ch.- 1 nouns and pronouns grammar a. decide whether · pdf filestd.-viii, sub- english,...

Std.-VIII, Sub- English, Question Bank

Ch.- 1 Nouns and Pronouns Grammar

A. Decide whether these nouns are countable (C) or uncountable (U)

1. The children are playing in the garden. _____________ 2. I don't like milk. _____________ 3. I prefer tea. _____________ 4. Scientists say that the environment is threatened by pollution. _____________ 5. My mother uses butter to prepare cakes. _____________ 6. There are a lot of windows in our classroom. _____________ 7. We need some glue to fix this vase. _____________ 8. The waiters in this restaurant are very professional. _____________ 9. My father drinks two big glasses of water every morning. _____________ 10. The bread my mother prepares is delicious. _____________

B. Choose the right answer (possessive adjective or possessive pronoun):

1. Jane has already eaten her lunch , but I'm saving ____________ until later 2. She has broken ____________ leg. 3. My mobile needs to be fixed, but ____________ is working. 4. ____________computer is a Mac, but ____________is a PC. 5. We gave them ____________telephone number, and they gave us ____________. 6. ____________pencil is broken. Can I borrow ____________? 7. ____________car is cheap, but ____________is expensive . 8. You can't have any chocolate! It's all ____________!

C. Use the correct personal pronoun for the nouns given in the brackets.

1. __________often reads books. (Leila) 2. __________is watching TV. (Alan) 3. __________is green. (the dress) 4. __________are on the wall. (the pictures) 5. __________is running. (the cat)

Ch.- 2 ADJECTIVES A. Complete the following sentences using the appropriate form of the adjective given in the brackets. 1. He is ………………… than his neighbors. (rich) 2. The brides were much ……………… than the grooms. (young) 3. He is too …………………… to be taught. (intelligent) 4. He is ………………… than I thought him to be. (clever) 5. When the old woman became ……………………, she began to move about. (strong) 6. He is much ………………… now. (good) 7. The offer was too ………………… to be true. (good) 8. He fishes with …………………… success than I do. (great) 9. Shakespeare is the …………………… playwright in English. (great) 10. The pain was …………………… than he could bear. (much) 11. The ………………… thing of all was that his son was rude to him. (bad) 12. Jane was the ………………… player of the two. (good)

B. Replace the personal pronouns given in brackets by possessive adjectives:

1. Where is (I) ______________book? 2. Here is (we) ______________teacher.

3. She goes to school with (she) ______________brother. 4. (They) ______________ father works in a car factory. 5. (You) ______________laptop is very expensive. 6. (He) ______________ favorite hobby is tennis. 7. (I) ______________husband and I want to go to Paris. 8. We want to see (it) ______________ historical monuments. 9. Leila likes (she)______________dog ! 10. (It) ______________ name is Bobby.

C. Choose the right possessive adjective:

1. Two students didn't do ______________mathematics homework. 2. I have a car. ______________color is black. 3. We have a dog.______________name is Pancho. 4. Nancy is from England. ______________husband is from Australia. 5. Ann and Nadia go to a high school. ______________little brother goes to primary school. 6. Alan has a van. ____________van is very old. 7. We go to a high school. ______________ high school is fantastic. 8. I like singing. ______________ mother sings with me. 9. François and Alain are French.______________ family are from France. 10. Mary likes ______________ grandmother. She often visits her.

D. Complete the following sentences using an appropriate comparative or superlative form.

1. It is better …………… I thought. a) than b) then

2. China is …………………. than India. a) large b) larger c) largest

3. India is not as ………………. as China. a) large b) larger c) largest

4. Susie is ……………….. girl in the class. a) cleverest b) the cleverer c) the cleverest

5. No other girl in the class is as …………….. as Susie. a) clever b) cleverer c) cleverest

6. You are my ………………. friend. a) better b) good c) best

7. I am not as successful …………….. she is. a) as b) like

8. He is successful ……………. his brother.

a) as b) like

9. It was ………………. expensive restaurant I have ever been to. a) more b) most c) the most

10. For ………………. information, visit our website. a) further b) farther c) Either could be used here E. Complete the following sentences using the appropriate form of the adjective. 1. She is …………………… than her sister. a) pretty b) prettier c) prettiest 2. Martha is a …………………….. girl. a) nice b) nicer c) nicest 3. Supriya is the ……………………… girl in the class. a) intelligent b) more intelligent c) most intelligent 4. Martin speaks English ………………….. a) well b) better c) best 5. Russia is the ……………………. country in the world. a) big b) bigger c) biggest 6. China is a ……………….. country. a) big b) bigger c) biggest 7. China is …………………… than India. a) big b) bigger c) biggest 8. This is the …………………… book I have ever read. a) interesting b) more interesting c) most interesting 9. I am …………………. than you. a) smart b) smarter c) smartest 10. Take the ………………….. of the two routes. a) short b) shorter c) shortest

Ch.- 3

Verbs A. State whether the verbs in the following sentences are used transitively or intransitively. 1. Heat expands metals. 2. Metals expand on heating. 3. The driver stopped the car. 4. The car stopped abruptly. 5. You must speak the truth. 6. You must speak loudly. 7. The boy is flying the kite. 8. The birds are flying in the sky. 9. The rider fell off the horse and broke his arm. 10. The woodcutter felled a huge tree. 11. The explosion sank the ship. 12. The ship sank suddenly. B. Decide whether the verbs in bold are transitive or intransitive

1. She was crying all day long. ________________ 2. We showed her the photo album. ________________ 3. The doctor advised me to exercise regularly. _____________ 4. It was raining at that time. ________________ 5. She laughed at the joke. ________________ 6. She gave a cookie to the child. ________________ 7. They slept in the street. ________________ 8. I ate the cherries. ________________ 9. My father doesn't drink coffee. ________________ 10. He always keeps his money in a wallet. ________________

C. Complete the following sentences by adding a direct or indirect object as required. 1. The robber dealt a heavy blow to the ……………………….. 2. She ordered a new dress for …………………….. 3. The man sent ……………………. a message. 4. He threw the beggar a ……………………. 5. The British Council offered him a …………………….. 6. He has promised us his ……………………… 7. The tailor made a …………………….. for my father. 8. He distributed …………………….. to all the students in the class. 9. I don’t lend my books to ……………………… 10. Don’t show the …………………. to any of your friends. 11. She made …………………… for all of us. 12. We promised our guide a ……………………….. 13. The World Bank gave India a …………………. 14. The teacher wished the boys …………………….

Ch.- 4 Tenses A. Fill in the blanks with a present simple or present continuous tense form. 1. I ............................ my homework. do/ am doing 2. She ..................... as a receptionist. works/ is working 3. He .......................... with his parents at the moment. stays/ is staying 4. I always ........................... up at 6 o'clock.

get/ am getting 5. He is busy at the moment. He ......................... to a friend. talks/ is talking 6. I'm sorry but I ............................ what you mean. am not understanding/ do not understand 7. You ............................... too much fat food. eat/ are eating 8. Which TV channel ...............................? are you usually watching/ do you usually watch 9. What time ........................ the train arrive? does/ is 10. How often ............................... to the movies? do you go/ are you going 11. What ................................. at the moment? do you do/ are you doing 12. I usually ...................... early on Mondays. am getting up/ get up

B. Choose the correct form of the following verbs:

wake(s) up - open(s) - speak(s) - take(s) - do(es) - cause(s) - live(s) - play(s) - close(s) - live(s) - drink(s)

1. Ann______________ handball very well. 2. I never ______________coffee. 3. The swimming pool______________at 7:00 in the morning. 4. It ______________ at 9:00 in the evening. 5. Bad driving ______________ many accidents. 6. My parents______________ in a very small flat. 7. The Olympic Games______________place every four years. 8. They are good students. They always_____________their homework. 9. My students______________a little English. 10. I always______________early in the morning.

Ch.- 5 Present Perfect & Past Continuous Tenses

C. Write sentences in present perfect simple.

1. They / play / football - _____________________________________________ 2. He / speak / English - _____________________________________________ 3. I / write / a poem -_____________________________________________ 4. We / not / wash / the car – _____________________________________________ 5. Nancy / not / meet / her friends- _____________________________________________

D. Write questions in present perfect simple.

1. They / finish / their homework -_____________________________________________ 2. She / visit / her friend-_____________________________________________ 3. The maid / clean / the house -_____________________________________________ 4. He / drive / the van -_____________________________________________ 5. You / ever / write / a poem -_____________________________________________

E. Complete the following sentences using an appropriate past simple or past continuous tense. 1. 1. When I …………………………. (drive) to work, I ………………………… (see) Peter. 2. 2. When I …………………………… (have a bath), the telephone …………………………. (ring). 3. 3. I ………………………… (sleep) when someone …………………………. (knock) on the door.

4. 4. While she ………………………. (play) games, I ……………………….. (work). 5. 5. As I …………………………… (open) my eyes, I …………………………… (see) a strange sight. 6. 6. James ………………………… (tidy) the lounge while I ………………………….. (cook) supper. 7. 7. While they ………………………… (play) caroms, somebody …………………………. (break) into the house. 8. 8. I ……………………….. (think) of it just when you ………………………….. (open) your mouth. 9. 9. When she ………………………….. (have a bath), the child …………………………. (begin) to cry. 10. 10. She ………………………….. (take) out her pen and ………………………. (start) writing.

F. Make sentences in the simple future tense. 1. She ………………… (arrive) on Monday. 2. I ………………….. (help) you to find a job. 3. He …………………. (call) the police. 4. They …………………… (not permit) this. 5. Who ………………….. (look) after your child?

G. Change the future tense in these sentences into the future continuous tense. 1. At this time tomorrow, I will leave._________________________________________ 2. The baby will walk soon. _________________________________________ 3. What will you do this evening? _________________________________________ 4. Summer term will start on 20th. _________________________________________ 5. She will come with us. _________________________________________ 6. The plane will leave at 3 o’clock. _________________________________________ 7. I will think of you. _________________________________________ 8. He will attend the conference. _________________________________________

Ch.- 6 Participles & Gerunds

A. Rewrite the sentences replacing the italic part with a present participle.

1. She was talking to her friend and forgot everything around her. ___________________________________________________________

2. Since we watch the news every day we know what's going on in the world. ___________________________________________________________

3. They are vegetarians and don't eat meat. ___________________________________________________________

4. The dog wagged its tail and bit the postman. ___________________________________________________________

5. While she was tidying up her room she found some old photos. ___________________________________________________________

6. He was a good boy and helped his mother in the kitchen. ___________________________________________________________

7. As they didn't have enough money they spent their holidays at home last year. ___________________________________________________________

8. The man was sitting in the cafe. He was reading a paper. ___________________________________________________________

9. Since I didn't feel well I didn't go to the cinema. ___________________________________________________________

10. She walked home and met an old friend. ___________________________________________________________

B. State whether the –ing forms given in the following sentences are participles or gerunds. In the case of participles, name the noun or pronoun they qualify. In the case of gerunds, state what function they serve in the sentence. 1. Hearing a loud noise, we ran to the window. 2. The motorcyclist was fatally injured in the accident and is now fighting for his life.

3. He ruined his sight by watching TV all day. 4. We saw a clown standing on his head. 5. Asking questions is a whole lot easier than answering them. 6. Waving their hands, the audience cheered the winner. 7. Plucking flowers is forbidden. 8. Jumping over the fence, the thief escaped. 9. I was surprised at John’s being absent. 10. We spent the whole day playing cards. 11. A miser hates spending his money. 12. John was angry at Alice trying to lie to her. 13. Praising all alike is praising none. 14. Are you afraid of speaking the truth? 15. Singing to herself is her chief delight.

C. Complete the following sentences using appropriate auxiliary verbs.

1. He ……………………. get up at 5 o’clock in the morning. (Express an old habit)

2. She …………………… always bring us nice gifts. (Express an old habit)

3. Our team ……………………. win. (Indicate possibility)

4. I ………………….. help you. (Express willingness)

5. You …………………….. be able to solve this problem. (Express possibility)

6. I ……………………… do something to help the boy. (Express necessity)

7. What ……………………. I give you in return for your wisdom? (Express obligation)

8. You ……………………… work harder. (Give advice)

9. I ………………….. reach home by eight. (Show necessity)

10. She ……………………. read when she was three. (Show ability that existed in the past) D. Use appropriate modal auxiliary verbs in the blanks to express the idea indicated in the brackets.

1. I ……………… rather listen than talk. (Preference)

2. The cashier ………………….. meet the Manager. (Absence of courage)

3. Children ……………… be given healthy food. (Advice)

4. Candidates ………………. produce their identity cards. (Compulsion)

5. ………………. you get me some tea, please? (Polite request)

6. ……………………. you mind moving a bit? (Polite request)

7. You …………………… have done that. (Absence of obligation)

8. She ………………… to mend her ways. (Strong obligation/necessity)

9. She …………………….. read when she was three. (Past ability)

10. Glass …………….. be blown. (Theoretical possibility)

11. This road ………………….. be blocked due to the procession. (Factual possibility) F. Composition: 1. Write a letter to a friend telling him about your School picnic. 2. Write a letter to your uncle telling him about your plans for the Summer vacation. 3. Write a leave application to your principal for your brother’s marriage. 4. Write a news report on Annual Day celebration in your school. Reading. 1. Practice any four chapters of comprehension from your English Work Book.

SUB: Science Class- VIII Question bank

Chapter - 1 (Plants and their food)

1. Fill in the Blanks: (1 Mark) 1) Plants that make their own food but take water and mineral from the host plant are called ________ parasite. 2) _________ in green plant is necessary for photosynthesis. 3) Organism that do not make their own food are called _________ organism. 4) Green plants are able to prepare their own food in the presence of ___________. 5) ____________ plants feed on small insects.

2. Answer the following questions: 1) Difference between autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition. (2) 2) Difference between herbivores and carnivores. (2) 3) Describe the process of photosynthesis. (3) 4) Describe the role of alga and fungus in lichens. (3) 5) Difference between fertilizer and compost. (5)

Chapter - 2 (Food! Its utilization)

1. Give one word: (1 Mark) 1) The long tube with a large number of fingers like projection. 2) Breaking down of food into simple soluble form in the body. 3) Hardest substance in the human body. 4) The semi-digested food in ruminants that is chewed again. 5) Cavity in unicellular in which food is present.

2. Answer the following questions: 1) Name the four types of tooth in your mouth. (2) 2) What are the four parts of the compound stomach in cattle? (2) 3) Draw the labeled diagram of a tooth. (3) 4) Draw the digestive system of human being with labeling. (3) 5) Explain four parts of ruminant’s stomach along with their function. (5) 6) By the way of diagram, show the nutrition up take of hydra and amoeba. (5)

Chapter – 3 (Fibers and Fabrics)

1. Fill in the blanks: (1 Mark) 1) Shearing in the process of cutting the _____ from the sheep by using a sharp razor like instrument. 2) ______ accounts for almost 30% of the world’s wool production. 3) The wool is processed into a fine yarn called ____ yarn. 4) The silkworms feed on mulberry leaves continuously for ______ weeks. 5) A wild variety of golden silk produced in the Brahmaputra valley is called ______ silk.

2. Answer the following questions briefly: 1) Draw the life cycle of a silkworm. (2) 2) Name the four countries where commercial sheep rearing is done. (2) 3) What do you mean by occupational hazard? (2) 4) Who are Jackaroos. (2)

3. Answer the following questions in detail: 1) Shearing (3)

a. What do you mean by shearing? b. When is it done? c. Why does shearing not hurt the sheep?

2) Summarize the steps involved in the production (5) 3) Explain the following terms: (5)

a. Shearing b. Scouring c. Sorting d. Carding e. Burrs

Chapter -4 (Heat: Hot & Cold) 1. Multiple choice questions: (1 Mark)

1) Molecules move from the hotter body to cold body a. Convection b. Radiation c. Conduction d. None of these

2) Room heater works on the principal of

a. Radiation b. Conduction c. Convection d. Condensation

3) Conduction takes place in

a. Solid only b. Liquid only c. Gases only d. All of these

4) Handles of cooking utensils should be made of material that

a. Conducts heat well b. Does not conduct heat c. Radiates heat well d. Convect heat well

5) Which one of the following is not greenhouse gas

a. Carbon dioxide b. Methane c. Oxygen d. All of these

2. Fill in the blanks (1 Mark)

1) Hot and cold are relative terms in relation to our body _______. 2) The degree of _________ of a body is called its temperature. 3) An object ________ on heating and contracts on cooling. 4) Heat is a form of energy and is also called ________.

3. Answer the following questions briefly:

1) What happens during convection? (2) 2) When do we feel hot or cold? (2) 3) Convert 102o F to o C. (2) 4) How is heat transferred by conduction? (2) 5) What are three ways by which heat is transferred from one body to another? (2)

4. Answer the following questions in detail:

1) Convert 450 C to 0 F & 1700 F to 0 C. (3) 2) Explain the process of sea breeze and land breeze with the help of diagram. (5) 3) What are the three scales of measurement? (3) 4) Give three examples of good conductor and bad conductor. (3) 5) Write 5 important effects of heat. (5) 6) Name any 2 main greenhouse gas. (5) 7) Explain the process of global warming. (5) 8) Difference between conduction, convection and radiation. (5)

Chapter – 5 (Chemical around us)

1. Fill in the blanks: (1 mark each)

1) A soap solution is ______ in nature. 2) Aqua regia contains HNO3 and HCl in the ratio ______. 3) A strong acid neutralizes with a weak base to form a ____ salt. 4) A strong base neutralizes with a weak acid to form a ____ salt. 5) _____ is known as the king of chemicals.

2. One word answer: (1 mark each)

1) Which acid is present in milk? 2) Which base will you take as medicine if you have indigestion? 3) A substance that changes color in acidic and basic solution. 4) What is a base called if it is soluble in water? 5) Name one chemical indicators.

3. Multiple choice questions: (1 Mark each)

1) Which of the following is not base a. Copper carbonate b. Sodium hydroxide c. Magnesium hydroxide d. Ammonium hydroxide

2) The color of china rose indicator in acid is

a. Purple b. Pink c. green d. Orange

3) The common name of sodium bicarbonate is

a. Quick lime b. Baking soda c. Caustic soda d. Slaked lime

4) The acid present in sour milk

a. Lactic acid b. Hydrochloric acid c. Acetic acid d. Sulphuric acid

5) The acid present in lemon

a. Citric acid b. Mallic acid c. Lactic acid d. Acetic acid

4. Answer the following questions: (2 marks each)

1) Name any two organic and mineral acids. 2) What is an indicator? Give two examples along with their action in acids and bases. 3) What is acid? 4) What is base? 5) What is neutralization? 6) Give two main uses of Sodium Hydroxide. 7) Give two uses of Nitric Acid.


1) What do you understand by an acid? What are the different uses of acid? 2) How are salts names? Give two examples of it. 3) Write one use of sodium chloride, potash alum, calcium carbonate. 4) What is the color of phenolphthalein litmus and methyl orange in acidic and basic medium respectively? 5) Write three applications of neutralization in our everyday life. 6) Write three uses of calcium hydroxide.


1) Write any two chemical properties of acid and base along with reaction. 2) Write 3 physical properties of acid, base and salt. 3) Name the acid present in the following

a. Vinegar b. Curd c. Red ant d. Orange e. Lemon

Chapter – 7 (Weather and climate)


1) Mangroves are found in _____ forests. 2) Deciduous trees are the characteristic of _______ forests. 3) Water vapor present in the air condenses as ________ , _________. 4) The ______ fur of the polar bear makes it difficult to be seen. 5) _______ of polar bear help in digging the snow and holding the prey.


1) The geographical area where animals have fur and a layer of a fat below skin. 2) What type of sunrays- vertical or slanting, heat the earth more near the equator? 3) Animals those become active and feed at night 4) The ship of the desert. 5) Instrument use to measure relative humidity.


1) Which of these is not an element of weather a. Temperature b. Sun c. Humidity d. Rainfall

2) Which of these does not affect the climate of a place

a. Longitude b. Distance from sun c. Distance from mountains d. Wind

3) Penguins are adapted to live in

a. Equatorial region b. Rainforest c. Antarctic region d. Desert

4) Which animal is called ship of the desert

a. Horse b. Monkey c. Elephant d. Camel

5) Red eyed frog is found in

a. Tropical forest b. Polar region c. Desert d. Evergreen forest


1) What are the various factors affecting the climatic condition of a place? 2) Define weather. 3) What is maximum temperature? 4) What is minimum temperature? 5) Explain minimum and maximum temperature. 6) What is the use of rain gauge? 7) Give one adaption of polar bear.


1) Give adaption features you find in a. Penguin b. Polar bear c. Frog

2) Differentiate between weather and climate of a place. 3) Describe the adaptation in penguins to live in polar region. 4) What are tropical forests and mangrove forests? 5) Define camouflaging. What is its use to animal?


1) What are the main adaptations of camel to desert life? 2) Write the adaptations done by elephant. 3) Write 2 adaptations of polar bear, camel and elephant.

Chapter – 8 (Winds, Storms and Cyclones)


1) Winds are caused by _____ heating of the earth. 2) Tornado is often referred to as _______. 3) The center of the cyclone is called a _______. 4) A cyclone in western Atlantic is called _______. 5) A cyclone in western pacific is called _______.

2. Match the following: (1 mark each)

Moving air Low Low air pressure High High air pressure Wind

Wind direction Anemometer Wind speed Wind wane

3. State True or False: (1 mark each)

1) An anemometer measures the speed of sound. 2) The rotation of the earth affects the direction of wind. 3) Air exerts pressure in all direction. 4) The coastline of India is not vulnerable to storms. 5) Winds carry a lot of moisture is called thunderstorm.


1) What is “eye of cyclone”? 2) What is water spout? 3) Difference between wind vane and anemometer. 4) Difference between breeze and storm. 5) What is thunderstorm? 6) What is air pressure? 7) What is an updrift?


1) Describe the ‘eye of cyclone’. 2) How do the thunderstorms develop? 3) How is tornado formed on the earth? 4) Write the main conditions for the occurrence of thunderstorm.


1) Describe the fate of wind currents due to uneven heating of land and water. 2) List some safety measures to be taken during a storm. 3) Describe one activity to show that air everts pressure. 4) Explain the following terms:

a. Typhoon b. Hurricane c. Storm centre d. Anticyclone e. cyclone

Chapter -10 (Breath in and out: Respiration)


1) _____ leads into the lungs. 2) The voice box is also called _____. 3) An earthworm breathes through _____. 4) The diaphragm is _____ during inhalation and _____ during exhalartion. 5) Glucose + Oxygen _____ + H2O + energy


1) The muscular partition between abdominal cavity and . 2) The apertures on the sides of insect’s body. 3) Name the substance present in blood which transports oxygen. 4) Name the air sacs at the end of the smallest air tubes. 5) Tiny holes on leaves of plant.


1) Energy from food is released by the process of a. Digestion b. Circulation c. Respiration d. Excretion

2) Energy from food is released by the process

a. Digestion b. Circulation c. Respiration d. Excretion

3) In insects exchange of gases takes place through

a. Gills b. Spiracles c. Lungs d. Skin

4) Glucose is oxidized to ethyl alcohol in

a. Aerobic respiration b. Anaerobic respiration c. Fermentation d. All of these

5) The number of times a person breathes in a minute is termed as the

a. Breathing rate b. Exhalation c. Inhalation d. Respiration


1) What is respiration? 2) Give the equation which explains the reaction taking place during internal respiration. 3) What is the difference between external and internal respiration? 4) What is aerobic respiration? 5) Write the reaction for aerobic and anaerobic respiration. 6) What is anaerobic respiration? 7) Draw the pictorial representation of exchange of gases in alveolus. 8) How do plant respire?


1) Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. 2) Draw labeled diagram of human respiratory system. 3) With the help of experiment, prove that air we breathe out contain carbon dioxide. 4) State the role of diaphragm in breathing. 5) Draw diagram to show stomata on the leaf surface. 6) Explain the stomata and lenticels.


1) Explain the mechanism of breathing in human. 2) Write the difference between combustion and respiration. 3) Explain the following terms:

a. Inhalation b. Exhalation c. Breathing rate d. Lenticels e. Stomata

Chapter – 6 (Things changing around us)


1) Milk once curded cannot be ______ back. 2) Clotting of blood is a ______ change. 3) The new substance that is formed when magnesium oxide is dissolved in water is ______. 4) ______ and ______ are the basic requirement for rusting of iron objects. 5) Rusting of iron is a _____ change.


1) By what process is salt obtained from sea water? 2) Name an agent which causes corrosion. 3) The gas which is used in extinguishing fire. 4) Name a metal used in galvanization. 5) Name the metal used in tinning. 6) What method will you use to get a pure liquid if it has dissolved impurities present in it?

3. Match the following: (1/2x4 = 2 marks)

Rusting of iron Chemical change Photosynthesis Moisture & oxygen Fruit turning brown Fixed shapes Crystals Reaction with O2


1) What is a physical change? 2) What is a chemical change? 3) What is crystallization? 4) What is galvanization? 5) What is tinning? 6) Why rusting of iron objects is faster in coastal area than in deserts? 7) What do you understand by rusting of iron?


1) Explain any 3 methods by which you can prevent rusting. 2) How can you justify, evaporation of sugar water solution is physical change? 3) Give three points to prove curdling of milk to be a chemical change. 4) When can we say that fruit and vegetable undergo chemical change? Justify your answer.


1) Write 5 differences between physical and chemical changes. 2) What are the conditions necessary for rusting to take place? 3) In what way, oiling and greasing help in preventing the rusting? 4) When a candle burns, both the physical and chemical changes occur. Explain. 5) Explain with help of activity chemical changes happen in burning of magnesium ribbon. 6) How will you show that formation of curd is a chemical change? 7) How will you show that rusting is a chemical change?

Class - VIII Mathematics Question Bank

Chapter -1 (Rational Numbers)

1) The additive inverse of 7/5 is

a) 1 b) 0 c) -7/5 d) 7/5 2) Zero has _______ reciprocal.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) no 3) The numbers ______ and _____ are their own reciprocals

a) 1 and 0 b) 1 and -1 c) -1 and 0 d) None of these 4) The reciprocal of -5 is ______

a) 5 b) 1 c) -1/5 d) 1/5 5) What number should be added to 7/12 to get 4/15

a) -19/60 b) -11/30 c) 51/60 d) 1/20 6) Which of the rational numbers -5/16, -13/24, 3/-4, 7/-12 is the smallest?

a) -5/16 b) -13/24 c) 3/-4 d) 7/-12 7) Simplify: 2/3+(-4/5)+7/15+(-11/20)

1) -1/5 2) -13/60 3) -4/15 4) -7/30 8) A rational number between 3/5 and 4/5 is:

a) 7-5 b) 7-10 c) 3/10 d) 4/10 9) The multiplicative inverse of 3/40 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) Any number d) None of these 10) Find using distributive property:

a.

b.

11) Multiply 6/13 by the reciprocal of -7/16.

12) Write any 3 rational numbers between -2 and 0.

13) Find any 10 rational numbers between -5/6 and 5/8.

14) Represent these numbers on the number line:

a) 7/4 b) -5/6 c) 4/7 d) 9/4 15) Find five rational numbers between

a) 2/3 and 4/5 b) -3/2 and 5/3 c) 1/4 and 1/2 16) Write

a. The rational number that does not have a reciprocal.

b. The rational numbers those are equal to their reciprocals.

c. The rational number that is equal to its negative.

17) Divide the sum of 13/5 and -12/7 by the product of -31/7 and -1/2.

18) The product of two rational numbers is -16/9. If one of the number is -4/3, find the other.

19) After reading 7/9 of a book, 40 pages are left. How many pages are there in the book?

20) A tin holds

liters of oil. How many such tins will be required to hold

liters of oil?

21) Find a rational number between ½ and ¼ such that its denominator is 8.

22) What number should be added to 15/16 so that we get the rational number 77/48.

Chapter – 2 (Linear Equation in one variable)

1) Which of the following is not a linear equation

a) 2x + 5 = 1 b) X – 1 = 0 c) Y + 1 = 0 d) 5x + 3 2) Solve : 6x=12

a) 2 b) -2 c) 3 d) None of these

3) Solve: 2x/3 = 18

a) 9 b) 27 c) -9 d) None of these 4) Solve: 8x = 20 + 3x


5) Solve:


6) Find the solution of

a) 8 b) -8 c) 4 d) None of these 7) Solve: 5x-7 = 2x+8 a) 5 b) -9 c) -5 d) 9 8) The sum of three consecutive multiples of 11 is 363. Find these multiples. a) 117, 121, 125 b) 110, 121, 132 c) 110, 99, 154 d) 154, 88, 121 9) The difference between two whole numbers is 66. The ratio of two numbers is 2:5. What are the two

numbers? a) 110, 44 b) 120, 54 c) 140, 74 d) None of these 10) Sum of two numbers is 95. If one exceeds the other by 15, find the numbers. a) 55, 35 b) 50, 45 c) 40, 25 d) None of these 11) Two numbers are in the ratio 5:3. If they differ by 18, what are the numbers a) 45, 27 b) 50, 32 c) 40, 22 d) None of these 12) Solve: 5x+9 = 5+3x a) 2 b) -2 c) 3 d) None of these 13) Solve: 8x+4 = 3(x-1)7 a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) None of these



16) Solve:

17) The number of boys and girls in a class are in the ratio 7:5. The number of boys is 8 more than the number of girls. What is the total class strength?

18) Fifteen years from now Ravi’s age will be four times his present age. What is Ravi’s present age? 19) Solve: 5x-2(2x-7) = 2(3x-1)+ 7/2

20) Solve:

21) Solve:

–

22) Solve:

23) Ratio of three angles of a triangle is 1:2:3. Find the angles. 24) Perimeter of the top of a table in the conference hall is 32 cm. if the length of the table is 3 times its breadth,

how long is the table? 25) Preeti has three more dolls than Renu. If there all 11 dolls in all, how many dolls does each have? 26) Ratio of three sides of a triangle are 1:3:5 and perimeter of the triangle is 270m. find the sides. 27) Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9. When we interchange the digits the new number is 27 greater

than the earlier number. Find the number. 28) One of the digits of a two digit number is three times the other digit. If you interchange the digits and add the

resulting number to original number you get 88 as final result. Find the numbers. 29) Sahoo’s mother’s present age is six times Sahoo’s present age. Five year from now Sahoo’s age will be one-

third of his mother’s age. Find their current age 30) A man’s age is three times his son’s age. Ten years ago his age was five times his son’s age. Find their current

age 31) The perimeter of a rectangular swimming pool is 154 m. Its length is 2m more than twice its breadth. What are

the length and breadth of the pool? 32) Two numbers are in the ratio 8:3. If sum of the numbers is 143, find the numbers

33) Rakhi's mother is four times as old as Rakhi. After 5years, her mother will be three times as she will be then. Find their present ages

34) The difference between ages of two cousins is 10years. 15yearsago, if the elder one was twice as old as the younger one, find their present ages.

35) Find three consecutive even numbers whose sum is 234 36) Three numbers are in ratio 4:5:6. If the sum of the largest and the smallest equals the sum of the third and 55,

find the numbers 37) The ages of Sonu and Monu are in the ratio 5:7. If Sonu were 9yearsolder and Monu 9years younger, the age

of Sonu would have been twice the age of Monu. Find their ages 38) The digit in the tens place of a two-digit number is three times that in the units place. If the digits are

reversed, the new number will be 36 less than the original number. Find the original number 39) Amina thinks of a number and subtracts 5/2 from it. She multiplies the result by 8. The final result is 3 times

her original number. Find the number 40) A positive number is 5 times another number. If 21 is added to both the numbers then one of the new

numbers becomes twice of another new numbers. Find the original numbers. 41) Sum of the digits of a two digit number is 9. When we interchange the digits the new number is 27 greater

than the earlier number. Find the number. Chapter- 3 (Understanding Quadrilaterals)

1) A simple closed curve made up of only _____________ is called a polygon. a) Curves b) Line segments c) Lines d) Closed curves 2) A polygon with minimum number of sides is a) Pentagon b) Square c) Triangle d) Angle 3) Polygons that have no portions of their diagonals in their exteriors are called a) Squares b) Triangles c) Convex d) Concave 4) Polygons that have any portions of their diagonals in their exteriors are called a) Squares b) Triangles c) Convex d) Concave 5) All the sides of a regular polygon are _________________. a) Parallel b) Equal in length c) Not parallel d) Not equal 6) Sum of all interior angles of a polygon with (n) sides is given by a) (n - 2) x 1800 b) N – 2 x 1800 c) (n + 2)x 1800 d) N + 2 x 1800 7) The angle sum of all interior angles of a convex polygon of sides 7 is a) 1800 b) 5400 c) 6300 d) 9000 8) Each exterior angle of a regular hexagon is of measure a) 1200 b) 800 c) 1000 d) 600 9) The number of sides in a regular polygon is 15 , then measure of each exterior angle is a) 240 b) 360 c) 200 d) 180 10) How many diagonals does have in a convex quadrilateral? a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) None of these 11) How many diagonals does have in a regular hexagon? a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d) None of these 12) How many diagonals does have in a triangle? a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) None of these 13) The measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon is 1400, then number of sides that regular polygon has

________ a) 15 b) 12 c) 9 d) 10 14) A quadrilateral which has 2 pairs of equal adjacent sides but unequal opposite sides is called __________ a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Kite d) Square 15) The value of x in the following figure is a) 1200 b) 1800 c) 600 d) 1000 16) A parallelogram each of whose angles measures 900 is _______ a) Rectangle b) Rhombus c) Kite d) Trapezium 17) A parallelogram whose all sides are equal is called a) Square b) Rhombus c) Rectangle d) Trapezium

x

18) The diagonals of a rhombus bisect each other at ___ angles. a) Acute b) Right c) Obtuse d) Reflex 19) Diagonals of a rectangle a) Equal to each

other b) Not equal c) One is double of

the other d) None of these

20) The diagonals of a square bisect each other at ____ angle. a) Acute b) Right c) Obtuse d) reflex 21) how many diagonals does a regular Hexagon has? a) 2 b) 9 c) 3 d) 5 22) What is the sum of the measures of angles of a convex quadrilaterals? a) 1800 b) 900 c) 3600 450

23) If the three angles of a quadrilateral are 1200, 1300, 100 then what is the fourth angle? a) 30 b) 1000 c) 400 d) 900 24) The opposite angles of a parallelogram are _____ a) Unequal b) Equal c) Complementary d) Supplementary 25) How many measurements can determine a quadrilateral uniquely? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 26) Diagonals of a parallelogram _____ each other. a) Bisect b) Equal to c) Perpendicular to d) None of these 27) How many diagonals does each of the following have? a) A convex quadrilateral b) A regular hexagon c) A triangle 28) What is a regular polygon? State the name of a regular polygon of (i) 3 sides (ii) 4 sides (iii) 6 sides 29) Find the angle measure x in the figure:

30) Find the perimeter of a parallelogram with sides 9cm and 5cm. 31) The adjacent angles of a parallelogram are in the ratio 5:4. Find all the angles.

32) GOAL is a quadrilateral in which GO || AL. If G=O=400. What are the measures of A and L. 33) ABCD is a rhombus whose diagonals AC and BD intersect at a point O. If side AB=10cm and diagonal BD=16cm,

find the length of diagonal AC.

34) The diagonals of a rhombus ABCD intersect at O. If ADC=120-0 and OD=6cm, find (i) OAD (ii) side AB (iii) perimeter of the rhombus ABCD.

35) Three angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 3:5:5. The difference of the least and the greatest of these angles is 45. Find all the four angles of the quadrilateral.

36) In the below figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral. Find x.

37) In the above right sided figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral. Find x.

900

x

1100

500

38) In the below figure. Find x.

39) In the above right sided figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB||CD. Find x and y. 40) Find the below figure, find x

41) In the above right sided figure, find the value of y. 42) What is the measure of each of exterior angle of a regular polygon of 10 sides? 43) How many sides does a regular polygons has if each of its interior angle is 1600? 44) In the below figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. What is the value of x?

45) In the above right figure, SONI is a rectangle. What is the length of IN? 46) In a parallelogram ABCD the point of intersection of both diagonals AC and BD is O. If AC = 16cm and BD =

12cm then what is OA and OD? Chapter – 4 (Practical Geometry)

1) Construct a quadrilateral PQRS where PQ = 4 cm, QR = 6 cm, RS = 5 cm, PS = 5.5 cm and PR = 7 cm.

2) Construct the Quadrilateral ABCD where AB = 4.5 cm, BC = 5.5 cm, CD = 4 cm, AD = 6 cm and AC = 7 cm.

3) Construct Quadrilateral JUMP where JU = 3.5 cm, UM = 4 cm, MP = 5 cm, PJ = 4.5 cm and PU = 6.5 cm

4) Construct Parallelogram MORE where OR = 6 cm, RE = 4.5 cm and EO = 7.5 cm 5) Construct Rhombus BEST where BE = 4.5 cm and ET = 6 cm 6) Construct a quadrilateral ABCD, given that BC = 4.5 cm, AD = 5.5 cm, CD = 5 cm the diagonal AC = 5.5 cm and

diagonal BD = 7 cm.

7) Construct quadrilateral LIFT where LI = 4 cm, IF = 3 cm, TL = 2.5 cm, LF = 4.5 cm and IT = 4 cm

8) Construct Rhombus BEND where BN = 5.6 cm and DE = 6.5 cm

9) Construct a quadrilateral MIST where MI = 3.5 cm, IS = 6.5 cm, M = 75°, I = 105° and S = 120°.

10) Construct Quadrilateral PLAN where PL = 4 cm, LA = 6.5 cm, P = 90°, A = 110° and N = 85°

11) Construct Parallelogram HEAR where HE = 5 cm, EA = 6 cm and R = 85°

12) Construct a quadrilateral ABCD, where AB = 4 cm, BC = 5 cm, CD = 6.5 cm and B = 105° and C = 80°.

13) Draw a square of side 4.5 cm. 14) Construct the kite EASY if AY = 8 cm, EY = 4 cm and SY = 6 cm. Which properties of the kite did you use in the

process?

15) Construct a rhombus whose diagonals are 5.2 cm and 6.4 cm long. 16) Construct a rectangle with adjacent sides of lengths 5 cm and 4 cm. 17) Construct a square READ with RE = 5.1 cm. 18) Construct a parallelogram OKAY where OK = 5.5 cm and KA = 4.2 cm. 19) Is it possible to construct a rhombus ABCD where AC = 6 cm and BD = 7 cm? Justify your answer.

20) Construct Quadrilateral TRUE where TR = 3.5 cm, RU = 3 cm, UE = 4 cm, R = 75° and U = 120°

Chapter – 5 (DATA Handlings)

Frequency Distribution of Daily Income of 550 workers of a factory is given below. Study the following frequency

distribution table and answer the questions from Q1 – Q10.

1) What is the size of class intervals ? (a) 24 (b) 25 (c) 26 (d) 15

2) Which class has the highest frequency ? (a) 200-225 (b) 300-325 (c) 175-200 (d) 150-175

3) Which class has the lowest frequency ? (a) 100-125 (b) 300-325 (c) 175-200 (d) 150-175

4) What is the upper limit of the class interval 250-275? (a) 250 (b) 275 (c) 25 (d) 525

5) Which two classes have the same frequency? (a) III & IV (b) I & II (c) II & V (d) V & VI

6) What is the range of the all class interval? (a) 250 (b) 275 (c) 225 (d) 525

7) What is the lower limit of the class interval 250-275? (a) 250 (b) 275 (c) 25 (d) 525

8) What is the total number of workers having daily income less than 250? (a) 300 (b) 445 (c) 305 (d) 550

9) What is the total number of workers having daily income more than 200?

(a) 300 (b) 445 (c) 305 (d) 550

10) What is the total number of workers having daily income between 150–250? (a) 300 (b) 445 (c) 375 (d) 550

11) Draw the Histogram. The number of hours for which students of particular class watched television during holidays is shown through the graph given below. See and answer the questions from Q1 – Q5.

1) For how many hours did the maximum number of students watch TV ? (a) 4-5 hrs (b) 6-7 hrs (c) 3-4 hrs (d) 2-3hrs

2) How many students watched TV for less than 4 hrs ? (a) 12 (b) 34 (c) 4 (d) 8

3) How many students spent more than 5 hrs in TV watching ? (a) 14 (b) 0 (c) 6 (d) 8

4) For how many hours did the minimum number of students watch TV ? (a) 2-3 hrs (b) 6-7 hrs (c) 1-2 hrs (d) 3-4hrs

5) How many students spent less than 5 hrs in TV watching ? (a) 34 (b) 32 (c) 8 (d) 66

Adjoining pie-chart gives the expenditure (in %age) on various items and savings of a family during a month. Study the

given pie-chart and answer the questions from Q6 – Q10.

6) On which item the expenditure was maximum ?

(a) food (b) education (c) others (d) transport

7) On which item the expenditure was minimum ?


8) Expenditure on which item is equal to total savings of the family ?


9) Expenditure on which item is equal to total savings of the House Rent?

(a) food (b) education (c) clothes (d) transport If the monthly savings of the family is Rs 3000,

10) What is the monthly income of the family? (a) 30000 (b) 20000 (c) 25000 (d) 40000

11) What is the monthly expenditure on cloths ?

(a) 3000 (b) 2000 (c) 2500 (d) 1000

12) What is the monthly expenditure on education for children ?

(a) 3000 (b) 2000 (c) 2500 (d) 1000

13) What is the monthly expenditure on education for others?

(a) 3000 (b) 2000 (c) 2500 (d) 4000

14) What is the monthly expenditure on education for Transport?

(a) 3000 (b) 2000 (c) 2500 (d) 1000

15) What is the monthly expenditure on education for Food?

(a) 3000 (b) 5000 (c) 2500 (d) 4000

Cards are marked with numbers 1 to 25 are placed in the box and mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn at random

from the box. Answer the following questions (Q16-Q26)

16) What is the probability of getting number 5? a) 1 b) 0 c) 1/25 d) 1/5 17) What is the probability of getting a number less than 11? a) 1 b) 0 c) 1/5 d) 2/5 18) What is the probability of getting a multiple greater than 25? a) 1 b) 0 c) 1/5 d) 2/5 19) What is the probability of getting a multiple of 5? a) 1 b) 0 c) 1/25 d) 1/5 20) What is the probability of getting an even number? a) 1 b) 0 c) 12/25 d) 13/25 21) What is the probability of getting a prime number? a) 8/25 b) 9/25 c) 12/25 d) 13/25 22) What is the probability of getting an odd number? a) 1 b) 0 c) 12/25 d) 13/25 23) What is the probability of getting a number divisible by 3? a) 8/25 b) 9/25 c) 12/25 d) 13/25 16) What is the probability of getting a number divisible by 4? a) 8/25 b) 9/25 c) 6/25 d) 3/25 16) What is the probability of getting a number divisible by 7? a) 8/25 b) 9/25 c) 6/25 d) 3/25 17) Construct a frequency distribution table for the data on weights (in kg) of 20 students of a class using intervals

30-35, 35-40 and so on.

40, 38, 33, 48, 60, 53, 31, 46, 34, 36, 49, 41, 55, 49, 65, 42, 44, 47, 38, 39

18) Observe the histogram and answer the questions given below.

a. What information is being given by the histogram? b. Which group contains maximum girls? c. How many girls have a height of 145 cms and more? d. If we divide the girls into the following three categories, how many would there be in each?

150 cm and more — Group A 140 cm to less than 150 cm — Group B Less than 140 cm — Group C

19) The shoppers who come to a departmental store are marked as: man (M), woman (W), boy (B) or girl (G). The

following list gives the shoppers who came during the first hour in the morning:

W W W G B W W M G G M M W W W W G B M W B G G M W W M M W W W M W B W G M W W W W G W M M W W M W G W M G W M M B G G W

Make a frequency distribution table using tally marks. Draw a bar graph to illustrate it.

20) The weekly wages (in Rs) of 30 workers in a factory are.

830, 835, 890, 810, 835, 836, 869, 845, 898, 890, 820, 860, 832, 833, 855, 845, 804, 808, 812, 840, 885, 835, 835, 836, 878, 840, 868, 890, 806, 840

Using tally marks make a frequency table with intervals as 800–810, 810–820 and so on. Draw a histogram for

the frequency table and answer the following questions.

a. Which group has the maximum number of workers? b. How many workers earn Rs 850 and more? c. How many workers earn less than Rs 850?

21) Draw a pie chart of the data given below. The time spent by a child during a day. Sleep - 8hours School - 6 hours Home work - 4 hours Play - 4 hours Others - 2 hours

22) The number of students in a hostel, speaking different languages is given below. Display the data in a pie

chart.

Language Hindi English Marathi Tamil Bengali Total No. of Students 40 12 9 7 4 72

23) The adjoining pie chart gives the marks scored in an examination by a student in Hindi, English,

Mathematics, Social Science and Science. If the total marks obtained by the students were 540, answer the

following questions. (i) In which subject did the student score 105 marks? (ii) How many more marks were obtained by the student in Mathematics than in Hindi?

(iii) Examine whether the sum of the marks obtained in Social Science and Mathematics is more than that in Science and Hindi.

24) A box contains 3 blue, 2 white, and 4 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random from the box, what is the

probability that it will be (i) white? (ii) blue? (iii) red?

25) A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting (i) a prime number; (ii) a number lying between 2 and

6; (iii) an odd number.

26) A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability

that the ball drawn is (i) red ? (ii) not red?

27) A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble is taken out of the box at

random. What is the probability that the marble taken out will be (i) red ? (ii) white ? not green?

28) A bag has 4 red balls and 2 yellow balls. A ball is drawn from the bag without looking into the bag. What is

probability of getting a red ball?

29) Cards are marked with numbers 1 to 25 are placed in the box and mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn at

random from the box. What is the probability that the cards are marked with (i) a prime number (ii) an

even number (iii) a number multiple of 5 (iv) a number divisible by 6 and (v) a number 4.

30) When a die is thrown, list the outcomes of an event of getting (i) (a) a prime number (b) not a prime

number. (ii) (a) a number greater than 5 (b) a number not greater than 5.

31) Numbers 1 to 10 are written on ten separate slips (one number on one slip), kept in a box and mixed well.

One slip is chosen from the box without looking into it. What is the probability of .

a. getting a number 6? b. getting a number less than 6? c. getting a number greater than 6? d. getting a 1-digit number?

Chapter – 6 (Squares and Square Roots)

1) Which is the smallest three-digit perfect square? (a) 100 (b) 101 (c) 121 (d) 144

2) Which is the greatest three-digit perfect square? (a) 999 (b) 961 (c) 962 (d) 970

3) Which is the greatest 4-digit perfect square? (a) 9999 (b) 9990 (c) 9800 (d) 9801

4) Which is the smallest 4-digit perfect square? (a) 1024 (b) 1025 (c) 1000 (d) 1016

5) What will be the number of digits in the square root of 25600? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4

6) What will be the number of digits in the square root of 1296? (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 4

7) The square root of 12.25 is _______________ . (a) 3.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 35 (d) 25

8) What is the length of the side of a square whose area is 441 cm2 ? (a) 21 (b) 22 (c) 20 (d) 12

9) In a right angle triangle ABC , right angled at B, AB=6cm, BC=8cm ,then AC= ____ . (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 21 (d) 14

10) Which least number should be subtracted from 629 so as to get a perfect square ? (a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 3

11) The square root of 1.21 is (a) 1.1 (b) 11 (c) 21 (d) 2.1

12) What is the smallest square number which is divisible by each of the numbers 6,9 and 15 ? (a) 900 (b) 810 (c) 630 (d) 720

13) The square of 1.2 is (a) 144 (b) 1.44 (c) 14.4 (d) 2.4

14) The square root of 169 is (a) -13 (b) 1.3 (c) -1.3 (d) 13/10

15) What is the length of the diagonal of a rectangle having dimensions 3cm and 4cm? (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) 4

16) What will be the length of third side of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 5cm and one of the side

is 3 cm ?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

17) Which of the following is not a perfect square ?

(a) 81 (b) 18 (c) 100 (d) 121

18) Which is the smallest square number that is divisible by each of the number 4,9 and10?

(a) 900 (b) 810 (c) 800 (d) 92

19) Which of the following is not a square number?

( a) 4 ( b ) 9 ( c) 16 ( d ) 24

20) The square of 23 is :

( a ) 529 ( b ) 526 ( c ) 46 ( d ) 429

21) The square of which of the following would be even number?

(a ) 2826 ( b ) 7779 ( c ) 1057 ( d ) 131

22) The square of which of the following would be odd number?

( a) 431 ( b) 272 ( c) 1234 ( d ) 7928

23) Which of the following is a perfect square ?

(a) 45 (b) 81 (c) 18 (d)54

24) What will be the “one’s digit” in the square of 1234?

(a)6 (b) 2 (c) 8 (d)9

25) What will be the number of zeros in the square of 400 ?

( a) 5 ( b) 1 ( c ) 3 ( d ) 4

26) The perfect square number between 30 and 40 is :

( a) 35 ( b ) 39 ( c ) 36 ( d ) 32

27) Which of the following number would have digit 6 at units place ?

( a ) 192 ( b ) 242 ( c) 252 ( d) 132

28) Which of the following number would have digit 5 at units place :

( a ) 952 ( b) 592 ( c ) 242 (d) 422

29) Which of the following number would have digit 1 at units place ?

( a ) 812 ( b ) 182 ( c ) 542 ( d ) 952

30) How many natural numbers lie between 92 and 102?

(a) 15 (b) 19 (c) 18 (d) 17

31) What could be the possible “one’s digit” of the square root of 625?

(a) 5 (b) 0 (c) 4 (d) 8

32) The Smallest number by which 12348 must be divided to obtain a perfect square is

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 7

33) = ?

(a) 1.04 (b) 1.286 (c) 0.904 (d) 1.35

34)

=

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35)

(a) 0.12 (b) 1.2 (c) 0.75 (d) 12

36) Which of 1232, 772, 822, 1612, 1092 would end with digit 1? 37) Which of the following numbers would have digit 6 at unit place.

(a) 192 (b) 242 (c) 262 (d) 362 (e) 342

38) What will be the number of zeros in the square of the following numbers?

(a) 60 (b) 400

39) Write a Pythagorean triplet whose one member is.

(i) 6 (ii) 14 (iii) 16 (iv) 18

40) Find the square roots of the following numbers by the Prime Factorisation Method.

(i) 729 (ii) 400 (iii) 1764 (iv) 4096 (v) 7744

Chapter – 7 (Cubes and Cube Roots)

1) The cube of 4 is _______________ . (a) 12 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 64

2) The cube of an even number is always ____________ . (a) odd number (b) even number (c) prime number (d) none of these

3) The cube of an odd number is always __________ . (a) odd number (b) even number (c) prime number (d) none of these

4) The expansion of a3 is ___________ . (a) 3 × a (b) a+a+a (c) 3 × 3 × 3 (d) a × a × a

5) What will be the unit digit of the cube of a number ending with 2 ? (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 6

6) What will be the unit digit of the cube of a number ending with 4 ? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 8

7) The symbol for cube root is __________ .

(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these

8) If the volume of a cube is 125 cm3 then what would be the length of its side? (a) 25 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 15

9) What will be the unit digit of

? (a) 5 (b) 0 (c) 3 (d) 4

10) Find the cube root of 8000. (a) 20 (b) 200 (c) 40 (d) none of these

11) Evaluate:

12) Evaluate:

13) Evaluate:

14) Evaluate:

15) Find the cube root of

16) Find the cube root of 0.027

17) What is the cube root of 0.001728?

18) Find the value of

19) Find the smallest number by which the number 108 must be multiplied to obtain a perfect cube.

20) Simplify

21) Find the smallest number by which (2x2x3x3x3) is to be multiplied so that resultant number is a perfect cube.

22) A cubical box has a volume of 512000 cubic cm. what is the length of the side of box?

23) Which least number should be multiplied by 2x2x7x7x5x7x5x5 to get the perfect cube?

24) By which least number 250x 512 should be divided to make it a perfect cube?

Social Studies Std-VIII, Question Bank

Chapter –I (How, When & Where) 1. Fill in the blanks.

a) In India, the modern period began around the ____ century. b) The detailed study of features of an area is called ____. c) The company’s rule came to an end in the year ____.

2. Write True or False for the following statements. a) George Everest was the first surveyor general at India. b) Mughal empire declined with the death of Aurangzeb.

3. Answer the following questions in brief. a) What is meant by colonization? b) What is the importance of dates in history? c) Describe various sources of modern Indian history? d) What kind of documents are available at the national archieves? e) Give an outcome of major developments of eighteenth century India.

Ch-2(The Establishment of company Power)

1. Multiple choice questions. a) Constantiple was occupied by oltoman turks in-

1) 1543 2) 1453 3) 1475 b) Wars fought from 1477 to 1763 are called-

1) Carnatic wars 2) Mughal wars 3) Sikh wars 2. Fill in the blanks.

a) ____ was appointed the Governor of Bengal in 1758. b) The British Army in India consisted mainly of Indian soldier called ____. c) Rani Jindan was the window of ____.

3. Answer the following questions in brief. a) In what way was the battle of plassey significant? b) What do you understand by Mercantilish. c) Why was the battle of Buxar fought? What was its impact on Bengal?

4. Answer the following questions in details. a) How did British establish their supreme over French through Carnatic wars? b) What was the objective of Lord Wellesley behind introducing subsidiary alliance?

Ch-3(Rural life and Society)

1. Fill in the blanks. a) The head of the Mahal was known as ____. b) The Moplahs were the peasants of ____.

2. Write True or False for the following statements. a) Assam was the main centre of peasant revolt. b) India was an agrarian economy in precolonial period. c) Cornwalls implemented Ryotwari system in Carnatic and Mysore.

3. Answer the following in brief. a) What are cash crops? b) Explain the Ijardari system.

Ch-4(Colonialism and Tribal societies) 1. Multiple choice questions.

a) The branch of science which deals with the study of tribal culture is called- 1) Anthropology 2) Geology 3) none of these

b) The Hundai rebellion was one of the tribal protest led by- 1) Mirsa Munda 2) Birsa Munda 3) Tikendrajit

c) Chhota Nagpur Tenancy Act was passed in – 1) 1905 2) 1908 3) 1912

2. Fill in the blanks. a) The Khasis are a prominent tribal of ____. b) Surchandra was overthrown by ____.

3. Write True or False for the following statements. a) In pre-colonial period, tribal farmer practiced only shifting cultivation. b) Tirut Singh was the leader of the Khasi revolt.

c) The kols were the first to rise in revolt against the British. d) Khasi rebellion led to the passing of Chhota Nagpur Tenancy Act of 1908. e) Birsa Munda was regarded as God’s representative on earth.

4. Answer the following questions. a) How can you define a tribe? b) Why was the chhota Nagpur tenancy Act passed? c) How were the tribal people forced in beggar? d) What led to the Khasi revolt?

5. Answer the following questions in detail. a) Describe Birsa Munda’s role in the Munda revolt of 19th century? b) Write a note on the tribal uprising in north east. c) Who were Santhals? Why they rose in revolt against the British?

Ch-1(Constitution and need for law)

1. Multiple choice questions.

a) No foreign power can interface in the internal affairs of our country. It implies that India is- 1) Sovereign 2) Secular 3) Socialist

b) A republic is a state where the head of state is- 1) Nominated 2) Elected 3) Herditary

c) Our constitution was put into force in the year. 1) 1947 2) 1948 3) 1950

2. Fill in the blanks. a) All citizens are ____ before law. b) Dissent is a part and parcel if a ____.

3. Answer the following questions in brief. a) What is a constitution? b) Why are elections important in a democracy? c) Why must changes be brought about in a constitution?

4. Answer the following in details. a) Discuss the fundamental right to freedom. b) Briefly discuss the fundamental duties of the citizen.

Ch-2(Parliamentary Government)

1. Fill in the blanks.

a) Lok Sabha is the house of the ____. b) ____ presides the meeting of Rajya Sabha. c) ____ is accountable to the parliament. d) The members of Rajya Sabha must be ____ years of age.

2. Write True or False. a) A money bill can only be introduced in Rajya Sabha. b) The president is the real head of executive in In dian Union.

3. Answer the following questions in brief. a) What do you understand by impeachment? b) What is a bill? How does it become a law? c) Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha why is he called?

4. Answer the following. a) What do you understand by impeachment? b) Who do you understand by democracy? c) Who is a prime minister? d) Who is a president?

5. Answer the questions. a) What is meant by the Principle of collective responsibility? b) What is a bill? How does it become a law? c) Who forms the government after the Lok Sabha elections? d) Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha? Why is he called the ex-official chairman?

6. Answer the following questions in detail. a) What are the legislative powers of the president? b) Why do we have a Parliamentary form of government? c) Describe the powers and functions of Prime Minister?

Ch-1(Resources)

1. Multiple choice questions. a) Which of them is not a biotic resource?

a. Fish b. forest c. Iron b) Which of them is a non-renewable resource?

a. Water b. Petrol c. Air c) Resources that are found everywhere are called-

a. Ubiquitous resources b. Potential resources c. Localised resources 2. Fill in the blanks.

a) ____ are a type of biotic resources. b) ____ resources can be generated by us . c) Careful utilization of resources to make them longer is called ____. d) Solar energy is a ____ resource.

3. Answer the following questions in brief. a) What is a resource? b) What is meant by recycling? c) Why is land an important resource for human beings?

4. Answer the following questions in details. a) Why is conservation of resources necessary? b) What are biotic resources? What does a biotic resource play in India?

Natural Resources- Land, Water & Soil

1. Fill in the blanks.

a) The two main groups of soil are ____and ____. b) ____ and precipitation are the main climatic factors affecting soil formation. c) The ____ mountain is the world’s second highest mountain peak. d) ____ is adversely affected by deforestation. e) Environmentally speaking, a country must possess ____ of its area water forests.

2. Multiple Choice questions. a) Raised blocks of land with flat surfaces are called ____.

a. Mountains b. Plateaus c. Plains b) The highest density of population is found –

a. Plains b. Plateaus c. Mountains c) In which part of Asia is India subcontinent located?

a. Northern b. Southern c. Eastern d) The uppermost thin layer of earth crust which supports all vegetation, is called-

a. Pedalfers b. Pedacals c. Soil e) Which content is returned to the soil by leguminous crops?

a. Potassium b. Nitrogen c. Ammonia 3. Explain the terms.

1) Mountains 2) Plateaus 3) Plains 4) Soil 5) Soil conservation

4. Answer the following questions in brief. a) Name the factors controlling soil formation. b) List the factors responsible for soil erosion. c) What is soil conservation? d) What do you understand by a natural resource? 5. Answer the following questions in details. a) Briefly describe the methods of soil conversation. b) Suggest some measures to conserve water. c) Distinguish between pedalfers and Pedacles.

Ch-3 Natural Resources- Forests and Wildlife

1. Multiple Choice questions. a) The Kind of forests found in India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka are –

1) Tropical evergreen 2) Tropical monsoon 3) Temperate evergreen b) Large scale planting of tree sis called-

1) Deforestation 2) Afforestation 3) None c) The grassland of South America are known as-

1) Pampas 2) Prairies 3) Steppes d) The tropical grasslands are also known as –

1) Down 2) Veld 3) Savanna e) Wildlife Protection law was enacted in the year-

1) 1972 2) 1970 3) 1974 2. Write True or False.

a) India is very poor in wildlife. b) The Sunderbans is the biggest stretch of tidal forests in India. c) Deserts are found at the eastern margins of continents in cool temperate region.

3. Explain the terms. a) Natural Vegetation b) Savanna Grasslands c) Wildlife d) World Wildlife fund for nature 4. Answer the following questions. a) What is a biosphere reserve? b) Name the important of trees of tropical monsoon forests. c) Give the characteristic features of temperate deciduous forests. d) What are the factors that influence plant growth? 5. Answer the following questions in details. a) Mention some ways of conserving wildlife. b) Describe the natural vegetation found in temperate evergreen forests. c) Write a note on the conservation of forests. 6. On the political map in India, mark 5 national parks.

ch.- 1 nouns and pronouns grammar a. decide whether · pdf filestd.-viii, sub- english,...

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