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Vidyamandir Classes
VMC/2013 1 Mock IIT Advanced Test-2/Paper-2
Mock IIT Advanced Test - 2/2013/Paper-2
05/05/2013
TEST CODE : ACEG M.M. : 198
03:00 PM - 06:00 PM TIME : 3.00 Hrs
Read the following Instructions very carefully before you proceed.
1. The question paper CODE is printed on the top.
2. Blank spaces and blank pages are provided in this booklet for your rough work. No additional sheets will
be provided for rough work.
3. Using a black ball point pen, darken the bubbles on the upper original sheet. Apply sufficient pressure
so that the impression is created on the bottom sheet.
4. DO NOT TAMPER WITH /MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
5. Write your Name, Registration Number and the name of examination centre and sign with pen in the
boxes provided on the right part of the ORS. Do not write any of this information anywhere else. Darken
the appropriate bubble UNDER each digit of your Registration Number.
The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part consists of three
sections.
6. Section I contains 14 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
7. Section II contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE or MORE are correct.
8. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer ONLY and zero (0) marks if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one
(−1) mark will be awarded in these sections.
9. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken ALL the bubble(s)
corresponding to the correct answer(s) ONLY. In all other cases zero (0) marks will be awarded. No
negative marks will be awarded for incorrect answer(s) in this section.
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PART - I (CHEMISTRY) 66 MARKS
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 14 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
Only One is Correct :
1. 25 mL of an aqueous solution of KCl was found to require 20 mL of 1 M AgNO3 solution when titrated
using a K2CrO4 as indicator. The freezing point of KCl solution will be :
[ 1fK 2.0 mol kg−= ° and molarity = molality]
(A) 1.6− ° C (B) 3.2° C (C) 1.6° C (D) 3.2− ° C
2. If there were three possible values1 1, 0,
2 2
− +
for spin magnetic quantum number. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct regarding a hypothetical periodic table based on these conditions
assuming all other laws remain same?
(A) First period would have only 2 elements (B) Second period would have 12 elements
(C) Periodic table would contain 27 groups (D) Helium will become paramagnetic
3. Statement : 1 E° for 3 2Mn /Mn+ + is more positive than for 3 2Cr /Cr+ + .
Statement : 2 The third ionization energy of Mn is larger than that of Cr.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True and Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True and Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
4. Which of the following has dsp2 hybridisation and is diamagnetic in nature ?
I. [Ni(DMG)2] II. 3
4[Ag(SCN) ] − III. 4[AuBr ]−
(A) I, III (B) I, II, III (C) I, II (D) None of these
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5. The pH at which in presence of a given indicator a titration is ended is sometimes known as titration
exponent and is denoted by pT. For methyl orange pT value is 4.0. Calculate the indicator (methyl
orange) error (in multiple of 210− ) if 0.1 N HCl is titrated by 0.1 N NaOH. [Hint : Visualise error in
terms of H+ added versus H
+ left]
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
6. A CCP structure has the formula AB2C4 where C atoms are cubic closed packed, B atoms occupy half of
the octahedral voids A atoms are present in 1/8th of the tetrahedral voids. The packing fraction if A, B
atoms are in contact with C :
(A) 0.62 (B) 0.77 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.59
7. X 2 4K CrO→ Yellow ppt. 3NH
soln→No change
Y 2 4K CrO→ Red ppt. 3NH
soln→ black ppt
Z 2 4K CrO→ Red ppt. 3NH
soln→ ppt. dissolves
X, Y and Z are :
(A) 222Pb , Hg , Ag++ + (B) 2 2
2Ag ,Hg , Pb++ +
(C) 22
2Hg , Ag , Pb+ + + (D) 222Pb ,Ag ,Hg ++ +
8. Which of the following is INCORRECT ?
(A) Slowest step is the Rate determining step
(B) A reaction mechanism may have more than one intermediate complex
(C) For an exothermic reaction, Energy of products is more than that of reactants
(D) Order of a reaction may be fractional
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9. The structure of a poly peptide formed from : Alanine, Glycine & Phenylalanine will be:
(A) 2 2
6 5 2 6 5
O O|| ||
H N CH C NH CH C NH CH COOH| |C H CH C H
− − − − − − − −
(B) 2 2
6 5 6 5
O O|| ||
H N CH C NH CH C NH CH COOH| |C H C H
− − − − − − − −
(C) 2 2
3 2 6 5
O O|| ||
H N CH C NH CH C NH CH COOH| |CH CH C H
− − − − − − − −
(D) 2 2 3
3 2 6 5
O O O|| || ||
H N CH C NH CH C NH C CH CH| |CH CH C H
− − − − − − − − −
Paragraph for Question 10 - 11
Sodium fusion extract, obtained from nitrogen containing organic compounds, on treatment with iron (II)
sulphate and H2SO4 in presence of air gives a Prussian blue precipitate.
10. The blue colour is due to the formation of :
(A) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (B) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 (C) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2 (D) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3
11. In which of the following compound, the sodium fusion extract of nitrogen containing compound, on
treatment with iron(II) sulphate and H2SO4 in presence of air will not gives a Prussian blue precipitate.
(A) H2NCO NHNH2.HCl (B) NH2NH2
.HCl
(C) NH2CONH2 (D) C6H5NH NH2.HCl
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Paragraph for Question 12 - 14
The Organic compounds undergo various types of reaction. Such as Electrophilic addition, Nucleophilic
substitution, Electrophilic substitution etc. The characteristic reaction of an organic compound depends on nature
of functional group, stability of intermediate and reaction conditions.
12. The major product in the following reaction is
CH3—C = CH— HBr
CH3
Major Product —NO2
CH3—CH—CH—
CH3
—NO2
Br
(A)
CH3—C— CH2—
CH3
—NO2
Br
(B)
CH3—CH—CH—
Br
—NO2(C)
CH3
CH3—CH—CH2—
CH3
(D) —NO2
Br
13. The rate of the reaction:
R— —CH2—Br + N R— —CH2—N H
⊕
Br
is influenced by the hyper conjugation effect of group R. If R sequentially is :
(P) CH3—, (Q) CH3–CH2—
CH3—CH—
CH3
(R)
The decreasing order of speed of the above reaction is
(A) S > R > Q > P (B) P > Q > R > S (C) P > S > R > Q (D) R > Q > P > S
14. During F.C alkylation in the given structure, electrophile will go at position :
(A) 1 and 2 both
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) No substitution possible
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
CH3—C—
CH3
(S)
CH3
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SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which one
or More Choices may be Correct:
15. The correct statement(s) among the following is(are) :
(A) NCl5 does not exist while PCl5 does
(B) Lead prefers to form tetravalent compounds
(C) The three C—O bonds are identical in the carbonate ion
(D) Both 2O+ and NO are paramagnetic
16.
(A) Ring I is pyranose with α -glycosidic link
(B) Ring II is pyranose with β -glycosidic link
(C) The above given disaccharide is non-reducing
(D) The above given disaccharide is lactose
17. Which of the following is(are) TRUE :
(A) A mixture of Toluene and aniline can be separated by reacting with hydrochloric acid
(B) (C2H5)2 NH & C3H7OH can be separated by adding hot conc. H2SO4 followed by steam
distillation
(C) Adding ceric ammonium nitrate to an aqueous solution of para-cresol given reddish brown
precipitate
(D) HCHO and CH3CHO can be distinguished by the action of ammoniacal AgNO3
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18. Which of the following is(are) CORRECT statement(s) about the compound NO[BF4] ?
(A) It has 5 and 2 bondσ π
(B) Nitrogen-oxygen bond length is higher than nitric oxide (NO)
(C) It is a diamagnetic species
(D) B F− bond length in this compound is longer than that in BF3
19. K2MnO4 in unstable in solution and the green solution obtained is changed into purple colouration.
Correct statement(s) regarding the above change are :
(A) It is a disproportionation reaction
(B) It produces blackish-brown precipitate of MnO2
(C) Purple colour is due to formation of KMnO4 which forms purple (almost black) crystals on
crystallization
(D) Crystals of KMnO4 if heated will dissociate to give off oxygen
20. The reagent that can be used to distinguish between the products obtained by the acid hydrolysis of (A)
and (B) given below is :
I. 2, 4-Dinitrophenyl hydrazine II. Lucas reagent
III. Iodoform Test IV. Tollens’ reagent
The correct option is :
(A) I, II (B) II, III (C) III, IV (D) I, III, IV
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PART - II (PHYSICS) 66 MARKS
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 14 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
Only One is Correct :
21. An insect of negligible mass is sitting on a block of mass M, tied with a
spring of force constant k. The block performs simple harmonic motion
with amplitude A in front of a plane mirror placed as shown.
The maximum speed of insect relative to its image will be:
(A) k
AM
(B) 3
2
A k
M
(C) 3k
AM
(D) 2M
Ak
22. A particle revolves in clockwise direction (as seen from point A) in a
circle C of radius 1 cm and completes one revolution in 2 sec. The axis
of the circle (coincides with) principal axis of the mirror and radius of
curvature of the mirror is 20 cm. Then, the direction of revolution
(as seen from A) of the image of the particle and its speed is:
(A) Clockwise, 11 57. cms− (B) Clockwise, 3.14 1cms−
(C) Anticlockwise, 1.57 1cms− (D) Anticlockwise, 3.14 1cms−
23. The region between two concentric spheres of radii a and b(>a) contains volume charge
density ( ) Cr
rρ = , where C is a constant and r is the radial distance, as shown in
figure. A point charge q is placed at the origin, r = 0. Find the value of C for which the
electric field in the region between the spheres is constant (i.e., r independent).
(A) 2
q
aπ (B)
( )2 2
q
a bπ + (C)
22
q
aπ (D)
22
q
bπ
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q r a
b
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24. Two ends A and B of a smooth chain of mass m and length l are situated as
shown in fig. If an external agent pulls A till it comes to same level of B,
work done by external agent is:
(A) 36
mgl (B)
15
mgl
(C) 9
mgl (D) None of these
25. In the figure shown the instantaneous speed of end A of the rod is v to the
left. The angular velocity of the rod of length L must be:
(A) 2
v
L (B)
v
L
(C) 3
2
v
L (D) None of these
26. Figure shows a crude type of atomizer. When bulb A is compressed, air flows
swiftly through tube BC causing a reduced pressure in the particles of the
vertical tube. Liquid rises in the tube, enters BC and is sprayed out. If the
pressure in the bulb is Pa + P, where P is the gauge pressure and Pa is the
atmospheric pressure, v is the speed of air in BC, find how large would v
need to be to cause the liquid to rise to BC. Density of air = 1.3 Kg/m3.
(A) 0 65
P gh
.
ρ+ (B)
0 65
P gh
.
− ρ
(C)
0 65
P h g
.
ρ+
(D)
0 65
P gh
.
ρ−
27. Two particles of medium disturbed by the wave propagation are at x1 = 0 and x2 = 1 cm. The respective
displacements (in cm) of the particles can be given by the equations:
( )1 22 3 2 3 8y sin t y sin t /π π π= , = −
The wave velocity is:
(A) 16 cm/s (B) 24 cm/s (C) 12 cm/s (D) 8 cm/s
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28. A tennis ball with (small) mass m2 rests on the top of a basketball of mass m1 which
is at a height h above the ground, and the bottom of the tennis ball is at height
(h + d) above the ground. The balls are dropped. To what height does the tennis ball
bounce with respect to ground? (Assume all collisions to be elastic and 1 2m m )
(A) 7h + d (B) 7h (C) 9h (D) 9h + d
Paragraph for Question 29 - 30
In a modified YDSE, the region between the screen and slits is
immersed in liquid whose refractive index varies with time as
µ1 = (5/2) – (T/4) until it reaches a steady state value of 5/4.
A glass plate of thickness 36 mµ and refractive index = 3/2 is
introduced in front of one of the slits.
29. Find the time when central maxima is at point O,
located symmetrically on the x-axis.
(A) 2s (B) 4 s (C) 6 s (D) 8 s
30. What is the speed of the central maxima when it is at O?
(A) 3 13 10 ms− −× (B)
3 14 10 ms− −× (C) 3 110 10 ms− −× (C) 3 11 10 ms− −×
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Paragraph for Question 31 - 32
In the circuit shown in fig the capacitor has capacitance 20C mF= and is initially charged to 100 V with the
polarity shown. The resistor R0 has resistance 10Ω . At time t = 0, the switch is closed. The smaller circuit is not
connected in any way to the larger one. The wire of the smaller circuit has a
resistance of 11 0Ω. m− and contains 25 loops and its dimensions are a = 10.0 cm
and b = 20.0 cm. The distance c is 5.0 cm. (The figure is not drawn to scale.) Both
circuits are held stationary in the same plane. Assume that only the wire nearest to
the smaller circuit produces an appreciable magnetic field through it and length of
that wire is much larger than the smaller circuit. (ln2 = 0.0693 and ln3 = 1.010)
31. The current in the larger circuit 200 ms after closing S is :
(A) 5A
e (B)
2A
e (C)
15A
e (D)
10A
e
32. The current in the smaller circuit 200 ms after closing S is :
(A) 0 54. Aµ B) 0 10. Aµ (C) 0 15. Aµ (D) 0 36. Aµ
33. A tube of uniform cross section is used to siphon water
from a vessel V as shown in the figure. The pressure over
the open end of water in the vessel is atmospheric
pressure ( )50 1 10P Pa= × . The heights of the tube above
and below the water level in the vessel are h1 and h2,
respectively. If h2 = 3.0 m, the maximum value of h1, for
which the siphon will work is : (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 3.0 m (B) 6.0 m (C) 7 m (D) 4.8 m
34. A uniform magnetic field of induction B is confined to a cylindrical region of radius R. The magnetic
field is increasing at a constant rate of 1dB / dtTs− . An electron placed at the point P on the periphery of
the field, experiences an acceleration of:
(A) towards left2
eR dB
m dt (B) towards right
2
eR dB
m dt
(C) towards lefteR dB
m dt (D) zero
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SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which one
or More Choices may be Correct:
35. A parallel-plate air capacitor has initial capacitance C. If plate separation is slowly increased from d1 to
d2, then mark the correct statement(s). [Take potential of the capacitor to be constant, i.e., throughout the
process it remains connected to battery.]
(A) Work done by electric force = − work done by external agent
(B) Work done by external force F.dx,= −∫
where Fthe electric force of attraction between the
plates at plate separation x
(C) Work done by electric force ≠ − ve of work done by external agent
(D) Work done by battery = twice the change in electric potential energy stored in capacitor
36. Figure shows a cylindrical vessel of height 90 cm
filled up to the brim. There are four holes in the vessel
as shown. The liquid falling at maximum horizontal
distance from the vessel would come from:
(A) hole 1 (B) hole 2
(C) hole 3 (D) hole 4
37. A plank with a uniform sphere placed on it rests on a smooth horizontal plane. The plank is pulled to the
right by a constant force F. If the sphere does not slip over the plank, then
(A) Both have the same acceleration
(B) Acceleration of the centre of sphere is less than that of the plank
(C) Work done by friction acting on the sphere is equal to its total kinetic energy
(D) Total kinetic energy of the system is equal to work done by the force F
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38. In the potentiometer experiment shown in figure, the null point length is l.
Choose the correct options given below :
(A) If jockey J is shifted towards right, l will increase
(B) If value of E1 is increased, l is decreased
(C) If value of E2 is increased, l is increased
(D) If switch S is closed, l will decrease
39. In the figure, if F = 4N, m = 2 kg, M = 4 kg, then :
(A) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is 22
3ms−
(B) The acceleration of m w.r.t ground is 21 2. ms−
(C) Acceleration of M w.r.t. ground is 20 4. ms−
(D) Acceleration of m w.r.t M is 22
m/s3
40. Two different coils have self-inductance L1 = 8 mH, L2 = 2mH. The current in one coil is increased at a
constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same rate. At a certain instant of time,
the power given to the two coils is same. At that time the current, the induced voltage and the energy
stored in the first coil are i1, V1 and W1 respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at the same
instant are i2, V2 and W2 respectively. Then :
(A) 1
2
1
4
i
i= (B) 1
2
48i
i= (C) 2
1
4W
W= (D) 2
1
1
4
V
V=
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G
E1
E2
J
S
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PART - III (MATHEMATICS) 66 MARKS
SECTION - I
STRAIGHT OBJECTIVE TYPE
This Section contains 14 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which
Only One is Correct :
41. If a >1 and the value of [ ]
1
1
2
a
alog x e
xa dx− −
=∫ , where [ ] denotes greatest integer ,x≤ then the
value of a is :
(A) 2
e (B) e− (C)
2
e (D) e
42. The plane lx + my = 0 is rotated about its line of intersection with the XOY plane through an angle α, then the equation of plane is lx + my + nz = 0, where n is:
(A) 2 2l m cos± + α (B)
2 2l m sin± + α
(C) 2 2l m tan± + α (D)
2 2l m cot± + α
43.43.43.43. Let f (x) = x3 + x2 + 100x + 7sinx, then equation1 2 3
0(1) (2) (3)y f y f y f
+ + =− − −
has :
(A) No real root (B) One real root (B) Two real roots (D) More than two real root
44. The maximum number of points into which 4 circles and 4 straight lines interest is :
(A) 26 (B) 50 (C) 56 (D) 72
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45. If the system of equations 2x – y + z = 0, x – 2y + z = 0, tx – y + 2z = 0 has infinitely many solutions and
f (x) be a continuous function such that f (x + 5) + f (x) = 2, then ( )2
0
t
f x dx
−
∫ is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) –2t (C) 5 (D) t
46. The set of points on the axis of the parabola y2 = 4x + 8 from which the 3 normals to the parabola are all
real and distinct is :
(A) (K, 0): K≤–2 (B) (K, 0): K > –2
(C) (0, K): K > –2 (D) (K, 0): K > 0
47. With usual notations, if in a ∆ ABC,11 12 13
b c c a a b+ + += = , then cosA : cosB : cosC equals :
(A) 7 : 19 : 25 (B) 19 : 7 : 25 (C) 12 : 14 : 20 (D) 19 : 25 : 20
48. If a , b
are orthogonal unit vectors then for a vector r, non-coplanar with a
and b
, the vector r a×
is
equal to :
(A) ( )r a b b r b b a + ⋅ ×
(B) ( ) + r a b a b
(C) ( )r a b a r a a b + ⋅ ×
(D) None of these
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49. Let ( )( )
1
1 !
nn
nf x x
n
+=
−. The value of ( )
1
01
n
n
f x dx∞
=
∑∫ is :
(A) e (B) 0 (C) 2e (D) None of these
50. The value of ( )4 1 4 12
0
nn n
j n j
j
C C+ +−
=
+∑ is :
(A) 4 4 12 n n
nC++ (B) 4 12 n+ (C)
4 1 4 12 n nnC
+ ++ (D) 42 n
51. Let f and g are two functions such that f (x) and g (x) are continuous in [a, b] and differentiable in (a, b).
Then at least one ( )c a, b∈ such that ( ) ( ) ( )f b f af c
b a
−′ =
−
I. If ( ) ( )f x f b= , then ( ) 0f c′ = (RMVT)
II. ( ) ( )f a f b≠ and a b≠ (LMVT)
III. If ( ) 0g x′ ≠ , then ( ) ( )( ) ( )
( )( )
f b f a f c
g b g a g c
′−=
′− (cauchy theorem)
Let 02
πα θ β< < < < , then
sin sin
cos cos
α βα β
−
− is equal to :
(A) tanθ (B) tanθ− (C) cotθ (D) cotθ−
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52. If ( ) ( ) ( )
( )
1 11
f ax
x
f a
ef x , I x g x x dx
e−
= = ⋅ −+ ∫ and ( )
( )
( )
2 1
f a
f a
I g x x dx
−
= −∫ then the value of 2
1
I
I is :
(A) 2 (B) 3− (C) 1− (D) 1
53. S1 : Radius of great circle of section of a plane with a sphere is equal to the radius of the sphere.
S2 : Points ( )1 1 1x , y , z and ( )2 2 2x , y , z lies on the same side of the plane 0ax by cz d+ + + =
if ( ) ( )1 1 1 2 2 2 0ax by cz d ax by cz d+ + + + + + ≥ .
S3 : Point ( )1 1 1x , y , z lies inside of the sphere 2 2 2 2 2 2 0x y z ux vy wz d+ + − − − + =
If 2 2 21 1 1 1 1 12 2 2x y z ux uy wz d+ + < + + − .
S3 : Shortest distance between the planes 3 6 2 11 0x y z+ − − = and 3 6 2 3 0x y z+ − + = is 2 units.
(A) TFTT (B) FFTT (C) TTFF (D) FTFT
54. Area bounded by the curve 1y nx tan x−= + and x-axis from x = 1 to x = 2, is :
(A) 1
5 12 5 2 2 1
2 2 3
−− + − − n n tanπ
(B) 15 1
2 5 2 2 12 2 4
−− + − + n n tanπ
(C) 15 1
2 5 2 2 12 2 4
−− + + − n n tanπ
(D) 15 1
2 5 2 2 12 2 4
−− + − − n n tanπ
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SECTION - II
MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWERS TYPE
This Section contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices A, B, C & D, out of which one
or More Choices may be Correct:
55. A and B are two independent events such that ( ) 2
15P A B′ ∩ = and ( ) 1
6P A B′∩ = . Then P(B) is equal
to :
(A) 4
5 (B)
1
6 (C)
1
5 (D)
5
6
56. A plane parallel to 3x y z+ + = and at distance 4
3 from it has the equation :
(A) 2 0x y z− − = (B) 1 0x y z+ + + =
(C) 3 3 4
23
x y z+
− − = (D) 7x y z+ + =
57. In the ABC∆ , b : c = 2 : 1 and ( ) 3
5sin B C− = . Then :
(A) ABC∆ is right-angled (B) ABC∆ is obtuse-angled
(C) a : c = 3 : 1 (D) : 5 :1a c =
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VMC/2013 19 Mock IIT Advanced Test-2/Paper-2
58. Let c a b a bλ µ γ= + + ×
where a
and b are unit vectors such that 0a b⋅ =
. Then :
(A) b cµ = ⋅
(B) a cλ = ×
(C) a b cγ =
(D) ( )a b a b cλ µ γ+ + = + + × ⋅
59. The area bounded by the curves 2 1 ; 0y x , y sin x x= − − = = and x = 2 is :
(A) 21 2 1cos+ (B)
22 1+ sin (C) 2 + cos 2 (D) 1 2log+
60. The sum of first ‘n’ terms of the series 1 3 7 15
2 4 8 16. . .+ + + + is f (n) then :
(A) ( )9
110 8
2f = + (B) ( )
10
110 9
2f = +
(C) ( )20
120 19
2= +f (D) ( )
30
130 31
2f = +
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