
(a) Narmada
(b) Kosi
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Tapti
Ans. (d)
37. Construction of Sunkosh Multi-purpose Hydroelectric Project is a co-operative effort between India and
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Burma (Myanmar)
(d) Bangladesh
Ans. (b)
38. Jawahar Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar and Gandhi Sagar are constructed on the river
(a) Kosi
(b) Ghaghara
(c) Chambal
(d) Gomti
Ans. (c)
39. Dry farming in India is extensively practiced in
(a) Kanara plains
(b) Deccan region
(c) Coromandel plains
(d) Punjab plains
Ans. (b)
40. Which is the main source of irrigation of agricultural land in India?
(a) Canals
(b) Wells
(c) Tanks
(d) Rivers
Ans. (b)
41. In which state of India wet agriculture is practised.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d Kerala
Ans. (d)
42. Jhum cultivation is prevalent in
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Manipur
Ans. (d)
43. Fishing is highly developed along the western coast of India as
(a) the continental slope along the western coast is well developed
(b) the continental shelf along the western coast is well pronounced
(c) the continental slope along the western coast is not well developed
(d) the continental shelf along the western coast is not well developed
Ans. (b)
44. The state with highest production of large cardamom in India is
(a) Assam
(b) Sikkim
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (b)
45. Which crop is sown in the largest area in M.P.?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Jowar
(d) Soyabean
Ans. (a)
46. Which of the following states has the largest average size of agricultural holdings?
(a) Punjab
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)
47. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Wheat is grown in Punjab.
(b) Tea is produced in Assam.
(c) Coffee is grown in Karnataka.
(d) Saffron is produced in Himachal Pradesh.
Ans. (d)
48. Which of the following combinations of states has experienced water logging due to over irrigation?
(a) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Bihar and Orissa
(d) Haryana and Punjab
Ans. (d)
49. Which of the following factors is/are responsible for West Bengal being the largest producer of jute in India?
I. It experiences high temperature and receives high rainfall.
2. Annual flood silts provide natural fertilizer.
3. It has the highest concentration of jute mills.
4. It is located at the sea-board.
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
50. Which of the following districts of Andhra Pradesh is regarded as the rice bowl of the state?
(a) Chittoor
(b) Nellore
(c) Warangal
(d) Cuddapah
Ans. (d)
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