CHAPTER8 1.

Products can be further classified according to their tangibility and durability. What are not features of product durability?

Your Answer: Normally survive for several years.

Correct Answer:

Consumed rapidly.

2. Public health campaigns such as the stop smoking campaign is an example of what type of marketing?

Your Answer: Societal marketing.

Correct Answer:

Social marketing.

3. Adding value to a product can be achieved through style and design. Car manufacturers such as Volvo, BMW, Audi and Mercedes Benz emphasise both style and design. Which of the following are not classified as style and design attributes?

Your Answer: Distinctive marques.

Correct Answer:

ABS braking system.

4. Branding provides suppliers with several advantages. What are these advantages?

Your Answer:

Branding increases innovation by giving producers an incentive to look for new features that can be protected against imitating competitors.

5. Diffusion of innovation allows the grouping or classification of customers depending on their speed of adoption into five adopter categories based upon the speed of adoption. What is the term used to describe those consumers that are considered pioneers and will try new products first?

Your Answer: Laggards.

Correct Answer:

Innovators.

6. According to the Boston Consulting Group Analysis of products, 'Dog' products, those with low market share and low growth, require harvesting. Which of the answers below best defines this?

Your Answer: Taking the profits and redeveloping the same product.

Correct Answer:

Allowing the product to fade away and reaping the profits.

7. When a product goes into decline marketers may choose which of the following options?

Your Answer:

Deletion

Milking or harvesting

Phased withdrawal

Contacting out

8. What are examples of user-based, consumer goods and services classification?

Your Answer: Convenience goods; shopping goods; service goods; unsought goods.

Correct Answer:

Convenience goods; shopping goods; speciality goods; unsought goods.

9. Define the features of the augmented product.

Your Answer: Represents the strategic nature of the product.

Correct Answer:

Represents add-ons that are not an intrinsic element of the product.

10. The definition of a product line is the:

Your Answer: products in a product range.

Correct Answer:

product mix divided into a number of product groups that are closely related to each other.

11. Which of the following statements about products is correct?

Your Answer: A product is service, idea or place that is capable of offering tangible attributes.

Correct Answer:

A product is a physical good, service, idea, person or place that is capable of offering tangible and intangible attributes.

1. In terms of the 'anatomy of a product', there are three aspects to any product or service. These are the core benefit or service, actual product and _________ product.

Your Answer: probable

Correct Answer:

augmented

2. Consumer products are purchased for personal consumption and classification is based upon consumer shopping habits. Which of the following is not defined as a consumer product?

Your Answer:

Supplies and services.

Usually characteristic of an industrial product.

3. Which of the following benefits is not communicated and delivered by tangible product attributes?

Your Answer: Design.

Correct Answer:

Effectiveness of product.

4. Branding assists buyers in numerous ways. Which of the following is not a direct consumer benefit derived from branding?

Your Answer:

Branding enables suppliers to attract loyal and profitable set of customers.

Supplier advantage.

5. What is defined as the product mix width?

Your Answer: None of the above.

Correct Answer:

Defined by the number of product lines offered.

6. What elements constitute a brand?

Your Answer: Name, words or symbols, singly or collectively that distinguish one product from another.

Correct Answer:

Name, design, style, words or symbols, singly or collectively that distinguish one product from another.

7. What is the brand mark?

Your Answer:

Brand name or logo registered and protected for the owner's sole use.

8. What are the benefits of branding from the consumer perspective?

Your Answer: Establishes product's position in the market

Reduces risk in purchasing

Helps targeting/positioning

Increases power over the retailer

Easier product identification

Communicates features and benefits

Correct Answer:

Helps create loyalty

Defends against competition

Creates differential advantage

Allows premium pricing

Helps targeting/positioning

Increases power over the retailer

9. The following are the four golden rules for good brand naming:

Supportive

Acceptable

Available

________

Your Answer: Diagnostic

Correct Answer:

Distinctive

10. To create and sustain the longevity of brands the product range needs to be managed in sympathy with changes in which of the following environments?

Your Answer: Client and customer environments.

Correct Answer:

Customer and competitive environments.

11. The management of the changes to create and sustain the longevity of brands in relation to changes in the customer and competitive environment is achieved through which of the following two concepts?

Your Answer: Placing and replacing.

Correct Answer:

Positioning and repositioning.

12. At the introduction stage of the Product Life Cycle (PLC), which of the following are the marketers' two main priorities?

Your Answer: Creating shelf space and generating awareness.

Correct Answer:

Generating awareness and stimulating responses.

13. Which of the following is the best explanation of 'primary demand' for a product?

Your Answer: Demand for the consumer.

Correct Answer:

Demand for the class of product.

14. In the growth stage of a product life cycle which of the following statements are applicable?

1) There is a rapid increase in sales.2) Effects of repeat purchasing are seen.3) Increased competitor activity is found.4) Profits begin to rise.5) Good product management is required.

Your Answer: 1,2,3,4

Correct Answer:

1,2,3,4,5,

15. In the maturity stage of the product life cycle which of the following are true?

Your Answer: Heavy price competition

The market is saturated and stable

Distribution is easy to handle

Correct Answer:

Heavy price competition

Minor product improvements may be seen

The market is saturated and stable

16. The product mix is comprised of a number of product lines to form an assortment of products. The product mix length refers to which of the following?

Your Answer: Refers to how closely related the product lines are in their end use applications, production requirements or distribution channels.

Correct Answer:

The total number of items that is contained within the product lines.

This refers to 'consistency'.

1. The concept of marketing has been broadened to incorporate other marketable entities besides products and services. Which of the following would not be a natural fit into the category of 'marketable entities'?

Your

Trademarks and patents.

Answer:

Normally incorporated and in support of ideas and concepts.

2. The 'packaging concept' plays an integral role in the marketing of a product. What does the 'packaging concept' entail?

Your Answer:

What the packaging should do for the product.

3. The labelling of a product has numerous functions. Which of these is a legal requirement?

Your Answer:

General description.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

4. Product-support services are an important aspect of product strategy. According to the Product Anatomy, what role do support-services play?

Your Answer:

Core product.

Correct Answer:

Augmented product.

5. Product lines consist of groups of products with which of the following features?

Your Answer:

Products are sold to the same customer groups.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

6. The product line length decisions are based upon the amount of items contained in the product line. Which of the following is not a challenge to managing the product line?

Your Answer:

Increased design and engineering costs.

Correct Answer:

Decreased costs as product line items are shed.

7. Product line 'stretching and filling' increases the product line by lengthening it beyond its current range. The launch of the SMART car by Mercedes and Swatch, to introduce a new micro compact car to the Mercedes range is an example of what type of product line stretching?

Your Answer:

Product line plugging.

Correct Answer:

Downward stretch.

CHAPTER12 MARKETING CHANNEL

1.

There are several predominant forms of retail ownership to be found. Which of the following are examples of these?

Your Answer: Independents; wholesalers; corporate chains.

Correct Answer:

Independents; corporate chains; contractual systems.

2.

There are many reasons why a department store allows another established high street retailer to have space on its premises. Which of the following are examples of the general reasons for cohabitation?

Your Answer: Saves time for the customer; encourages cross trading; shortage of space; lack of suitable sites.

Correct Answer:

Saves time for the customer; encourages cross trading; shortage of space; lack of suitable sites; corporate rationalisation.

3.

A marketing channel can be defined as which of the following?

Your Answer: An advertising campaign to reach customers.

Correct Answer:

The structure linking a group of individuals or organisations.

4.

Each person in the distribution channel may be referred to as which of the following?

Your Answer:

An intermediary.

5.

Various functions are performed by the various types of intermediaries in return for their margins. Which of the following are examples of these functions?

Your Answer:

(blank)

6.

Which of the following are not examples of intermediaries?

Your Answer: Wholesalers.

Correct Answer:

Clients.

7.

Distributors and dealers are intermediaries who do not generally do which of the following?

Your Answer:

Develop new products.

8.

Which of the following is known as a short-channel?

Your Answer: Producer-wholesaler-retailer-consumer.

Correct Answer:

Producer-retailer-consumer.

1. In marketing jargon and according to the elements of the marketing mix, distribution is often referred to as ____________, to cover the decisions and strategies that enable the product to flow to the consumer, whether from the market direct to the home, via a wholesaler or from a retail outlet.

Your Answer:

promotions

Correct Answer:

place

2. Retailers have to ensure a close match between their capabilities and the merchandise offered. They must have a clear understanding of which of the following?

Your Answer:

Store location; customer service; merchandise selection; image.

3. The linking of members of distribution channels through formal agreements rather than ownership is known as a contractual system. Which of the following is an example of a contractual system?

Your Answer:

Grocers.

Correct Answer:

Franchises.

4. The range and quality of services offered varies considerably from retailer to retailer. Which of the following are examples of the three types of service level?

Your Answer:

Protracted service; limited service; self service.

Correct Answer:

Full service; limited service; self service.

5. There are always problems for retailers related to depth of range or breadth of range. A traditional retail store has to restrict its choice because of which of the following?

Your Answer:

Limited supervisory staff.

Correct Answer:

Pressures of space and display requirements.

6. Without the back-up of a customer orientation, which of the following would be resolved to suit the supplier's, not the customer's, abilities and preferences?

Your Answer:

Quality.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

7. Which of the following is a long channel?

Your Answer:

Wholesaler-retailer-consumer.

Correct Answer:

Producer-wholesaler-retailer-consumer.

8. Organisational goods often involve close technical and commercial dialog between buyer and seller. The type and frequency of purchase and the quantity purchased, affect the channel structure. Which of the following is not one of these organisational distribution channels?

Your Answer:

Manufacturer-distributor-user.

Correct Answer:

Manufacturer-agent-distributor-retailer-user.

9. Manufacturer-user. This direct channel is most appropriate where the goods being sold have which of the following characteristics?

Your Answer:

High unit cost.

10. The role of the intermediary is to do which of the following?

Your Answer:

Increase order size and reduce expenses.

Correct Answer:

Increase efficiency and reduce costs.

11. Some intermediaries add logistical value in various forms. Which of the following is not an example of logistical value?

Your Answer:

Storage.

Correct Answer:

Differentiating.

12. When choosing the channel structure, which of the following should be considered in making one's choice of channel decision?

Your Answer:

All of the above.

13. In achieving this market coverage effectively and efficiently, there are three alternative models of distribution intensity. Which of the following are they?

Your Answer:

Penetrating; exclusive; selective.

Correct Answer:

Intensive; exclusive; selective.

14. Selective distribution is usually associated with which type of goods?

Your Answer:

Industrial goods.

Correct Answer:

Shopping goods.

15. There are many influences on channel strategy. Which of the following are examples of these influences?

Your Answer:

The environment.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

16. The final phase of the channel design strategy is the selection of specific intermediaries. The decision tends to become more critical as the intensity of distribution itself becomes which two of the following?

Your Answer:

Selective and exclusive.

17. Where organisations need to select intermediaries on a fairly frequent basis, there is a range of issues that should be examined as part of an appraisal process. Which of the following is not an example of strategic selection criteria for intermediaries?

Your Answer:

Loyalty.

Correct Answer:

Stock-holding policy.

18. There are many key variables that will influence the scale and complexity of the logistics process. Which of the following are examples of these key variables?

Your Answer:

Transport; marketing department; warehousing.

Correct Answer:

Transport; inventory; warehousing.

1. Retailing is one of the highest profile areas of marketing and, as with advertising, has had a tremendous impact on which of the following?

Your Answer:

Psychology; culture.

Correct Answer:

Society; psychology; culture.

2. The main distinction between the wholesaler and retailer is primarily focused on other resellers or organisational users, whereas the retailer is focused primarily on the much larger, but highly differentiated ______.

Please select one of the following answers and complete the sentence.

Your Answer:

organisational market

Correct Answer:

consumer market

3. Examples of operational selection criteria for intermediaries are which of the following?

Your Answer:

Local market knowledge; adequate premises; customer convenience; sales force capability; efficient customer service.

4. Some intermediaries have the choice of whether or not they will sell the products they are offered. Not all manufacturers have the power or ability to design their channel strategy and to select their ideal members. This is known as which of the following?

Your Answer:

Horizontal selection.

Correct Answer:

Reverse selection.

5. There are four types of competition in channels that were identified by Palamountain (1955). Which of the following are examples of these four types of competition?

Your Answer:

Horizontal competition; intertype competition; vertical competition; channel system competition.

6. Which of the three types of Vertical Marketing System is the most prevalent form?

Your Answer:

Selected.

Correct Answer:

Contractual.

7. There are extra intermediaries in a physical distribution channel who do not take title to the goods, or take any direct part in their own right in transformation, adding product value or promotion. What are such intermediaries are called?

Your Answer:

Facilitators.

8. There are a number of cost areas that should be considered as part of the logistics and distribution systems. Which of the following are examples of the main cost areas?

Your Answer:

Inventory; order processing and administration; pre-transactional variables.

Correct Answer:

Inventory; transport; materials handling; order processing and administration.

CHAPTER 17 DIRECT ON9 MARKETING

1.

Which of the following is not a benefit of direct marketing?

Your Answer:

Assists client prospecting.

2.

What is the overall goal of relationship marketing?

Your Answer:

Developing strategic partnerships with valued customers.

3.

Personal selling can be defined as which of the following?

Your Answer:

Interpersonal communication.

4.

There are four major characteristics of personal selling. Which of the following is not one of these characteristics?

Your Answer: Cost.

Correct Answer:

Personality.

5.

Precision represents one of the great advantages of personal selling over any of the other promotional mixes and explains why it is so effective at the customer's point of decision-making. Which of the following are two facets of personal selling precision?

Your Answer:

Message precision and targeting precision.

6.

The tasks of the sales representative are beyond the straight selling situation. Which of the following are examples of the tasks of the sales representative?

Your Answer: Prospecting; informing; persuading; maintaining relationships.

Correct Answer:

Prospecting; informing; persuading; maintaining relationships; monitoring competitor action.

7.

Sales support is a broad term encompassing a variety of staff whose role is to augment the efforts of the mainstream sales force. Which of the following are examples of the two categories of support staff?

Your Answer: Sales engineer and missionary sales representative.

Correct Answer:

Missionary sales representative and sales engineer.

8.

Which of the following are not a source of company inspired prospects?

Your Answer:

Referrals.

1.

The phase in the selling process in which the salesperson gathers as much information about the prospective client before the sales call is called:

Your Answer: none of the above

Correct Answer:

pre-approach.

2. Companies can use databases for which of the following purposes?

Your Answer: Identification of prospects.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

3. Which of the following is not a major form of direct marketing?

Your Answer: Direct response TV.

Correct Answer:

None of the above.

4. Which of the following is not a component of an integrated direct marketing campaign?

Your Answer:

Corporate hospitality.

5. Which of the following best describes cold calling?

Your Answer: Sales promoting.

Correct Answer:

Sales people contacting potential customers.

6. Negotiation is a give and take activity in which both parties try to shape a deal that satisfies both of them. Which of the following are examples of the two types of negotiation?

Your Answer: All of the above.

Correct Answer:

Co-operative negotiation and competitive negotiation.

7. What does the term sales quotas refer to?

Your Answer:

Sales objectives.

8. Looking for new customers is called:

Your Answer: presenting.

Correct Answer:

prospecting.

9. Salespeople whose main task is to inform influencers are called:

Your Answer: order takers.

Correct Answer:

missionaries.

10. What are the tasks of the sales representative?

Your Answer: Informing customers; information gathering; persuasion.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

11. The various stages of the personal selling process are illustrated below, which are not specific roles of the sales representative?

Your Answer: Negotiating and closing the sale.

Correct Answer:

Devising product strategy.

12. It is difficult to generalise about the specific tasks of sales management, as they will obviously vary between different organisations. Which of the following areas are commonly found?

Your Answer: Strategy formulation; recruiting sales people; motivation of sales staff.

Correct Answer:

Sales planning; strategy formulation; recruiting sales people; motivation of sales staff; training sales staff.

13. Sales managers must also make decisions about organising the sales force. Assuming the sales force is to be managed internally, the sales manger has four broad choices for organising the sales force. Which of the following is not one of these four choices?

Your Answer: Product-based.

Correct Answer:

Demographically-based.

14. Giving a free sample of a new product by attaching it to the pack of an existing product is called:

Your Answer:

on-pack promotion.

15. What are not the typical roles and responsibilities of the sales manager?

Your Answer: Devising compensation and reward systems.

Correct Answer:

Development of marketing strategies.

16. When firms adopt a 'team selling approach' they incorporate a multi-functional, customer-oriented attitude to the customer. What internal departments are commonly involved in this approach?

Your Answer:

All of the above.

17. Various studies have indicated that good sales people have various traits including which of the following?

Your Answer:

All of the above.

1. The principles of personal selling are described as ___________ orientation.

Your Answer:

customer

Correct Answer:

transaction

2. Face to face selling is the least controlled part of international marketing due to the cultural diversity. Geert Hofstede has developed the 'five universal values' framework for defining national culture that influence negotiation behaviour and how best to adapt their selling styles. One of these 5 universal values is 'time orientation'. Which of the following illustrate aspects of 'time orientation' that will affect sales negations?

Your Answer:

Asians view the short-term contract as only one facet of developing a long-term business relationship.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

3. Face to face selling is the least controlled part of international marketing due to the cultural diversity. Geert Hofstede has developed the 'five universal values' framework for defining national culture that influence negotiation behaviour and how best to adapt their selling styles. One of these 5 universal values is 'aversion to uncertainty'. Which of the following does not illustrate aspects of 'aversion to uncertainty' that will affect sales negations?

Your Answer:

United Kingdom and Denmark demonstrate a high level of tolerance for ambiguity.

Correct Answer:

Junior staff would not approach senior staff unless there is a serious problem to discuss.

4. Face to face selling is the least controlled part of international marketing due to the cultural diversity. Geert Hofstede has developed the 'five universal values' framework for defining national culture that influence negotiation behaviour and how best to adapt their selling styles. One of these 5 universal values is 'acceptance of unequal power'. Which of the following does not illustrate aspects of 'acceptance of unequal power' that will affect sales negations?

Your Answer:

The US and UK are regarded as individualistic cultures that embrace freedom and independence.

This is an aspect of 'individualism or collectivism'.

5. Starting with prospecting, preparation and planning and ending with follow up and account management, place the other five stages of the personal selling process into a logical order.

1) Closing the sale.2) Handling objections.3) Initiating contact.4) Sales presentation.5) Negotiation.

Your Answer:

3,4,2,5,1

6. What are the relative advantages of allocating sales responsibilities on the basis of geographic regions?

Your Answer:

Allows representatives to become familiar with local conditions and competition.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

7. What are the relative advantages of allocating sales responsibilities on the basis of defining selling responsibility in terms of product-based criteria?

Your Answer:

Allows the representative to develop deep product knowledge.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

8. Defining selling responsibility in terms of customer-based criteria:

Your Answer:

allows a more tailored sales approach.

Correct Answer:

all of the above.

9. An organisation that constructs its sales force to specialise in selling only a portion of the company's products or lines is defined as which of the following types of sales forces?

Your Answer:

Specialised sales force.

Correct Answer:

Product sales force.

CHAP 9 PLC

1. The cost of new product development is great and the introduction of a new washing powder will typically include which of the following investments?

Your Answer:

All of the above.

2. What features are normally associated with new product development?

Your Answer: Development of unique superior product features.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

3. When companies identify a small number of test sites and cities to conduct a full marketing campaign to ascertain the response of the consumer to the new product, this process is referred to as:

Your Answer:

standard test marketing.

4. To ensure success of new products, which market segment should be targeted initially?

Your Answer:

Innovators.

5. The type of newness (new to the company, new to the market) may be explained by which of the following?

Your Answer: The core product is familiar with innovation.

Correct Answer:

A radical new product with innovation.

6. The buyer's approach to dealing with new products has to be put in the context of the level of innovation within a market. This innovation can be categorised in three ways. Which of the following are these three?

1) Continued innovation.2) Continuous innovation.3) Coordinated innovation.4) Dynamically continuous innovation.5) Discontinuous innovation.

Your Answer: 2,3,4,

Correct Answer:

2,4,5,

7. Which of the following is a feature of continuous innovation?

Your Answer: Latent innovation.

Correct Answer:

Regular innovation.

8. Organisations do not operate in a static environment. Changing technology, changing customer tastes and preferences, and changing competitor product ranges should result in which of the following?

Your Answer: Financial development.

Correct Answer:

New product development.

9. There are two main approaches to New Product Development. Which of the following are these approaches?

1) Spontaneous.2) Delayed.3) Radical.4) Reactive.5) Proactive.

Your Answer: 2,3,

Correct Answer:

4,5,

10. Which of the following is not a stage in the product life cycle?

Your Answer:

Withdrawal.

1. Firms bring to market new products through two predominant routes of new product acquisition and new product development. New products are deemed the _________ of organisations?

Your Answer:

life-blood

2. New product development does not include which of the following?

Your Answer:

New brands.

Correct Answer:

A revolutionary product, perceived by customers as being novel or new.

3. The new product development process does not incorporate which of the following?

Your Answer:

Business analysis.

Correct Answer:

Obtaining funding from venture capitalists.

4. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a product concept?

Your Answer:

Screening of new ideas.

Correct Answer:

A detailed version of the new product idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.

Idea screening.

5. The statement of the planned strategy for a new product that outlines the target market, product positioning and market goals and projections is a:

Your Answer:

corporate goals.

Correct Answer:

marketing strategy.

6. Which stage of the product lifecycle is represented by the rapid growth of product sales?

Your Answer:

Growth phase.

7. Select the logical order for the following five product development stages.

Your Answer:

1. Product development2. Idea screening3. Concept testing4. Idea generation5. Business analysis

Correct Answer:

1. Idea generation2. Idea screening3. Concept testing4. Business analysis

5. Product development

8. There are three remaining stages of product development. What are they?

Your Answer:

Communication; test marketing; market research.

Correct Answer:

Test marketing; commercialisation; monitoring and evaluation.

9. Product newness may simply involve a new pack size or colour, while at the other extreme it could represent a radical mold-breaking innovation. There are however a number of options between these two extremes. Which of the following are examples of these options?

Your Answer:

New to the company, new to the market. New to the company, a significant innovation for the

market. New to the company, no innovation for the market. New to the company, a minor innovation for the market.

10. There are a number of sources of new product ideas. Which of the following are examples of these sources?

Your Answer:

Research and development Competitors Employees

Correct Answer:

Research and development Competitors Employees Customers Organised creativity

11. The fourth stage of new product development is business analysis. If managers are to be thorough in their analysis of the product concept, there are three dimensions to consider under the heading of business analysis. Which of the following are these three dimensions to consider?

Your Answer:

Human resource management Finance Marketing

Correct Answer:

Finance Production Marketing

12. Test marketing offers a number of benefits. Which of the following are examples of these benefits?

Your Answer:

A real test in a real market.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

13. What percentage of new products that are launched, will fail to achieve their potential and not survive?

Your Answer:

50%

Correct Answer:

Up to 90%

14. There are many reasons why products fail. Some of the more frequently quoted include which of the following?

Your Answer:

Too small a target market Poor product quality Lack of distribution Poor marketing.

Correct Answer:

Too small a target market Another me-too product Poor product quality Lack of distribution Poor marketing

15. Discontinuous innovation is defined as:

Your Answer:

new to company, significant innovation to market.

Correct Answer:

a new product so radical that it changes the way people live.

16. Identify the type of innovation shown by the development of the cellular telephone.

Your Answer:

Dynamically continuous innovation.

Correct Answer:

Discontinuous innovation.

17. The ability to try a new product on a limited basis is called:

Your Answer:

divisibility.

18. Which of the following is not a feature of the decline phase of the Product Life Cycle?

Your Answer:

Declining sales.

Correct Answer:

Low cost per customer.

1. Product innovation encompasses a wide range of product development activities. An innovation is defined as which of the following?

Your Answer:

Any of the above that are perceived by customers as being novel or new.

2. Which of the following is a factor that determines whether a brand-new product is adopted or not?

Your Answer:

Consumer awareness.

Correct Answer:

Communicability.

3. A product which is not accepted by consumers but which makes money initially, is an example of:

Your Answer:

outright failure.

Correct Answer:

partial failure.

4. Which of the following is not true about test marketing?

Your Answer:

It risks notifying the competitors.

Correct Answer:

It keeps competitors out of the market.

5. Which of the following is not a strategy that will be used in the introductory phase of the product life cycle?

Your Answer:

Build product awareness among early adopters and dealers.

Correct Answer:

Offer product extensions.

6. Which of the following is not a feature of the maturity phase of the Product Life Cycle?

Your Answer:

Sales peaking.

Correct Answer:

Building product awareness amongst early adopters and dealers.

CHAP 14 INTERGRATED MARKETING COMMUNICATION

1.

What are the major influences on the pricing decision?

Your Answer: Costs

Marketing objectives

Profits

Correct Answer:

Organisational objectives

Costs

Marketing objectives

2.

Which of the following is not considered part of the carefully blended mix of promotion tools?

Your Answer:

Relationship marketing.

3.

Which of the following are examples of 'affective' communication objectives?

Your Answer: Clarify customer needs

Increase brand awareness

Increase product knowledge

Correct Answer:

Improve brand image

Improve company image

Increase brand preference

4.

Why would Cadbury's make more use of direct marketing to consumers?

Your Answer: Attempt to build relationships with the consumer.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

5.

What are the advantages of using radio advertising?

Your Answer: Cheap and effective.

Correct Answer:

Reinforce print campaign.

6.

What are the disadvantages of advertising in the newspaper?

Your Answer: One dimensional message.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

7.

What are the disadvantages of radio advertising?

Your Answer: Difficult to target the specific audience.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

1. The correct sequence for the communications planning model is as follows:

Your Answer:

Budgeting Objectives Situational analysis Strategies Implementation Evaluation

Correct Answer:

Situational analysis Objectives Strategies Budgeting Implementation Evaluation

2. Firms communicate with their current and prospective customers though the promotional mix. Which of the following is not an element of the promotional mix?

Your Answer:

Advertising.

Correct Price.

Answer:

3. The marketing communication environment has changed drastically due to technology and consumer awareness. What have been the predominant marketing responses to this change that are suggested by Phillip Kotler (2004)?

Your Answer:

Segmentation and hyper-competition.

Correct Answer:

Focus and segmentation of markets.

4. Which of the following has replaced the mass marketing trends of the past?

Your Answer:

A hodgepodge of communications.

Correct Answer:

Integrated marketing communications.

5. Which of the following campaigns are based upon a rational appeal?

Your Answer:

UNICEF Save the Children Campaign.

Correct Answer:

None of the above.

6. Advertisers use 'fear appeal' as a communication tool for what purpose?

Your Answer:

Evoke a strong response.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

7. In developing adverts using a rational or fear appeal, what are the key contextual elements that must be considered?

Your Answer:

The core message.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

8. What are the guidelines for good copy when developing a print advertisement?

Your Answer:

Be credible.

Correct Answer:

Keep the message clear, simple and concise.

9. An integrated advertising campaign should include the following elements:

Your Answer:

the television advertising can capitalise on music and movement.

Correct Answer:

all of the above.

10. What are the benefits of comparative advertising?

Your Answer:

Allows companies to show how their products.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

11. What factors call for more frequency in an advertising media schedule?

Your Answer:

Product targeted towards a niche market.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

12. What factors call for more reach in an advertising media schedule?

Your Answer:

Product targeted towards a mass market.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.

13. Rational advertising appeals do not contain which of the following elements?

Your Answer:

Information about the quality of product.

Correct Answer:

Induce emotional reactions such as fear, guilt and shame.

1. Which of the following represents a component of a 'pull' strategy?

Your Answer:

Consumer

Wholesaler

Retailer

Manufacturer

2. Define what is meant by the cognitive stage of consumer advertising.

Your Answer: Involves the creating or changing of an attitude.

Correct Answer:

Sowing the seeds of a thought and gaining the consumer's attention.

3. What are the stages of the AIDA Model of consumer awareness model?

Your Answer: Anticipation

Interest

Desire

Action

Correct Answer:

Awareness

Interest

Desire

Action

4. In marketing terms 'noise' is:

Your Answer: intelligent clutter which distorts messages.

Correct Answer:

extraneous non-intelligent clutter which distorts the message.

5. Television advertising that includes a telephone number for ordering is an example of:

Your Answer: Telemarketing.

Correct Answer:

Direct-response advertising.

6. What is the main effect that increasing computer power has had on the growth of direct marketing?

Your Answer: It has created new target markets.

Correct Answer:

It has improved database management.

7. In creating the communications message, what is the term applied to the process of putting the intended message or thought into symbolic form?

Your Answer: Eliminating the advertising clutter or 'noise'.

Correct Answer:

Encoding.

8. According to Kotler, P. et al (2004) the marketing communicator needs to develop 'an effective, integrated communications and promotions strategy'. This is achieved by following a number of steps. Which of the following is not one of these steps?

Your Answer: Evaluate the target audience's feedback.

Correct Answer:

None of the above.

9. Consumers normally pass through a buyer-readiness process as they reach a decision to purchase a product or not. Which of the following stages is nottypical of the buyer-readiness process?

Your Answer: Preference.

Correct Answer:

Post-purchase evaluation.

10. What are the unique qualities of advertising?

Your Answer: Can reach masses of geographically dispersed buyers at low cost exposure.

Correct Answer:

All of the above.