name: date: teacher: biology staar eoc preparation...

Name: _____________________________________

Date: _____________________________________

Teacher: _____________________________________

Biology STAAR EOC Preparation Homework Packet

Directions: You will complete the following homework packet over the course of the next two weeks

for your biology homework. Each of these questions is specifically designed to help prepare you

for the upcoming STAAR Biology Exam. It is important that you work carefully on each question

and use your journal and review foldable to help you answer the questions. Provide justifications or

show work for each question. Homework assignments will be graded on the dates indicated below.

At the end of the two weeks, these scores will be averaged and counted as a major test grade. You

will receive only one copy of this packet. If you misplace this packet, you will need to PRINT a

copy from rlbbio.weebly.com.

Due Date Assigned Section Question #’s Grade Teacher Initials

4/21 & 4/22

4/23 & 4/24

4/27 & 4/28

4/29 & 4/30

5/1 & 5/4

Category 1 1-19

Category 2

Category 3

Category 4

Category 5

20-36

37-49

50-67

67-82

STAAR Biology EOC Preparation

Category 1: Cell Structure and Function

1. Prokaryotes are considered by the scientific community as the most ancient life-forms on Earth.

Yet, these primitive cells share many common characteristics with the more modern eukaryotes.

However, one significant difference between these two cell types is that only eukaryotes contain

A. membrane-bound compartments to carry out specialized functions

B. a selectively-permeable cell membrane to maintain homeostasis

C. deoxyribonucleic acid to serve as a template to produce proteins

D. a rigid cell wall which provides structure and support

Use the information below to answer the following two questions.

Identical lengths of potato cores were cut and massed. One potato core was then placed in 100 ml of

each of the following solutions; 0M sucrose, 0.2M sucrose, 0.4M sucrose, 0.6M sucrose, 0.8M sucrose,

and 1M sucrose. These were left to equilibrate overnight after which the potato cores were then

removed, patted dry, and massed again. Data is recorded in the table below:

Solution Initial Mass Final Mass

0M sucrose 2.2 g 2.4 g

0.2M sucrose 2.4 g 2.4 g




1M sucrose 2.3 g 1.8 g

2. What is the most likely cause of the potato core gaining mass when placed in the 0M sucrose

solution?

A. Sucrose moved into the potato core from the solution.

B. Sucrose moved from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

C. Water moved down its concentration gradient.

D. Water concentrations stayed the same inside and outside the potato core.

3. The isotonic point in this potato core experiment is closest to

A. 0M sucrose because sucrose moved into the potato core causing it to gain mass

B. 0.2M sucrose because water didn’t move into or out of the potato core

C. 0.2M sucrose because equal amounts of water moved into and out of the potato core

D. 1M sucrose because the potato core lost the most mass due to water loss

4. Viruses are considered non-living because they lack the machinery to reproduce on their own and

must rely on a cellular host cell to survive. Structures common to both cells and viruses include

A. protein capsid

B. nucleic acids

C. cell wall

D. nucleus

5. Differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes which are readily observable through the light

microscope include

I. prokaryotes are much smaller than eukaryotes

II. ribosomes are smaller in prokaryotes

III. prokaryotes lack nuclei

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

6. Cells often need to take in materials from their environment, many of which are found in lower

concentrations outside the cell compared to inside the cell. In order to do this, cells must use the

energy from ATP to move these materials

A. against the concentration gradient through active transport

B. with the concentration gradient through active transport

C. against the concentration gradient through passive transport

D. with the concentration gradient through passive transport

7. The cellular organelle most directly involved in maintaining homeostasis is the

A. plasma membrane

B. cell wall

C. chloroplast

D. mitochondria

8. Viruses are able to infect cells because they share a common genetic code and are able to use host

cell enzymes to carry out protein synthesis. There are some structures which are unique to viruses and

not found in cells. These include

I. Protein capsid

II. Nucleic acids

III. Cell wall

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. II and III only

9. Which of the following most accurately shows diffusion ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

= solute

Observe the cell to the right to questions

10-12.

10. The rough ER is represented by which

letter ?

A. 2 B. 3

C. 5 D. 6

11. The organelle where cellular respiration

takes place and glucose is converted into ATP

energy is represented by

A. 2 B. 4

C. 5 D. 6

12. Which organelle is responsible for

maintaining homeostasis by controlling what

enters and exits the cell ?

A. 3 B. 7

C. 1 D. 5

13. During an infection, some viruses remain inside cell but do not cause symptoms of disease. The

graphic above depicts the

A. lytic cycle and the host cell is destroyed by rapidly reproducing viral particles

B. lytic cycle and the viral nucleic acid inserts into the host cell chromosome

C. lysogenic cycle and the viral nucleic acid inserts into the host cell chromosome

D. lysogenic cycle and the viral nucleic acid replicates independently of the host cell

chromosome

14. Before a cell enters mitosis, all of the following events must occur during interphase EXCEPT

A. The cell passes through a series of 3 checkpoints.

B. The cell grows in size.

C. Nuclei are divided.

D. Cellular organelles are synthesized.

15. The stage of the cell cycle pictured above may be best described as

A. Cytokinesis: the cytoplasm of the cell is divided

B. S phase: DNA is copied, resulting in identical sister chromatids

C. G2 phase: the cell grows in size and prepares to divide the nucleus

D. Mitotic phase: the nucleus is divided

16. Leaves are plant organs specialized for photosynthesis. Through the light microscope, which

organelle would be expected to be seen in greater numbers? A. B. C. D.

17. Each of the following statements describes the importance of the cell cycle and Mitosis to an

organism EXCEPT

A. The cell cycle and Mitosis are important to produce identical new cells so that a multi-

cellular eukaryote can grow larger.

B. The cell cycle and Mitosis are important to produce identical new cells so that a unicellular

eukaryote can reproduce.

C. The cell cycle and Mitosis are important to produce identical new cells so that a multi-

cellular eukaryote can repair damaged tissue.

D. The cell cycle and Mitosis are important to produce identical new cells so that a multi-

cellular eukaryote can reproduce.

18. When harmful mutations occur in genes that contain the information to make cell cycle regulatory

proteins, this may result in accelerated cell division. The result of these mutations is most likely

A. cancer

B. slower cell growth

C. a halt in mitosis

D. entry into G0 phase

19. Nucleic acids differ from carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins because

A. They are composed of amino acids.

B. They only contain the atoms C, H, O.

C. They are self-replicating.

D. They are formed through hydrolysis.


Category 2: Mechanisms of Genetics

20. Which of the following illustrations depicts a nucleotide, the building block of DNA?

21. Which statement most accurately describes how deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) carries the genetic

code for building an organism?

A. The order of nitrogen bases provides the genetic code

B. The genetic code is based on the number of hydrogen bonds found between nitrogen bases

C. The number of deoxyribose sugars along the sides of the DNA ladder is used to determine

the genetic code

D. The shape of the DNA molecule provides the genetic code

22. Which of the following structures would pair with the nitrogen base Adenine in a complementary

strand of DNA?

23. Restriction enzymes isolated from various bacterial spp. have been extensively used in the

biotechnology laboratory for cutting human genes from DNA samples to insert into bacterial

plasmids. This is made possible because

A. Nitrogen bases form a common genetic code for all organisms.

B. DNA is maintained in both bacterial and human cells within nuclear membranes.

C. Small, circular pieces of DNA called plasmids are common to both humans and bacteria.

D. Restriction enzymes cut at random sequences so it does not matter that humans and bacteria

use a different genetic code.

24. The model in the graphic above illustrates translation, the latter part of the process of protein

synthesis. Which other necessary components for translation are absent from the graphic?

A. messenger RNA and transfer RNA

B. ER membranes and ribosomes

C. ribosomal RNA and DNA

D. transfer RNA and ribosomes

25. Which of the following statements is NOT correct

regarding the process in the illustration to the right?

A. I must be complementary to an mRNA

codon.

B. This process occurs in the nucleus of a cell.

C. III shows the first two amino acids of a

growing polypeptide chain.

D. The process shown is translation.

26. Bacterial species’ genomes are arranged somewhat differently than those of eukaryotes. Their

circular chromosome contains clusters of genes which code for proteins that work together to

accomplish a series of related tasks. In this way, groups of genes can be turned on when the gene

product(s) are needed, and turned off when they aren’t needed. This confirms the fact that

A. Gene expression is a regulated process.

B. Genes are arranged similarly in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

C. Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes.

D. Bacterial genomes are much larger than those of eukaryotes.

Use the illustration to the right to answer

questions 27-28.

27. Changes in DNA sequences are called mutations.

Mutations may affect only one nitrogen base in the

sequence, or may affect large regions of a chromosome.

The particular type of gene mutation that is illustrated to the

right is called a

A. point mutation

B. insertion mutation

C. frameshift mutation

D. nonsense mutation

28. The significance of this gene mutation is that

A. A different amino acid sequence results which is likely to affect the functioning of the final

protein product.

B. A different amino acid sequence results which is not likely to affect the functioning of the

final protein product.

C. No protein product will be produced.

D. The protein product is unaffected.

29. Maize is a variety of corn that is often used to illustrate genetic crosses. Since each kernel of corn

on a cob is an offspring, much data can be obtained from observing a single corn cob. Kernels are

found as one of two colors; either purple (P) which is dominant, or yellow (p) which is recessive. If

two heterozygous purple plants were crossed, what would be the predicted phenotype ratio of the

resulting offspring?

A. 1PP: 2Pp: 1pp C. 3 purple: 1 yellow

B. all PP D. all purple

30. Lentil seeds can be found in two varieties based on the different sizes of spots which may be

observed on their outer surface. Seeds with larger spots are

called spotted, while seeds with smaller spots are called dotted.

The different-sized spots are inherited in a co-dominant

pattern. Predict the resulting phenotype of offspring if a lentil

with spotted seeds were crossed with a lentil that has dotted seeds.

A. Seeds are both spotted and dotted. C. Seeds have no spots.

B. Seeds have intermediate size spots. D. Seeds are all spotted.

31. Horse coat color is inherited in an incomplete dominance pattern. If a dark brown colored stallion

is mated with a cream colored mare, what would be the expected phenotype(s) of the offspring?

A. all dark brown C. both dark brown and cream patches

B. all cream D. tan

32. In pea plants, tall (T) is dominant over short (t), and purple flowers (P) are dominant to white

flowers (p). Given two parent plants which are heterozygous for both of these traits, what is the

probability of producing tall offspring with white flowers?

A. 9/16 C. 3/16

B. 1/16 D. 0

33. Variation is the raw material for change in organisms, providing a mechanism by which

populations may evolve and adapt to changing environmental conditions. Meiosis provides a number

of opportunities for increased variation in sexually reproducing populations through each of the

following events EXCEPT

A. crossing over C. independent assortment of alleles

B. f ertilization D. random distribution of homologous chromosomes

34. Using the gel electrophoresis and DNA fingerprinting

to the right, which set of parents are most likely to be the

child’s biological parents?

A. Parents A C. Parents B

B. Parents C D. Parents D

35. The process of meiosis occurs in sexually reproducing eukaryotes and is important for the

continuation of these species because of all of the following EXCEPT

A. Chromosome number is halved in the daughter cells.

B. Crossing over during Prophase I provides increased variation.

C. Diploid chromosome number is maintained in the zygote.

D. Gametes produced are 2n.

36. A baby is born with phenotypic characteristics of Down’s syndrome; a rounded face, small chin,

almond-shaped eyes, and shorter limbs. Evidence from which of these techniques would best confirm

the child has an extra chromosome 21?

A. gel electrophoresis C. DNA fingerprinting

B. karyotype analysis D. gene therapy


Category 3: Biological Evolution and Classification

37. Homologous anatomical structures such as those

in the illustration above, provide evidence that these

organisms

A. are equally related to one another

B. are not related to one another

C. share a distant common ancestor

D. share the same parents

38. The complete amino acid sequence was determined

of a protein shared by all primate groups. The data

provided in the graph above shows the percentage of

amino acids each primate protein shared with the

human protein. According to this molecular homology

data,

A. The gorilla is least related to humans.

B. The gorilla and chimpanzee are most closely

related.

C. The chimpanzee is most closely related to humans.

D. The chimpanzee is least related to the gibbon.

39. The rock strata were excavated in an area as illustrated above

and the fossil remains examined. According to this information,

the most likely scenario is that

A. Layer I is the oldest, followed by Layer II, III, and IV.

B. Fish suddenly appeared on Earth at the time of Layer III.

C. A marine environment gradually filled with sediment

and became a terrestrial environment.

D. A terrestrial environment was covered by a shallow sea

for a period of time.

40. How does competition for limited resources within and between species drive evolutionary

change?

A. Individuals with favorable adaptations will out-compete others and produce more offspring.

B. Competition makes some individuals stronger than others, and more of the stronger

individuals survive.

C. Stronger individuals develop different adaptations than weaker individuals.

D. Competition produces variation between populations.

41. Each of the finch varieties pictured above evolved from a common ancestral finch species. This

diversity of species likely developed due to

A. individuals evolving different traits during their lifetime living longer than others

B. finches being born with beneficial variations reproducing more successfully

C. immigration of finch species providing a greater variety of traits in the population

D. selective predation of one particular variety of finch

42. Cheetahs are the fastest land mammals, yet can only

maintain their top speed of about 70 mph for a few

seconds. Since all cheetahs are nearly genetically

identical due to a past bottleneck event, development of

future diversity in this species is most likely to occur by

A. gene flow

B. immigration

C. emigration

D. mutation

43. Which is the best description of how the fossil record provides evidence

of common ancestry?

A. Analogous structures can be identified between related groups of

organisms.

B. Homologous structures can be identified between related groups of

organisms.

C. Molecular homologies can be identified through trace remains.

D. Developmental homologies can be identified through fossilized soft

tissues.

44. Duck feet are especially well-adapted for life in the water. Sharp claws allow them to better

navigate the wet, slippery environment and webbed toes aid in their swimming ability. These

adaptations probably came about as a result of

A. one duck developing these favorable traits over its lifetime and passing them to its offspring

B. variation in the duck population; ducks born with one or more of these traits were more

reproductively successful

C. nature selecting against these adaptations

D. selective breeding of ducks with these favorable traits over many generations

45. An organism was recently discovered and displayed the following characteristics; red coloration,

eukaryotic, non-motile, photosynthetic. This organism is classified in the kingdom

A. Plantae C. Fungi

B. Animalia D. Protista

46. Given the characteristics described in the information

box to the right, this species belongs in kingdom

A. Archaebacteria

B. Fungi

C. Eubacteria

D. Protista

47. The organism pictured below, Escherichia coli, is a common symbiont in mammalian digestive

systems. This organism has a circular chromosome located in a region of the cell called the nucleoid

(A), a rigid outer cell wall (B), and a semi-permeable cell membrane (C). To which kingdom does

this organism belong?

A. Archaebacteria

B. Eubacteria

C. Protista

D. Fungi

48. Fungi are unique among eukaryotes in that they are

A. unicellular

B. multicellular

C. autotrophic

D. decomposers

Use the information in the illustration and table below to answer question 49.

Amphibia

(amphibians)

Cold- blooded Smooth skin Gills in young, adults respire

through lungs, skin

Aves

(birds)

Warm-blooded Body covered in

feathers

lungs

Mammalia

(mammals)

Warm-blooded Body covered in hair lungs

Osteichthyes

(bony fish)

Cold-blooded Body covered in

scales

gills

Chondrichthyes

(cartilaginous fish)


scales

gills

Reptilia

(reptiles)


scales

lungs

49. The animal species in the illustration has the following characteristics; it breathes with lungs,

maintains a constant body temperature, has hair, gives live birth, and nurses young with milk. These

characteristics place the animal in the class

A. Amphibia

B. Aves

C. Mammalia

D. Osteichthyes


Category 4: Biological Processes and Systems

50. The simple sugar glucose, C6H12O6 , is formed through the process of photosynthesis as depicted

in the chemical equation above. Simple sugars are unique among bio-molecule monomers in that

A. They are used by the body for long-term energy storage.

B. They do not dissolve readily in water.

C. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms are always found in a 1:2:1 ratio.

D. They are the building blocks of proteins.

51. When comparing the reactants and products of photosynthesis and cellular respiration, which

statement is true?

A. Carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis.

B. Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration.

C. Solar energy is converted to chemical energy in the process of photosynthesis.

D. Energy is stored in the bonds of glucose in the process of cellular respiration.

52. When compared to the process of photosynthesis, cellular respiration produces more

I. ATP

II. CO2

III. O2

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I and III only

53. Enzymes are proteins which function in both metabolic and anabolic pathways in living things.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of enzymes?

A. Enzymes act as biological catalysts.

B. Enzymes slow down chemical reactions.

C. Enzymes reduce activation energy needed for a chemical reaction to proceed.

D. Enzymes are re-usable.

54. Lactase is an enzyme which breaks apart the disaccharide lactose, the sugar found in milk

products, into the monomers galactose and glucose. Most species of mammals, including humans

cease production of lactase as they reach adulthood. Which is NOT a conclusion that can be drawn?

A. Lactose is a sugar that is indigestible by mammals.

B. Adults who wish to consume milk products should consider a dietary supplement which

contains the enzyme lactase.

C. Lactose fits into the active site of lactase.

D. Adults who don’t produce lactase cannot metabolize lactose.

55. Which of the following conditions affects the rate of enzymatic reactions?

I. temperature

II. pH

III. substrate concentration

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and III only

D. I, II, and III

56. Which of these best describes how human body systems interact to protect the body from injury or

illness?

A. The skeletal system releases calcium ions into the organs of the respiratory system to

encapsulate bacteria and viruses in the lungs.

B. Immune system B-cells are produced in the bone marrow of the skeletal system and

introduced into the blood stream.

C. The nervous system stimulates the digestive system to release toxins that kill invading

microbes.

D. Hormones released by viruses increase both blood pressure and body temperature which

work to inactivate them.

57. Which is the best description of how the organ system pictured below interacts with the circulatory

system to deliver nutrients to cells?

A. Nutrients are taken in through the respiratory system and

are picked up by the thin walls of capillaries in the lungs for

delivery to the rest of the body’s cells.

B. The digestive system processes food into smaller molecules

which are picked up for delivery to the body’s cells by the

circulatory system through capillaries in the small intestine.

C. The circulatory system moves the secretions from the liver,

gallbladder, and pancreas through the bloodstream for

delivery to the stomach where they are used to break down

large particles.

D. Water recovered from the large intestine is picked up by

capillaries and delivered to the stomach to aid in digestion.

58. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe how the reproductive system

interacts with another organ system?

A. Pituitary gland hormones are sent through the circulatory system which stimulate secretion

of sex hormones from ovaries and testes.

B. Reproductive organs release hormones into the circulatory system which control sexual

behavior and cycles.

C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide collected by the respiratory system are delivered through the

bloodstream to the reproductive system.

D. The sex hormones stimulate the development of secondary sexual characteristics, including

muscle development.

59. Which is the best explanation of how the muscular system aids in delivering nutrients to cells?

A. Layers of smooth muscle line the organs of the digestive system, pushing the meal through

the system by involuntary contractions known as peristalsis.

B. Teeth mechanically break down food into smaller pieces so enzymes in the digestive system

have a larger surface area to work on.

C. Microvilli in the small intestine have a large surface area for small molecules to diffuse

from the digestive system into the bloodstream.

D. Large muscles require large amounts of energy to do work.

Before After

60. Which is the best description of the interactions of plant organ systems to produce the response

illustrated above?

A. Stem tips produce a growth hormone which travels through phloem tissues to other parts of

the plant where it causes elongation of cells on the dark side of a stem.

B. Leaves which receive excess sunlight produce a wilting hormone that travels to other parts

of the plant through vascular tissues.

C. Bright days cause leaves to lose water rapidly, which draws water up from the roots through

vascular tissues at such a pace that stems bend due to the increased water weight.

D. Certain chemical substances in the air are taken into leaves through stoma and as they are

carried downward through vascular tissues in the stem the increased weight causes stems to

bend.

61. Glucose produced by photosynthesis is stored as starch in storage organs such as potatoes, onions,

and carrots. Which of these is NOT part of the plant system interactions involved in this process?

A. Leaves produce the sugar glucose through photosynthesis.

B. Sugars produced by leaves are moved from sink to source by xylem vessels.

C. Sugars produced by leaves are moved from source to sink by phloem vessels.

D. Root systems store glucose as starch.

62. Which is the most correct description of two plant systems interacting to perform the function of

reproduction in angiosperms?

A. Carbon is obtained from the air as CO2 through stoma in the leaves to build all of the

macromolecules needed for reproduction.

B. Carbon is obtained from the soil through the root systems and delivered with water and

other nutrients to reproductive organs.

C. Most water is obtained in the form of water vapor through leaf pores and delivered through

phloem tissues to reproductive organs.

D. Most water is absorbed directly through stoma during rain events and transferred to all parts

of the plant by phloem tissues.

63. Many plants have the ability to respond to herbivores. Some plants produce substances which are

distasteful or toxic in response to an herbivore attack. Which of these is the least correct description

of the plant system interactions involved?

A. Carbon dioxide diffuses through stoma into leaf tissues, where it is fixed into organic

compounds which may serve as building blocks for chemical defenses.

B. Root systems obtain water and key minerals from the soil, where they are transported to the

affected site.

C. Shoot systems carry carbon dioxide, water and nutrients from leaves directly to the affected

plant part, where chemical defense molecules are produced.

D. Chemicals found in a herbivore’s saliva trigger chemical messengers which trigger

production of defense molecules.

64. A tissue would be a component of each of the following EXCEPT

A. organ

B. cellular organelle

C. organ system

D. organism

65. Which term contains all of the others?

A. tissue

B. organ

C. organ system

D. cell

66. Which of the following statements is least accurate in describing internal feedback mechanisms?

A. The excretory system plays a major role in controlling water balance, salt concentrations in

the blood, and removing nitrogenous wastes.

B. An imbalance in blood sugar regulation by the competing hormones insulin and glucagon

may result in the disease diabetes.

C. Cold-blooded organisms expend less energy than warm-blooded organisms because they

lack control mechanisms to maintain body temperature.

D. Positive feedback mechanisms work to maintain levels within a narrow window of

parameters, whereas negative feedback mechanisms push levels beyond the normal range.

67. Microorganisms such as E. coli inhabit the digestive systems of a variety of higher organisms,

including humans. These microorganisms help their hosts maintain health by all of these EXCEPT

A. breaking down food

B. producing key nutrients

C. infecting adjoining tissues

D. competing with harmful microorganisms


Category 5: Interdependence within Environmental Systems

68. As the process of ecological succession progresses with time, species diversity tends to

A. gradually decrease from colonization to climax community

B. be limited in early stages and increase over time

C. increase during intermediate stages, then rapidly decrease during the climax community

stage

D. be highest in the colonization stages

69. Which of these statements best summarizes the change in populations which has occurred during

the stages of succession illustrated above?

A. Populations of freshwater fish and aquatic plants are gradually replaced by populations of

weeds and grasses as a pond fills with silt.

B. A terrestrial ecosystem is replaced by a freshwater ecosystem.

C. A marine ecosystem is replaced by a terrestrial ecosystem.

D. Populations of freshwater fish and aquatic plants die off as their habit becomes filled with

silt.

70. Hummingbirds are attracted by large, brightly colored flowering plants. The flowers provide a

food source for the hummingbirds in the form of nectar and in exchange, the hummingbirds transfer

pollen from one flower to another. This relationship is best described as

A. parasitism

B. mutualism

C. predation

D. commensalism

71. Cowbirds do not build their own nests, but rather they lay their eggs in the nests of other birds.

When the eggs hatch, the cowbird young are then taken care of by the birds who built the nest, often at

the expense of their own young. This relationship is an example of

A. parasitism

B. mutualism

C. predation

D. commensalism

72. Based on the adaptations listed in the table below, which organism is best suited for life in the

desert ecosystem? Organism Root Adaptation Stem Adaptation Leaf Adaptation Reproductive

Adaptation

A. Water lily Roots and root hairs

absent

Stems bend with water flow Stoma restricted to

upper surface of

leaves

Seeds can float

B. Bromeliad Aerial roots to absorb

from the air

Smooth stems and leaves

with drip tips allow water to

runoff

Large, broad leaves Animal pollinated

C. Sagebrush 3 sets of roots to collect

water

Stems store water Leaf hairs direct

sunlight away from

leaf surface

Seeds germinate in

response to rain

D. Fescue Extensive roots survive

fire and grazing

animals

Soft stems bend in the wind Narrow leaves prevent

water loss

(desiccation)

Wind pollinated

73. Eliminating microorganisms from an ecosystem would have all of the following effects EXCEPT

A. increased carbon dioxide available to plants

B. plants starved of key nitrogen-containing nutrients

C. food chains disrupted

D. decomposition would halt

74. Termites are incapable of digesting the wood fibers they ingest, but maintain a population of

symbiotic bacteria in their gut which break down the wood fiber for them. This relationship is best

described as

A. parasitism

B. mutualism

C. predation

D. commensalism

75. The deer tick must feed on the blood of warm-blooded mammals in order to survive. At times, as

the tick feeds it also transmits harmful bacteria to the host which cause lyme disease. This

relationship is an example of

A. parasitism

B. mutualism

C. predation

D. commensalism

76. In the food web above, which organisms are most likely to become overpopulated if there were a

larger than average production of seeds during a growing season?

A. grouse C. elk

B. chipmunk D. grizzly bear

Organism Adaptation #1 Adaptation #2 Adaptation #3 Adaptation #4

A. Snowshoe

hare

Large, furry feet Rounded and reduced ear

size

Extra thick fur Fur changes color;

brown in summer,

white in winter

B. Kangaroo

rat

Small-bodied Large ears with lots of

blood vessels to release

body heat

Burrows underground

during the day

Increased ability to

concentrate urine

C. Prairie

dog

Sharp teeth to eat

tough grasses

Strong hind legs allow

them to stand upright to

guard burrows

Lives in underground

tunnels to escape extreme

temperatures and predators

Receive water they

need from food

D. Tarsier Arboreal, living

almost

exclusively in

trees

Flattened nails assist in

capturing insects

Large eyes with excellent

sight for nocturnal hunting

Long limbs and tail

make the tarsier an

excellent climber

and jumper

77. Based on the adaptations listed in the table above, which organism is best suited for life in the

tropical rainforest ecosystem?

A. Snowshoe hare C. Prairie dog

B. Kangaroo rat D. Tarsier

Use the pyramid below to answer questions 78-79.

78. An herbicide is sprayed on foliage to eliminate weedy

plants. This herbicide remains on the leaves of sprayed

plants, is ingested by grasshoppers and accumulates in their

tissues. Songbirds then feed on the grasshoppers and the

herbicide accumulates in their tissues. Finally, the coyote

feeds on songbirds and the herbicide accumulates in the

coyote’s body. At which trophic level do the toxins become

most concentrated?

A. producers

B. primary consumers

C. secondary consumers

D. top consumers

79. What is the best explanation of why the numbers of organisms at each trophic level decrease from

the bottom of the pyramid to the top?

A. The organisms increase in size as you move up the pyramid.

B. Energy is used for life processes and lost as heat at each trophic level.

C. Energy is wasted at each trophic level.

D. There is more sunlight available to the first trophic level.

80. Carbon flows cyclically through organisms and the environment. Which of the following

descriptions of the carbon cycle is NOT correct?

A. Major reservoirs of carbon include tropical forests, oceans

and fossil fuels.

B. Carbon dioxide is produced through photosynthesis and

used in cellular respiration.

C. Humans may disrupt the carbon cycle by burning fossil

fuels which may result in global warming.

D. Carbon is released to the atmosphere in the form of CO2

through respiration in living things.

81. In an ecosystem, the simple food chain above shows the movement of matter and energy from one

organism to the next. If disease reduced the number of organisms at the producer level, which other

organism would feel the greatest effect?

A. the mouse because it is a producer

B. the mouse because it eats producers

C. the cat since it is a 2nd

order consumer

D. the coyote because it is the top consumer in the food chain

82. The graph depicts the growth of a population of yeast cells over

time. The top, straight line most likely represents

A. the limit of tolerance of the yeast cells to environmental

conditions

B. the highest number of yeast cells the population can achieve

C. the carrying capacity of the environment

D. population size of a predator which preys on the yeast

name: date: teacher: biology staar eoc preparation...

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