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Exam A

QUESTION 1The Check ATP option is enabled for an item in the Finished Goods sub inventory. Which action will occur?

A. Check the quantity requested against forecast.B. Generate a requisition for the requested quantity.C. Permit order booking based on a successful test.D. Check the quantity requested against safety stock.E. Check the quantity requested against Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2The client requires that cycle counts are entered by the warehouse staff. However, only the warehousemanager can schedule counts, generate count requests, and approve the counts that are out of tolerance.What should you consider when setting up the cycle counting process? (Choose three.)

A. the frequency of the recounts requiredB. the number of automatic recounts requiredC. the tolerance level for automatic adjustmentD. Modify the workday calendar used by the warehouse.E. the responsibility that has access to the Approve Counts functionF. the number of serial and/or lot controlled items included in the count

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3Company Z has two sites. Both sites are inventory organizations. One is in Colorado, the other is in NewJersey. Inventory is expected to travel between the two, in both directions. The following requirements areidentical for the two organizations:

A. Ownership transfer occurs upon ship confirms.B. There is a two-step receiving process.C. Only approved orders would be performed. Which setups in Shipping Networks meet these criteria?D. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = checkedE. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = uncheckedF. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required = checkedG. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required = checkedH. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Inspection, Internal Order Required = checked



QUESTION 4Each UOM class must have a base unit specified. Which represents a base unit for the UOM Class Quantity?

A. OneB. EachC. CaseD. GrossE. Dozen

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5A user informs you about the inability to create a requisition using category 110.33. The Purchasing categorystructure is set up as Item Category. Commodity. The user has described the problem as follows: "I am able toselect 110 for the item category and 33 for the commodity, but when I click OK I receive an error." Identify tworeasons for the error. (Choose two.)

A. The commodity 33 has been deactivated.B. The item category 110 has been deactivated.C. The category 110.33 is not assigned to a buyer.D. Category 110.33 is not set up in the categories form.E. 110.33 is not assigned to the Purchasing category set.F. 110.33 has not been added to the appropriate value set.G. Allow Dynamic Inserts is not checked for the Purchasing category flexfield.

Correct Answer: DESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 6XYZ is a chemical manufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from a singleproduction batch. 100 kilos of item A manufactured from a single batch has a single expiration date. However,the purity of item A varies as follows: Category 1: 95%Category 2: 85%Category 3: 50%From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?

A. Enable lot control. Map three categories as coproducts.B. Enable lot control for item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped with serial

numbers.

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 7For which type of move order is approval required?


A. Planning Move OrderB. Shipping Move OrderC. Production Move OrderD. Requisition Move OrderE. Replenishment Move Order



QUESTION 8Identify four functions that a user can perform using the Material Workbench. (Choose four)

A. Create move orders.B. Create and save queries.C. Change material statuses.D. Perform miscellaneous issues.E. Perform miscellaneous receipts.F. Perform pick confirm transactions.G. Perform ship confirm transactions.H. View material in receiving, on-hand quantities, and in transit material.

Correct Answer: ABCHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 9The client has decided that Quality and Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage, so newsupply from current manufacturing will be added to current inventory on hand by the Open Transactions

Interface. The immediate requirement is to go-live with Inventory and Order Management. Which three seededtransaction types can be omitted for material status control? (Choose three.)

A. average cost updateB. all internal transactionsC. back flush sub inventory transferD. miscellaneous issues and receiptsE. all transaction types related to Work in ProcessF. all transaction types related to Project Manufacturing

Correct Answer: CEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 10ACME attempts the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been booked. Which three options arevalid? (Choose three.)

A. Run the Auto Allocate process.B. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process.C. Run the Interface Trip Stop process.D. Use the Standard Report Submission process (SRS).E. Execute Online from the Release Sales Order window.F. Run a concurrent program from the Release Sales Order window.

Correct Answer: DEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 11PTO Kits consist of _____.

A. a standard BOMB. a configurable BOMC. a standard BOM with mandatory included optionsD. a configurable BOM with mandatory included optionsE. an engineering BOM with mandatory included options



QUESTION 12Identify the four statements related to the MOAC functionality. (Choose four.)

A. When querying any transaction, one must specify the operating unit.

B. The Operating Unit field is a display-only field for all the transaction forms.C. While entering a transaction, the Operating Unit needs to be selected in case the user wants an Operating

Unit other than the default.D. While querying for a transaction, entering the Operating Unit helps the application to query lesser number of

transactions and results in better performance.E. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manage. Sales

Orders and Returns across multiple operating units.F. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manage Sales

Agreements and Quotes across multiple operating units.

Correct Answer: CDEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 13Weight and physical dimensions are examples of ____.

A. an item attributeB. an item parameterC. an item profile optionD. an item master characteristic

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 14Identify three correct statements regarding customer acceptance setups. (Choose three.)

A. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the inventory organization level.B. For enabling customer acceptance, no setup is required in OM.C. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the OM operating-unit level.D. Define assignment rules for deferral reasons at the customer, site, or item level.E. The first step to enable customer acceptance is to set the OM system parameter: Enable Fulfillment

Acceptance.F. The second step of the customer acceptance setup is to define customer acceptance deferral reasons in

the AR revenue management setup.



QUESTION 15What are the three necessary setup steps to enable system credit checking on an order? (Choose Three.)

A. Assign a credit rule to the order type being used.

B. Select a warehouse that has credit checking enabled.C. Enable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.D. Use a payment term for which the Credit check box is enabled.E. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is selected.F. Make sure that there is at least one defaulting rule enabled for credit checking.

Correct Answer: ADESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 16Select two correct statements regarding the workflow holds/activities/Exception Management. (Choose two.)

A. The Retry concurrent program can be run only at Execution mode.B. Retry workflow activities are possible only at individual error levels.C. Retry workflow activities are possible in batch mode via concurrent program.D. Retry workflow activities cannot be launched from the Process Messages window.E. When a ship line activity errors out after the line has progressed and the delivery detail is closed, the line

status displays as Notify instead of Retry.

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 17During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from a supplier to beinspected. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reserve. When can reservationsoccur?

A. upon PO Line receiptB. when the PO is approvedC. after the Inspection step is performedD. after the Receipt Line Deliver transactionE. reservations are not possible on inspection items



QUESTION 18Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is checked.An internal requisition has been created and approved. What type of receipt would Org B have to perform toreceive the goods?

A. RMA receiptB. Inter-Org Transfer

C. Account Alias receiptD. Purchase Order receiptE. Receipt by Shipment Number

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 19Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the item. Thebuyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods received fromnonlocal sources. Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Enter the item in the sub inventory form.B. Modify master item attributes to default a sub inventory.C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection Required.D. Modify organization item attributes to default a sub inventory.E. Create a separate sub inventory to stock goods from the local source.F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.G. Insert a separate sub inventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.

Correct Answer: EGHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 20Which data is provided by Oracle Purchasing to Oracle Inventory?

A. ATP supply, planning supply, and requisition informationB. items, requisition, and interorganization shipment informationC. receipts/deliveries and interorganization shipment informationD. receipts/deliveries, ATP supply, and planning supply informationE. receipts/deliveries, units of measure, ATP supply, and planning supply information



QUESTION 21Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information. Choose two pieces ofinformation that Oracle Payables, Receivables, and Costing applications receive from the Inventory module.(Choose two.)

A. Item informationB. UOM information

C. On-hand informationD. ATP supply informationE. Transaction accounting detail information

Correct Answer: ABSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 22What is true about (alpha) in the Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method?

A. (alpha) equals the old forecast.B. (alpha) is always greater than one.C. (alpha) is calculated by Oracle Inventory.D. (alpha) is multiplied by the forecast error to determine the adjustment.E. (alpha) equals the old forecast plus a portion of the forecast error from the previous period.



QUESTION 23You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to meet theclient's needs. You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move toExponential Smoothing after one year. Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demandand has requested your help to re-evaluate the forecasting method. What do you recommend as a forecastingmethod? What additional information is needed, if any?

A. Focus ForecastingB. Exponential SmoothingC. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta CoefficientsD. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta CoefficientsE. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients



QUESTION 24The Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method should be selected when _____.

A. trend demand patterns are greater than alpha ()B. seasonal demand patterns are greater thanC. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are equal to zeroD. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are less thanE. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are greater than



QUESTION 25You are implementing inventory and plan to use Focus Forecasting. Focus Forecasting assumes that theforecasting method that worked best for the previous period _____ and _____. (Choose two.)

A. will be best for the current periodB. was based on heuristic processesC. was based on stochastic processesD. will result from comparing five forecast methodsE. will use the method that yields the greatest absolute percentage error (APE)

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 26ACME is implementing Inventory in a make-to-order manufacturing environment, where there is on-handinventory for 200 different motors. For these purchasable items, given the proper profile setup, Min-max canautomatically create _____.

A. an expense accountB. an encumbrance accountC. an invoice price variance accountD. an inventory Accounts Payable accrual accountE. records in the Purchase Order Requisition interface table



QUESTION 27The client wants to implement reorder point planning for some items in the organization. They currently usemin-max planning. What is the minimum amount of information that needs to be changed on the items theclient wants to plan?

A. Safety Stock Quantity and ForecastB. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying CostC. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost,

and Order CostD. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost,

Order Cost, and Maximum Order QuantityE. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying Cost,

Order Cost, and Minimum Order Quantity



QUESTION 28Your customer decided to use min-max planning for some items in specific sub inventories. You caution himnot to include too many customer orders when he runs the report. What option do you suggest that he include?

A. Supply Cutoff DateB. Demand Cutoff DateC. Supply and Demand Cutoff DatesD. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)E. Advanced Supply Chain Planning (ASCP)



QUESTION 29ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the min-maxplanning report is deployed. What will be the result?

A. Requisitions will be pre-approved.B. Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf life.C. Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).D. Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fence.E. Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item's Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).



QUESTION 30What is the significance of the Shrinkage Rate item attribute?

A. The expected reduction in demand within the planning fenceB. The average loss of material during manufacturing or storageC. The expected decrease in the rate of production of units during manufacturingD. The expected percentage (%) loss of quality of an item during the manufacturing process or storage



QUESTION 31Which two statements are true regarding Inventory replenishment methods? (Choose two.)

A. Kanban replenishment signals are manual.B. Kanban replenishment signals are automatic.C. Reorder point planning can be performed at the sub inventory level.D. Min-max planning considers lead time and is not based on demand projections.E. Replenishment counting enables you to perform counts for no tracked sub inventories, and then direct

Inventory to check these counts against the minimum quantities that you have specified.

Correct Answer: AESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 32Which is the best method for replenishing free stock items that are stored on the production floor, or officesupplies kept in departmental cabinets?

A. Cycle countingB. Min-max planningC. Replenishment countingD. Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)E. Enabling the Bulk Picked item master attribute



QUESTION 33Available to Promise (ATP) checking can be specified _____.

A. at the component levelB. as a function of unconsumed forecastC. as a function of forward unconsumed forecastD. only for finished goods at the sub inventory levelE. as a function of backward unconsumed forecast



QUESTION 34How many distinct ABC Compile Names can exist at a given time in an inventory organization?

A. an unlimited number of namesB. only one for each sub inventoryC. only one per inventory organizationD. One for each sub inventory and one for each inventory organization



QUESTION 35Select one accurate and comprehensive description of the content scope of an ABC Compile.

A. performed at the inventory organization level onlyB. performed at the individual sub inventory level onlyC. performed at the inventory organization or individual sub inventory levelD. performed at the individual sub inventory level with a choice to include the same items from all

subinventories in the organization



QUESTION 36Which three statements are true about ABC Analysis and cycle count Classes? (Choose three.)

A. The hit/miss% for the Class overrides the hit/miss% of the cycle count header.B. The hit/miss% for the cycle count header overrides the hit/miss% of the Class.C. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for nonasset (expense) subinventories for which quantities are tracked.D. An ABC Analysis can be compiled for a sub inventory that is defined as a non-quantity-tracked sub

inventory.E. In ABC Analysis, a quantity variance must always be submitted for approval, regardless of the tolerance

levels.F. Positive and negative tolerances can be entered for each class, which will override the tolerance at the cycle

count header level.

Correct Answer: ACFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 37Identify three levels at which you can generate cycle count requests and perform cycle counting under a singlecycle count name. (Choose three.)

A. by Item CategoryB. for all subinventories

C. by Item Category SetD. by bonded WarehouseE. for a specific sub inventoryF. by specific Stock LocatorG. for a selected set of subinventories

Correct Answer: BEGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 38Identify five valid steps in defining a Physical Inventory. (Choose five.)

A. Void unused or lost tags.B. Reconcile Cost of Goods updates.C. Allow only WIP and purchasing transactions.D. Take a snapshot of system on-hand quantities.E. Approve or reject Physical Inventory adjustments based on approval tolerances.F. Automatically post adjustments to inventory balances and general ledger accounts.G. Define a Physical Inventory for your whole warehouse or subinventories within your warehouse.H. Run the Physical Inventory variance report for the controller to credit or debit an entry on the cost of goods

sold.

Correct Answer: ADEFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 39What is the purpose of the Physical Inventory Snapshot?

A. to permit the entry of inventory transactionsB. to prevent the entry of inventory transactionsC. to provide the opening balance value for the fiscal period.D. to provide the baseline for comparison of physical count quantities against system on-hand quantities.



QUESTION 40Which two statements apply to a Physical Inventory Tag as defined by Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. Physical Inventory Tags cannot be bar coded.B. It can contain a count for a group of a given item.C. It is produced and printed by the Generate Physical Inventory Tags function.

D. It is unique for every stock locator/item/lot number/serial number combination.E. It is used to indicate to the warehouse staff that a count has been recorded for that location, so that a

duplicate count is not performed.

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 41Cycle count variance approval tolerances have been defined for a cycle count. The Approval required option inthe cycle count has been set to: If out of tolerance. When an item count exceeds the approval tolerancespecified, Inventory _____.

A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustmentB. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approvalC. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustmentD. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and does not post the adjustment after approval



QUESTION 42ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances and the Approval Required option is set to: If out oftolerance. When the actual count falls within tolerance, Inventory _____.

A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustmentB. automatically approves, but does not post the cycle count adjustmentC. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approvalD. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustment



QUESTION 43ACME requires cycle counting variance approval tolerances. The Approval Required option is set to: If out oftolerance and Automatic Recounts is set to three. When the first cycle count actual quantity exceeds the itemapproval tolerance, Inventory ____.

A. automatically approves and posts the cycle count adjustmentB. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and posts it after approvalC. holds the cycle count adjustment for a recount and does not post the adjustmentD. holds the cycle count adjustment for approval and does not post the adjustment

Correct Answer: C

Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 44Which two reports detail pending inventory adjustments for a count? (Choose two.)

A. Cycle Count ListingB. Physical Inventory Tag ListingC. Physical Inventory Counts ReportD. Physical Inventory Adjustments ReportE. Cycle Counts Pending Approval ReportF. Cycle Count Entries and Adjustments Report



QUESTION 45After several cycle counts have been performed, the client wants to identify those items that consistently requireadjustment. Which report will help the client identify those items?

A. Cycle Count ListingB. Cycle Count Hit/Miss AnalysisC. Cycle Count Unscheduled Items ReportD. Cycle Count Entries and Adjustments Report



QUESTION 46For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing, what are the systemrequirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)

A. The Receiving Transaction manager must be active.B. The Cost Manager interface manager must be active.C. The Move Transaction interface manager must be active.D. The Material Transaction interface manager must be active.E. The Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be active.



QUESTION 47The client uses an external application as the source for cycle counts. What value should be used for the profileoption INV: CCEOI Commit Point to ensure successful processing of the Import Cycle Count Entries from OpenInterface concurrent program consistently?

A. CreateB. ProcessC. SimulateD. A number



QUESTION 48What is the purpose of the profile options INV: CCEOI Commit Point and INV: CCEOI Workers?

A. to provide a baseline for generating cycle count tagsB. to set default values for the frequency of automatic cycle count requestsC. to set default values for the Import Cycle Count Entries from Open Interface concurrent programD. to limit the actions permitted when reviewing cycle counts imported from an external system using the Cycle

Count Entries Open Interface



QUESTION 49What are the prerequisites for performing an accurate ABC Compile for inventory items using the Current on-hand value as the compile criterion?

A. items costed onlyB. items with on-hand quantity onlyC. either items with on-hand quantity or items costedD. Both items with on-hand quantity and items costed



QUESTION 50For performing an ABC analysis, you need to define ABC Compile, ABC Classes, and ABC AssignmentGroups. Identify two correct actions. (Choose two.)

A. Link an ABC Group to an ABC Compile.B. Link an ABC Compile to an ABC Group.

C. Assign an ABC Group to an ABC Class.D. Assign an ABC Class to an ABC Group.E. Enable an ABC Group in Sub inventories.



QUESTION 51ACME is using cycle counting and the quantity variance approval tolerances are specified at the cycle countheader level, cycle count Class level, and cycle count item level. When tolerances are set up at all the levels,which tolerance is considered first by Inventory?

A. Unit cost levelB. Subinventory levelC. Cycle count item levelD. Cycle count Class levelE. Cycle count header level



QUESTION 52ACME has specified both quantity variance and adjustment value approval tolerances at the cycle count headerlevel only. The Approval Required option is set to: If out of tolerance. Inventory automatically approves theactual count entered when ____.

A. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within the quantity variance toleranceB. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within the adjustment value approval toleranceC. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within either the quantity variance tolerance or the

adjustment value approval toleranceD. the cycle count quantity entered for an item falls within both the quantity variance tolerance and the

adjustment value approval tolerance



QUESTION 53Which Inventory table stores the item attribute values assigned to a system item?

A. MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS_BB. MTL_ITEM_ATTRIBUTESC. MTL_ITEM_TEMPLATES_BD. MTL_STATUS_ATTRIBUTE_VALUES



QUESTION 54Which Inventory table stores reservations information generated for sales orders?

A. MTL_DEMANDB. MTL_SALES_ORDERSC. OE_ORDER_LINES_ALLD. MTL_GENERIC_DISPOSITIONS



QUESTION 55Items assigned the Primary Key: CATEGORY_SET_ID are ________.

A. restricted to a single Category SetB. required by MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMS_BC. not restricted to a single Category SetD. required by MTL_CATEGORY_SET_VALID_CATS



QUESTION 56An item reserved at the S/N level is associated with ________.

A. MTL_SALES_ORDERSB. MTL_SERIAL_NUMBERSC. MTL_CMRO_ALLOC_ALLD. OE_ORDER_HEADERS_ALL



QUESTION 57Which three pieces of information does the eTRM Technical Reference provide access to? (Choose three.)

A. data dictionariesB. available patchesC. logical data modelsD. application white papersE. table relationship diagramsF. cross-platform performance information

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 58In the eTRM Technical Reference, where can you find the workflows associated with an application?

A. PDF filesB. FND dataC. DBA dataD. HTML files



QUESTION 59Your client has material that varies in size, weight, and container type. It wants to have flexibility in creatinglocators based upon receipt of goods. Which Locator Control type would accommodate this requirement?

A. NoneB. Item LevelC. PrespecifiedD. Dynamic EntryE. Subinventory Level



QUESTION 60Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (IO) and sales organizations (SO). Thesales organizations would not transact inventory items. IO 2 would not be used right away, but would be createdduring the implementation. What is the minimum number of subinventories required for this implementation?

A. four (one for each IO being utilized at implementation)B. five (One for each IO. SOs would not require subinventories.)C. eight (Inventory and sales organizations require a minimum of one sub inventory each.)

D. 10 (Each IO requires at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shipping.)E. 16 (Each IO and SO should have at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shipping.)



QUESTION 61An inventory organization can be defined as a facility where you can store and transact items. They can beeither physical or logical entities. Select four common inventory organizations. (Choose four.)

A. Office SiteB. Item MasterC. WarehouseD. Inspection DockE. Distribution CenterF. Manufacturing SiteG. Human ResourcesH. Receiving Location

Correct Answer: BCEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 62You are required to transact an interorganization transfer for Item A . Before the transfer, you must determineand define_____.

A. planning lead timesB. material ownership during transfersC. a shipping network between the organizationsD. the general ledger accounts to be used in transit



QUESTION 63At which level can costing methods, such as Standard Costing or Average Costing (Moving Average costing),be controlled in an inventory organization? 1. individual item level 2. sub inventory level 3. inventoryorganization level

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. 1 and 3

E. 1 and 2F. 2 and 3G. 1, 2, and 3



QUESTION 64Your client wants to ensure that backflush operations can continue even if the inventory level is driven belowzero. At the same time, they want typical inventory transactions to be prevented from driving inventory levelsbelow zero. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush = No.B. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = No; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =

Yes.C. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =

No.D. Org Profile option to Allow Negative Balances = Yes; Profile option for INV: Override Neg for Backflush =

Yes.



QUESTION 65Your client has two inventory organizations (INV ORG 1 and INV ORG 2). The organizations have differentbusiness requirements for stock locator control: INV ORG 1: Locators must have: Building identified Stockroomdesignated Row Rack Bin INV ORG 2: Locators must have: Row Rack Bin Position within Bin Which solutionwould meet both organizations' requirements?

A. Establish stock locator flexfields as five segments. INV ORG 2 can use the first segment as Row.B. Establish stock locator flexfields as four segments. INV ORG 2 can use DFF for Position within Bin.C. Establish stock locator flexfields as five segments. INV ORG 2 can leave the fifth segment with a default

value.D. Establish stock locator flexfields as four segments. INV ORG 1 can create DFF and use that as Building

identifier.E. Establish stock locator flexfields as six segments. INV ORG 1 can create locators where the sixth segment

can be a default value.



QUESTION 66Company ABC is using serialization in all organizations that manage inventory. It wants each organization todetermine the proper levels of serial control. The products in each organization are completely different, so

having the same serial numbers on different products is acceptable. The only global requirement is that serialnumbers be generated in advance, to prevent incorrect serial number types from being created. Using the tablebelow, choose the cell that represents the correct parameter and attribute combination to meet Company ABC'sneeds.

A. BB. CC. FD. HE. KF. L



QUESTION 67A customer is in the process of setting up a warehouse in the Oracle system. The customer wants the wholewarehouse to be a sub inventory with the following requirements: 1) Have bins in the warehouse to storematerial. 2) Track some high-dollar items by quantity and the bin in which they reside. 3) Track low-dollar parts,such as nuts and bolts, by quantity, but the customer does not want the overhead of specifying the bin in whichthey should reside. What would you do to meet this requirement?

A. Set up the sub inventory with Locator Control set to Prespecified.B. Set up the sub inventory with Locator Control set to Dynamic Entry.C. Set up the sub inventory with Locator Control set to Item Level control; for items that should be tracked by

bin, set Locator Control to None.D. Set up the sub inventory with Locator Control set to Item Level control; for items that should be tracked by

bin, set Locator Control to Dynamic Entry.



QUESTION 68You are working on setting up subinventories for the client's organization. The client wants to call the subinventory DAYTONS-20STOCKROOM. The system does not let you create this sub inventory. What is theproblem?

A. The sub inventory name cannot have the - sign.B. The sub inventory name cannot have numbers in it.C. The sub inventory name cannot have an apostrophe.D. The sub inventory name cannot be longer than 10 characters.



QUESTION 69You are defining the staging sub inventory for your sales order pick release rule. Which flag should be enabled(checked) for the rule to work properly?

A. NettableB. DepreciableC. Locator AliasD. Asset SubinventoryE. Allow ReservationsF. PAR (Periodic Automatic Replenishment) Level Planning



QUESTION 70Which two statements about the Stock Locators flexfield are true? (Choose two.)

A. Stock Locators is set up as a key flexfield.B. Stock Locators is set up as a descriptive flexfield.C. You cannot have a . character in your locator name.D. You have to use the same value set for all the segments of the Stock Locators flexfield.E. You have the flexibility to set up segments of the Stock Locators as mandatory or not mandatory.



QUESTION 71Your client wants approvals for Move Orders to occur after 30 days. Based on the Move Order approvalworkflow, how would you enter the values for Move Order Timeout Period and Move Order Timeout Action?

A. Timeout Period = 30, Action = Reject AutomaticallyB. Timeout Period = 15, Action = Reject AutomaticallyC. Timeout Period = 0, Action = Approve AutomaticallyD. Timeout Period = 30, Action = Approve AutomaticallyE. Timeout Period = 10, Action = Approve AutomaticallyF. Timeout Period = 15, Action = Approve Automatically

Correct Answer: FSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 72There is a region called Inter-Organization Transfer Accounts in the Organization Parameters form, on the

Inter-Organization tab. What is the meaning of the "Payables" field in this region?

A. The default general ledger account that is used to collect transfer charges when this organization is theshipping organization. This is usually an expense account.

B. The default general ledger account that is used to hold intransit inventory value. This is usually an assetaccount. For average cost organizations, this account is the default material account.

C. The default general ledger account that is used to collect the purchase price variance for interorganizationreceipts into standard cost organizations. This is usually an expense account.

D. The default general ledger account that is used as an interorganization clearing account when thisorganization is the shipping organization. This is usually an asset account.

E. The default general ledger account that is used as an interorganization clearing account when



QUESTION 73Company X has a single Inventory Organization. It wants to monitor aged material. Specifically, it needs toensure that its products have the most current calibration. Profile Option INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Datehas two selections. Which selection is correct?

A. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = No. Original receipt date is lost upon issue.B. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is picked

for shipping.C. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is issued

out of inventory.D. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = No. Original receipt date is retained until new inventory is positioned

in the same locator.E. INV: FIFO for Original Receipt Date = Yes. Original receipt date would be retained until material is moved to

nonnettable sub inventory.



QUESTION 74Profile options can be either required or optional. All required options must have a value. Which two profileoptions are required when setting up Oracle Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. INV: Validate Returned LotB. INV: Accounting Category SetC. INV: Restrict Receipt of SerialsD. INV: Default Primary unit of measureE. INV: Replenishment Move Order Grouping



QUESTION 75Evaluate the settings below: From To Transfer Type FOB Receipt Routing Org 1 Org 2 Intransit Receipt DirectOrg 2 Org 1 Intransit Shipment Standard At what point would ownership transfers occur during shipmentsbetween the organizations?

A. As soon as Org 1 performs Ship Confirm, ownership is transferred to Org 2 immediately.B. Both organizations own the material upon receipt only because Transit Type is Intransit.C. When shipping from Org 1 to Org 2, Org 1 owns the material until Org 2 processes a receipt against

shipment number.D. When shipping from Org 2 to Org 1, ownership changes, and Org 2 owns the material until Org 1 processes

a receipt against shipment number.



QUESTION 76Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (IO) and sales organizations (SO).TheCompany has defined shipping networks based on these policies: Inventory Organizations within an OperatingUnit (OU) can perform shipments to the Sales Organizations only within the same OU. An InventoryOrganization can ship to any other Inventory Organization in the company. The only exception to the rule isChina, which can ship to any US organization. Which sites can IO 3 ship to?

A. IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3B. IO 1, IO 2, IO 3, IO 4, IO 5C. IO 1, IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3D. IO 2, IO 3, IO 4, IO 5, SO 3E. IO 1, IO 2, IO 4, IO 5, SO 1, SO 2, SO 3



QUESTION 77Your client is using Oracle Inventory without Warehouse Management System (WMS). It wants to establishcontrol for several pieces of equipment using the Warehouse Control System (WCS) feature. What is thesolution?

A. Enable WCS and run the appropriate concurrent program.B. Create separate interfaces for each piece of equipment.C. Create one interface that includes all pieces of equipment.D. You cannot satisfy this requirement because WCS has to be used with WMS.E. Enabling WCS is not necessary to meet this requirement; this can be done using third-party software.



QUESTION 78What is the correct sequence when defining Units of Measure (UOM)?

A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM ConversionsB. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOMC. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOMD. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM ClassE. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions



QUESTION 79A purchase order is created for item A with UOM = BX (box). The primary UOM = PK (pack) and the secondaryUOM is BX. A shipment arrives for 12 boxes. The UOM conversion is 1 BX = 10 PK. Which UOM should thereceiver use, and how would the inventory on-hand (OH) change?

A. Receive 120 PK. This is the primary UOM and should be used for receipt.B. Receive 12 PK. Conversion would occur after receipt. OH would show 120 PK.C. Receive 12 BX. OH would be updated with primary UOM and would increase by 120 PK.D. Receive 12 BX. OH would not be converted; actual UOM would be used. OH would be updated with 12 BX.



QUESTION 80You define a UOM Class for Volume. Which grouping represents the Volume class?

A. Liter, gallon, milliliter, pintB. Kilometer, meter, mile, yardC. Liter, milliliter, kilometer, meterD. Liter, gallon, milliliter, centimeterE. Kilometer, meter, cubic yard, cubic meterF. Kilometer, meter, centimeter, cubic centimeter



QUESTION 81

You have an item that has four different units of measure (UOMs) defined for usage. They are Each, Pack,Box, and Case. 1 Pack = 24 Each 2 Packs = 1 Box 4 Boxes = 1 Case What conversions need to be establishedto accommodate these four relationships?

A. Each =1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 24 Each, 1 Case = 96 EachB. Each = 1, 1 Pack =24 Each, 1 Box = 48 Each, 1 Case = 192 EachC. Each = 1, 1 Pack =24 Each, 1 Box = 48 Each, 1 Case = 168 EachD. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 240 Each, 1 Case = 240 EachE. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 12 Each, 1 Box = 480 Each, 1 Case =1920 EachF. Each = 1, 1 Pack = 24 Each, 1 Box = 480 Each, 1 Case = 1920 Each



QUESTION 82Which two statements are true regarding lot-based unit of measure (UOM) conversions? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot update existing on-hand balances for lot-based UOM conversions.B. You can create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balance.C. You cannot create lot-specific UOM conversions for on-hand lots or lots with a zero balance.D. During a PO receipt, the lot-based conversion cannot be updated if the lot does not match existing

conversion rates.E. Updating the on-hand balance on a lot-based UOM conversion requires a cycle count transaction with the

lot number provided in the count record.



QUESTION 83ABC Company has one distribution center and one manufacturing plant. Both the distribution center andmanufacturing plant have identical items that are specific to their organization. You are required to design theitem repository structure for both organizations. What is your recommendation for the item repository structure?

A. Create two master organizations, one for the distribution center and the other for the manufacturing plant.B. There is no need for an item master organization. The distribution center and manufacturing plant items are

loaded in two organization items.C. Set it up so that manufacturing plant items are loaded in the item master organization and distribution center

items are loaded in organization items.D. Set it up so that distribution center items are loaded in the item master organization and manufacturing plant

items are loaded in organization items.E. Create one item master that holds both distribution center and manufacturing plant items. Assign the

respective master item to the distribution center and manufacturing plants.



QUESTION 84Vision Corporation is a semiconductor discrete manufacturing organization. It has its own manufacturing anddistribution centers located globally. It has these operating units: US - USA operating unit CAN - Canadianoperating unit UK - UK operating unit MX - Mexican operating unit IND - India operating unit SPA -Spainoperating unit FRA - France operating unit NL - Netherlands operating Unit GER - Germany operating unitThese are the inventory organizations that exist in each operating unit: Inventory Org - Operating unit-------------------------------------------- VC (Master Org) - US US1 (Child Org) - US US2 (Child Org) - US CA1 (ChildOrg) - CAN MX1 (Child Org) - MX IN1 (Child Org) - IND SP1 (Child Org) - SPA FR1 (Child Org) - FRA NL1(Child Org) - NL GE1 (Child Org) - GER Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Master organization VC cannot be shared across operating units.B. Items cannot be assigned to inventory organizations across operating units.C. All inventory organizations do not need to be in the same operating unit to assign items.D. You can define an item in IN1 inventory organization and assign it to GE1 inventory organization.E. Items defined in VC organization can be assigned to US1,US2, NL1, and MX1 inventory organizations.



QUESTION 85The materials manager has noticed that several items were created and assigned to various inventoryorganizations, but the analyst skipped the Copy from Template step. The manager would like to know how tocorrect the items. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Apply the template in the organization item. It would automatically update the Master Item window.B. You can use the Item Attribute Copy form to update the value of an item attribute across multiple

organizations in a given organization hierarchy.C. You can change an organization-level attribute with the Master Item window. If you do this, it will update the

organization-level attribute across all organizations.D. You can use the Organization Item window to update organization-level item attributes. This would update

organization-level attributes in your current organization only.E. To update master-level attributes, use the Master Item window. If an attribute is controlled at the master

level, the value of the attribute applies for all organizations to which the item is assigned.

Correct Answer: BDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 86The following table shows the values for quantity variance and adjustment value tolerances for an item in acycle count: Item Attribute Values are: Item Standard Cost = $10.00 Positive Quantity Variance - Tolerance 5%Negative Quantity Variance - Tolerance 10% Positive Adjustment Value - Tolerance $200 Negative AdjustmentValue - Tolerance $250 Given that the system count is 100, which value needs an approval for both PositiveQuantity Variance and Positive Adjustment Value?

A. The count quantity equals 73.

B. The count quantity equals 88.C. The count quantity equals 106.D. The count quantity equals 122.E. The count quantity equals 120.



QUESTION 87Which three statements are true about the item master? (Choose three.)

A. It is possible to copy items across item master organizations.B. The item master organization is the centralized repository for all items in different organizations.C. It is possible to associate items in one item master organization with another item master organization.D. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates are not allowed at the item or organization

level.E. There is no functional or technical difference between the item master organization and other organizations

while transacting on an item.F. When an attribute control is set at the item master level, updates can still be made at the item or

organization level but these updates would not propagate back up to the item master level.



QUESTION 88Company ABC has a factory that is set up as an inventory organization with several subinventories. Each of thesubinventories has locators. The factory purchases material using a purchase order. The person who receivesthe purchase order does not know which sub inventory and locator the material needs to go to. ABC wants thesub inventory and locator to be automatically populated for that item. Which option would solve the problem?

A. Populate the completion sub inventory and locator on the routing for that item.B. Use the restrict sub inventory and restrict locator flag on the Item Master record of that item.C. Populate the supply sub inventory and locator fields on the Item Master record for the purchased item.D. Use the Item Transactions Default form to create default sub inventory and locators for the purchased item.



QUESTION 89There are no interdependent attributes. Which three statements are true about defining an item using atemplate? (Choose three.)

A. You can apply multiple templates to an item.

B. A template can be applied only at the master organization level.C. A template can be applied at the master or child organization levels.D. Modifying an item template would automatically update the items that were previously defined using that

template.E. Template application is exclusive. If you apply a second template to an item, the item would not retain any

values of the prior template.F. A template applied to a master item, which has already been assigned to a child organization, can still

update the organization-controlled item.G. Template application is additive. If you apply a second template to an item, the item would retain the values

of all the attributes that were not enabled by the second template.

Correct Answer: ACGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 90You applied a subassembly template for an item at the master level. Four main attributes of the subassemblytemplate are: - primary unit of measure (UOM): EA - minimum order quantity - maximum order quantity: 10 -fixed lead time: 2 After applying the template, you find that the attributes are not correct. You correct thetemplate with these attributes: - primary UOM: LB - minimum order quantity: 7 - maximum order quantity: 12 -fixed lead time: 4 You reapply the template. Which attributes are updated in the item?

A. primary UOM: LB, minimum order quantity: 7, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 4B. primary UOM: LB, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 10, fixed lead time: 2C. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 10, fixed lead time: 4D. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 7, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 4E. primary UOM: EA, minimum order quantity: 5, maximum order quantity: 12, fixed lead time: 2



QUESTION 91You are defining a template by choosing contradictory item attributes (for example, stockable enabled,inventory item disabled, and so on). How would the system respond?

A. The system automatically corrects the item attribute setting during template creation.B. The system would validate contradictory item attributes. Warning messages would appear while saving the

item template.C. The system would not validate contradictory item attributes during template creation or while applying the

template to the item.D. The system would not validate contradictory item attribute settings in the template window. Validation occurs

while applying the template to the item.E. The system would not validate contradictory item attribute settings during template creation. It would

automatically correct the attribute settings while applying the template to the item.



QUESTION 92Your customer has two manufacturing plants. The manufacturing process for both the plants is identical, butthere are differences in specific areas. 1. Plant 1 uses Min-Max planning and Plant 2 uses Re-order Pointplanning. 2. Plant 1 and Plant 2's Variable Lead Times are different. 3. Plant 1 and Plant 2 use two differentWIP (Work In Process) supply subinventories. Which two attribute control settings meet the requirement?(Choose two.)

A. Organization Level: WIP Supply SubinventoryB. Organization Level: Variable Lead Time, WIP Supply SubinventoryC. Master Level: Transactable, Inventory Planning Method, Variable Lead TimeD. Master Level: Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIP Organization Level: Inventory Planning MethodE. Master Level: WIP Supply Subinventory, Variable Lead Time, Stockable, Transactable, Build in WIPF. Master Level: Stockable, Variable Lead Time, Inventory Planning Method Organization Level: Transactable



QUESTION 93You are implementing the inventory module for a chemical manufacturing customer. They have only oneorganization that performs manufacturing as well as order processing. Which four attributes control thefunctionality of an item? (Choose four.)

A. PurchasedB. Inventory ItemC. Recipe EnabledD. Internal OrderedE. Costing EnabledF. Engineering ItemG. MRP Planning MethodH. Internal Orders EnabledI. Customer Ordered ItemJ. Customer Orders EnabledK. Process Execution Enabled

Correct Answer: CHJKSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 94Your customer is interested in implementing revision control for the finished goods model items. Which tworequirements can be met by implementing revision control? (Choose two.)

A. changing model functionality when on-hand quantity is available

B. tracking design changes in other modules (BOM, Work In Process) with a different model numberC. scrapping the old model and introducing a new model which has changes in functionality and featuresD. accommodating a slight design change in the model, where functionality and features remain the sameE. tracking design changes in all other functions, such as Bill of Materials, Routings, Work in Process, and so

on, using the same model number



QUESTION 95XYZ is a metal fabrication company. It wants to classify all metals and plastics into two major groups. There aremany subgroups in metals and plastics. All the subgroups are linked to their major group. This groupclassification is extensively used in all the reports in the organization. Which Oracle functionality can meet theabove requirement?

A. CatalogsB. CategoriesC. Catalog and CategoriesD. Category Set and CategoriesE. Group key flexfield enabled in the reportsF. Group descriptive flexfield enabled in the reports



QUESTION 96You are implementing the inventory module for XYZ Shoe Manufacturing Company (XYZ). XYZ wants toidentify the finished goods (FG) items based on two major item characteristics: shoe size and color. Thecompany wants to capture all the FG item descriptions with these two characteristics. Which feature is used tocapture the item characteristics and control it in the item description?

A. CategoriesB. Item catalogsC. Item key flexfieldD. Item descriptive flexfieldE. Category Set and Categories



QUESTION 97You would set up the profile option INV: Item Master Flexfield _____.

A. for items from legacy system referenced in this fieldB. in the initial setup on inventory for defaulting purposeC. to capture the item descriptive information on this fieldD. to indicate which flexfield is used to define items in MTL_SYSTEM_ITEMSE. for first time setup of the item master flexfield to denote the key flexfield compiled



QUESTION 98What is the impact of setting the profile option INV: Override Neg for Backflush = Yes?

A. It would not allow inventory to be driven negative.B. Backflush transactions would drive inventory negative.C. Backflush transactions would not drive inventory negative.D. Backflush and inventory transactions would drive inventory negative.E. Backflush and inventory transactions would not drive inventory negative.F. It would permit the driving of on-hand inventory negative for miscellaneous issue transactions.



QUESTION 99What is the impact of setting the profile option INV: Updateable Item Name = Yes?

A. You would be able to update the item name at any point in time.B. You would be able to update the item name after the initial/first-time save.C. You would be able to update the item name even after many transactions.D. You would be able to update both the item name and description after many transactions.E. You would be able to update the item name multiple times after the initial save and before transactions.



QUESTION 100A beverage manufacturing company wants to view the on-hand stock of soda in liters. For all the shippingtransactions, it wants to track the soda quantity in cartons and liters. What type of unit of measure (UOM) setupis required to meet this requirement?

A. Enable only the primary unit of measure.B. Enable primary and pricing units of measure.C. Enable intraclass conversion at the organization level.

D. Enable interclass conversion at the organization level.E. Set tracking UOM to primary and secondary at the item level.F. An item stocked in liter cannot show in carton during shipment.



QUESTION 101Your customer sets up an item with the wrong primary unit of measure (UOM) and transacts for a couple ofyears. Now the customer realizes that the unit of measure setup was incorrect. How can you correct the UOMafter transactions have been made?

A. You can change the UOM easily in the organization items.B. You cannot correct the primary UOM for the item after transactions.C. You can easily correct the primary UOM by changing the value in the item master.D. You can delete items using delete group and create the item again using the correct primary UOM.



QUESTION 102Your customer has intelligence built into the item-naming convention. Each code in the item has a certainmeaning. For example: 01100200 01 - Business Group 100 - Division 200 - Product The customer does notwant to take the chance of adding a wrong product to a wrong division. How do you implement this?

A. The item code can be validated through Item Folders.B. Enable the item descriptive flexfield to capture item segment information.C. Capture the item-naming convention information in each item description.D. Enable the item key flexfield for each segment in system items and the cross-validation rules.



QUESTION 103Your client manufactures and sells material from four different manufacturing locations. The client has theserequirements: Requirement 1: When a customer calls to return a product, the client needs to know which plantproduced the material. Requirement 2: Product manufactured within a plant needs to be tracked uniquely.Which criteria would meet the client's needs?

A. Set up lot control at the organization level and use a prefix.B. Set up lot control at the item level and use a prefix for the lot number.C. Create one locator for each product and produce the item to that locator.D. Create part numbers for each customer to know which part number is ordered.



QUESTION 104Which three statements are true when disabling lots? (Choose three.)

A. Lots are included as on-hand availability in reports.B. Lots are not included as on-hand availability in reports.C. Lots do not appear in the list of values during receipt transactions.D. Lots appear in the list of values for receipts and all other transactions.E. Lots are considered as on-hand supply when you perform min-max or re-order point planning.F. Lots are not considered as on-hand supply when you perform min-max or re-order point planning.G. Lots are not included in Available To Promise, Available To Reserve, and Available To Transact

calculations.



QUESTION 105The Child Lots check box is enabled at the organization item level. Which two statements are true? (Choosetwo.)

A. The lot splitting process is enabled by this feature.B. The system would maintain lot genealogy with child and parent lots.C. Child lot characteristics are completely different from that of parent lots.D. Child lots are unique and independent lots. They are not linked with parent lots.E. Short expiry lots are child lots. Child lots generate unique numbers across items.F. Child lots are a subdivision of the parent lots and maintain integrity with the parent lots.

Correct Answer: BFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 106The Copy Lot Attributes checkbox is enabled at the organization item level. Which two statements are true?(Choose two.)

A. This feature is specific to child lots.B. This feature is specific to parent lots.C. Lot attributes are copied between child lots.D. Parent lot inherits the lot attributes of the child.E. Child lots inherit the attributes of the parent lot.

F. Lot attributes are copied from parent to parent lot.G. The feature is applicable to both child and parent lots.H. Lot attributes are copied from the child to the parent lot.



QUESTION 107XYZ company scheduled receipt from a vendor on a weekly basis. Each batch received from the vendor hasfixed shelf life days. XYZ company's requirements are: 1. Manual entry of shelf life days should not be allowedduring the receipt. 2. The system should calculate the expiry date by considering the shelf life days and thereceipt date. What is the correct setup or process to meet the above requirement?

A. Enable grade control to calculate the expiry date automatically.B. Enable lot control. Enter the shelf life days at the organization item level.C. Disable lot control. Enter the shelf life days at the organization item level.D. Enable grade control. Disable lot control. Enter the shelf life days at the item level.E. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days at the sub inventory.



QUESTION 108Beyond the shelf life days, active lots become expired lots. Expired lots______.

A. can be reservedB. are not allowed to do sub inventory transferC. are not included in inventory valuation reportsD. cannot be transacted and included in on-hand quantitiesE. are not included in cycle and physical counting adjustmentsF. are not considered as on-hand supply for min-max and re-order point planning



QUESTION 109You are implementing Oracle Inventory for XYZ Motor Mfg (XYZ). XYZ want to track all the motors shipped tocustomer ABC. They would like to generate and assign a unique number for each motor during the sales ordershipment. This would be useful for them to track the motors easily during the return process. What is the setupor process to achieve this objective?

A. Enable lot control at the item level. Prefix the lot with AB and ship those lots to ABC customer.B. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation at receipt.

C. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation as nocontrol.

D. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation aspredefined.

E. Enable serial control at the organization item level. Prefix serial with AB. Set up serial generation at thesales order issue.



QUESTION 110Your customer has two manufacturing plants. Plant1 reuses serial numbers across all items. Plant2 requiresunique serial numbers across all items in the Plant2 enterprise. Which type of serial control setup meets therequirement?

A. Plant1: within an organization, Plant2: across organizationB. Plant1: within inventory items, Plant2: across organizationC. Plant1: across organization, Plant2: within an organizationD. Plant1: across organization, Plant2: within inventory itemsE. Plant1: within an organization, Plant2: within inventory itemsF. Plant1: within inventory items, Plant2: within an organization



QUESTION 111Your customer completes two discrete jobs. Each job completes with a quantity of 100. After job completion,the business user found that 10 components used in Job1 were bad. All the components are serial-controlleditems. Job1 reopened so that they could return the WIP Component for the 10 quantities back to inventory. Thelist of values (LOV) shows all the serial numbers irrespective of the component used in the specific discrete job.Which setup or process would restrict the component serial numbers specific to their discrete job fromappearing in the LOV that is used?

A. Setup INV: Genealogy Delimited: YesB. Setup INV: Validate Returned Serial: YesC. Setup INV: Restrict Receipt of Serial: YesD. Serial Control at the item level: PredefinedE. Serial number assigned during WIP completionF. Serial number assigned during WIP assembly returnG. The system automatically defaults the serial numbers respective to their discrete jobs.



QUESTION 112ABC company uses serial numbers for the following transactions: 1. Purchase order receipt 2. Miscellaneousreceipt 3. Account alias receipt The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work ordercompletion transactions. hich setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?

A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: NoB. INV: Validate Returned Serial: YesC. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: NoD. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: YesE. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: NoF. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: NoG. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes



QUESTION 113ABC is a laptop manufacturing company. On an average, the company completes 10 discrete jobs daily. ABChas the following requirements: 1. When the customer returns the laptop, ABC should be in a position to identifythe laptop's manufacture date and batch number. 2. Each laptop should be identified with a unique number andthis should be tagged with the batch number. 3. When a customer returns a laptop, ABC decides whether it canreplace it with a new laptop or repair it, by considering the age of the laptop. ABC needs to identify the agingperiod of the laptop. Which setup would meet the above requirements?

A. Using the discrete job form, the manufactured date and batch number can be identified.B. Enable lot and serial control at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days in the item.C. Enable parent lot and child lots at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days in the item.D. Enable parent lot and grade control at the organization item level. Enter the shelf life days in the item.E. Enable lot control at the organization item level. Set up uniqueness within inventory items in the organization

parameters.



QUESTION 114XYZ is a food processing plant. It wants its system to show a warning message after a product becomesexpired. The warning message should also explain what action needs to be taken on the expired lot. Whichsetup would achieve this requirement?

A. Enable lot and serial control. Enter the shelf life days at the item level.B. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days and retest interval.C. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days, retest interval and hold days.D. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days, "expiration action" code and hold days.E. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days, expiration action interval and hold days.F. Enable lot control at the item level. Enter the shelf life days. Assign the "expiration action" code to the

particular item.



QUESTION 115Before material transactions can begin, you must create the environment for the transactions. Which threeactivities must be completed before transactions can begin? (Choose three.)

A. Define sub inventory and locator defaults.B. Define shipping sub inventory and locators.C. Define receiving sub inventory and locators.D. Define all locators to be transacted against.E. Define transaction source types that are used with transaction types.F. Define transaction types that identify the types of transactions that can be performed.

Correct Answer: AEFSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 116Production creates a move order requisition and specifies a sub inventory as a source. This sub inventory hasinsufficient quantity on-hand, but another sub inventory has plenty available. What would happen whenallocating the move order?

A. Allocations would only be created in the sub inventory where there is full available on-hand.B. Nothing. Without sufficient quantity in the source sub inventory, allocation would not be created.C. Partial allocation for source sub inventory is created. The remaining requested quantity is canceled.D. Partial allocation for source sub inventory is created. The balance of the requested quantity is not allocated.E. Partial allocation for source sub inventory is created. The remaining allocation would be created in the

available sub inventory.



QUESTION 117Company XYZ has portable bar code readers that are used to scan and read data regarding the amount of timecharged on a resource that has been utilized on the manufacturing floor. This data about utilization is thenprocessed in the Oracle Work in Process module by using a _____.

A. concurrent managerB. cost transaction managerC. move transaction managerD. material transaction managerE. lot move transaction manager



QUESTION 118Which three statements are true regarding inventory transactions? (Choose three.)

A. The user can define new source types.B. The user can define new transaction actions.C. Transaction types are used to classify a transaction for reporting and querying purposes.D. A transaction source type is the combination of a transaction type and a transaction action.E. Transaction types identify certain transactions to be included in historical usage calculations for ABC

analysis or forecasting.



QUESTION 119Which statement is true regarding inventory transactions?

A. Transaction reasons can be used in all transaction forms.B. Work in Process would not affect inventory transactions.C. Inventory adjustments are not part of inventory transactions.D. You can designate, by transaction type, which transaction reasons are available.E. You must create at least one user-defined transaction reason for each inventory organization.



QUESTION 120You completed an inventory transaction and a work-in-process transaction. Then you checked the on-handquantity and found that both the inventory and work-in-process transactions were not processed. Whichmanager is responsible for processing quantity-based transactions?

A. cost transaction managerB. move transaction managerC. material transaction manager

D. lot move transaction manager



QUESTION 121Which three actions are performed using picking rules? (Choose three.)

A. Restrict subinventories from being allocated against.B. Place locators on hold if the on-hand quantity is not correct.C. Remove a locator from hold if required during allocation process.D. Create new transaction type if demand requires a unique picking situation.E. Control whether allocations can occur for a quantity less than the total available.F. Control whether allocations can occur for single lots only or across multiple lots.



QUESTION 122For which three transaction types can picking rules be created? (Choose three.)

A. PO ReceiptB. Sales OrderC. Cycle CountD. Work-in-process jobsE. Miscellaneous ReceiptF. Move Order ReplenishmentG. Physical Inventory Adjustment

Correct Answer: BDFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 123Company XYZ manufactures three different types of PC monitors. Type 1 is a unique requirement for the localcollege called Northern College. Shipments of Type 1 to other customers are not allowee. This item is storedonly in a sub inventory called MODEL 1. Other models are also stored in this same sub inventory. The othertwo types (Type 2 and Type 3) can be shipped to any other customer, including Northern College. Whichconditions are mandatory for the Picking rule (rule) to meet these requirements?

A. Transaction type of Sales Order. Rule assigned to Northern College.B. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to customer Northern College.C. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, and customer as Northern College.D. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, and transaction type as Sales Order.

E. Subinventory as MODEL 1. Rule assigned to Type 1, transaction type as Sales Order, and customerNorthern College.



QUESTION 124The Account Alias Name flexfield cannot exceed _____ characters.

A. 20B. 15C. 25D. 30E. 45F. 180



QUESTION 125Which two statements are true when performing an Account Alias Receipt? (Choose two.)

A. The alias names can be defined by the user.B. The alias transaction would go through the workflow approval process.C. Account alias transactions require two events: first Entry, then Transact.D. The General Ledger account linked to the Account Alias is required to be Active.E. Account Alias Receipt transactions would always be considered an inventory adjustment.F. Account Alias Receipt transactions can dynamically create a new receipt if the General Ledger account is

provided.



QUESTION 126Your client does not want to implement account alias issues or receipts. When performing setups, what shouldyou do about the account alias flexfield?

A. Define segments, but do not compile.B. Create at least one alias, compile, then disable the alias.C. Ignore the account alias flexfield because it would not be required.D. Compile the flexfield structure because it is required by Oracle Inventory.E. Define default account aliases that can be used at a later date, but ensure they are disabled now.



QUESTION 127You are setting up a move order requisition for which approval is required. At the organization level, you havedefined the following: 1) Move Order Timeout Period 2) Move Order Timeout Action However, the approvalprocess is not enabled for the organization item. What is the reason?

A. A planner has not been assigned to the organization item.B. The sub inventory source type has not been set to Pull Level.C. The Move Order Timeout Action has been set to a value greater than zero.D. The Move Order Timeout Period has been set to a value greater than zero.



QUESTION 128You want Oracle Inventory to automatically create move orders while performing min-max planning. To enablethat functionality, you would need to define the ____.

A. sub inventory supply source type at the pull levelB. Move Order Timeout Action to a value greater than zeroC. Move Order Timeout Period to a value greater than zeroD. sub inventory supply source type at the sub inventory or item level



QUESTION 129Your customer wants to create move orders automatically using Kanban system. Which setup should beenabled to achieve this?

A. Subinventory source type at the item level.B. Master Item source type at the pull sequence level.C. Organization source type at the pull sequence level.D. Subinventory source type at the pull sequence level.E. Organization item source type at the pull sequence level.



QUESTION 130ABC Company closed the accounting period for the month of October. Their current inventory accountingperiod is November and all their day-to-day transactions fall under the November period. The goods werephysically received on Oct 26th, but the details were not entered into the system. On Nov 5th, they found amissing receipt transaction for Oct 26tH. The business user then tried to enter the missing receipt on Nov 5thwith the transaction date of Oct 26tH. How would the system respond?

A. The system would post the transaction with the date of Oct 26tH.B. If they adjust the closed period tolerances, the system would allow them to post the transaction.C. The system would not allow the transaction to be posted because Oct 26th is in a closed period.D. If they reopen the inventory accounting period, the system would allow them to post the transaction.E. A warning message would appear because the period is closed. They can override it and post the

transaction.



QUESTION 131Which three modules use the inventory calendar for considering working days and holidays? (Choose three.)

A. Oracle PlanningB. Oracle InventoryC. Oracle PayablesD. Oracle Bill of MaterialsE. Oracle General Ledger

Correct Answer: ABDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 132Your customer is planning to close the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the customerwould like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form. Which form would provide thisinformation?

A. Pending StatusB. View Material TransactionsC. Find Pending TransactionsD. Transaction Open InterfaceE. Inventory Accounting Period



QUESTION 133Which three values are applicable for the transaction profile option Miscellaneous Issue and Receipt? (Choosethree.)

A. Online ProcessingB. Concurrent ProcessingC. Form-Level ProcessingD. Background ProcessingE. Record-Level Processing



QUESTION 134You created an internal requisition to move material between two organizations. The destination is locatorcontrolled. The shipping network between these two locations has been defined as Direct. The shipmenttransaction fails. What could be the reason for the failure?

A. Locator default has not been set up in the transaction default.B. Internal requisitions cannot be used for Direct shipping networks.C. You did not indicate the locator of the destination on the requisition.D. Locator-controlled destinations cannot be used for Direct shipping networks.



QUESTION 135For which four purposes can Miscellaneous transactions be used? (Choose four.)

A. cycle-count adjustmentB. to receive against an RMAC. Physical Inventory adjustmentD. to ship items for a sales orderE. to decrement on-hand balances from a sub inventoryF. to adjust inventory quantity within an inventory organizationG. to transfer inventory quantity across inventory organizations

Correct Answer: ACEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 136ABC Inc. has its inventory organizations located across the globe. Finished goods are transferred between

organizations before they are shipped to the local customers. ABC has these requirements: 1. Transfer needsto be done by in-transit time. 2. In-transit transfer charges are involved. 3. Each shipping method has its own in-transit time. For these requirements, which three are valid considerations or setup steps? (Choose three.)

A. Use interorganization transfer accounts.B. Use the Direct transfer type in the shipping network.C. In-transit time for different ship methods cannot be set.D. Set up a shipping network between the inventory organizations.E. Assign transfer distance with transfer charges in the shipping network.



QUESTION 137ABC Corporation has its inventory organizations located in North America, Asia, and Europe. North AmericaInventory Organizations: Boston Manufacturing, Seattle Manufacturing, and Denver Manufacturing EuropeInventory Organizations: The Netherlands, France, Germany, and Belgium Asia Inventory Organizations: India,Singapore, and Malaysia The North America manufacturing organizations are the source of material to theNetherlands and Asia. For the Europe inventory organizations, the inventory is sourced from the Netherlandsorganization. Select all the networks that need to be set up to meet this requirement. (Choose all that apply.)

A. between all the European organizationsB. all the European organizations with all the Asian organizationsC. the Netherlands organization with all the other European organizationsD. all the North America Inventory organizations with the Netherlands organizationE. all the North America Inventory organizations with all the Asian organizationsF. all the North America Inventory organizations with all the European organizations

Correct Answer: CDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 138Which two statements are true about the Managing Shipments process? (Choose two.)

A. You can update information pertaining to the shipment header and the shipment lines.B. You can access all incoming and outgoing in-transit shipments between inventory organizations associated

with the current organization.C. In-transit shipment between inventory organizations must use the receipt routing specified at the item,

organization, or system level.D. If you change the Expected Receipt date, you can control whether Purchasing updates Shipment Supply to

reflect the new due date.



QUESTION 139The warehouse has received new stock from an internal distribution warehouse. Which two receivingtransactions can be used to put stock into the warehouse's inventory using the Intransit Inventory? (Choosetwo.)

A. Direct ReceiptB. Standard Receipt and DeliveryC. Inter organization Direct ReceiptD. Inter organization Receipt and DeliveryE. Inter organization Miscellaneous Receipt

Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 140Select two conditions which will permit the transfer of lot-controlled items between inventory organizations.(Choose two.)

A. Item is lot-controlled at the sub inventory level.B. Item is lot-controlled in either the shipping or receiving organizations.C. Item is lot-controlled in both the shipping and receiving organizations.D. Item is lot-controlled in the receiving organization, but not the shipping organization.E. Item is lot-controlled in the shipping organization, but not the receiving organization.



QUESTION 141Your client has inventory organizations that belong to different operating units. All items are manufactured inone operating unit and shipped to distribution warehouses that belong to other operating units. On an exceptionbasis, transfers may be arranged between distribution warehouses in different operating units. All transfersbetween operating units are at the shipping organization's standard cost plus a transfer charge percentage.Identify three inventory setup steps that are required for allowing the receiving inventory organization tocorrectly process receipts from inventory organizations belonging to another operating unit. (Choose three.)

A. Define an Intercompany Price List.B. Define the correct unit of measure conversions for Dual Uom.C. Define Intercompany Relations for each pair of operating units.D. Define a separate Item Master Organization for each operating unit.E. Define Receiving Options for each inventory organization in each operating unit.F. Define Shipping Networks for each pair of shipping and receiving inventory organizations.G. Ensure that the Receiving Options are uniform for all inventory organizations in each operating unit.

Correct Answer: CEFSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 142Your client uses Average Costing to value the items in the inventory. A Miscellaneous Receipt transaction hasbeen submitted for a quantity of 1 of an item. What are the two possible values that could have been added tothe Material Account by this transaction? (Choose two.)

A. 1 x (User-entered Unit Cost)B. 1 x (Current Average Unit Cost)C. The transaction will not be costed until the next Cost Manager program is executed.D. 1 x (Average Cost Variance), calculated when the next Cost Manager program is executed



QUESTION 143Two Customer Service Representatives each book a sales order for an item that is revision and lot controlled.There are no other open, active sales orders for this item. Each Customer Service Representative pickreleases their order to the same warehouse independently. The Pick Release Rule used by both includes AutoAllocation. On the resulting Move Orders, Inventory has allocated all the requested quantity for one of the salesorders, but only half the requested quantity on the second sales order was available to be allocated. Using theTransact Move Orders form, which action sequence can the warehouse person use to reduce the allocation onthe first Move Order so that both customer orders can be equally satisfied?

A. 1. View/Update Allocations; 2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values, as appropriate.B. 1. View/Update Allocations; 2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values; 3. Change the allocated

Lot and Quantity values, as appropriate.C. 1. View/Update Allocations; 2. Change the allocated Lot and Quantity values, as appropriate; 3. Select the

appropriate Missing Quantity Action.D. 1. View/Update Allocations; 2. Change the allocated Revision and Quantity values, as appropriate; 3.

Change the Destination Subinventory.



QUESTION 144Which three statements are true about the Move Order process? (Choose three.)

A. Requisition and pick release orders are pre-approved.B. Replenishment and pick wave move orders are pre-approved.C. Requisition and pick release orders are pre-approved and require inspection.D. If no planner is specified for the item, the requisition line is automatically approved.E. If no approvals are required in your organization, set the inventory organization parameters Timeout Period

to 0 and the Timeout Action to Approve Automatically.



QUESTION 145Identify three true statements about the use of the Material Workbench. (Choose three.)

A. Authorized users can create move orders in the Material Workbench.B. Authorized users can change material statuses in the Material Workbench.C. Authorized users can perform miscellaneous issues in the Material Workbench.D. Authorized users can perform miscellaneous receipts in the Material Workbench.E. Authorized users can perform pick confirm transactions in the Material Workbench.F. Authorized users can perform ship confirm transactions in the Material Workbench.G. Authorized users can view material across organizations in the Material Workbench.

Correct Answer: ABGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 146What are the steps required to perform a Mass Issue for an item in the Material Workbench?

A. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material Workbench. 2) Select an approver for the list of values. 3) Enterthe destination account. 4) Click OK.

B. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material Workbench. 2) Select Mass Issue from the Tools menu. 3) Selectan approver for the list of values. 4) Enter the destination account. 5) Click OK.

C. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material Workbench. 2) Select Mass Issue from the Tools menu. 3) Selectan approver for the list of values. 4) Click OK.

D. 1) Select the item to issue in the Material Workbench.



QUESTION 147Select three true statements about inventory reservations. (Choose three.)

A. A reservation is a link between a supply source and a demand source.B. For on-hand inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called high-level reservation.C. For on-hand inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called low-level reservation.D. Reservations can be created only by Oracle applications or via forms. They cannot be imported from third-

party applications.E. A reservation creates a permanent data link between a supply source and a demand source, and

represents a guaranteed allotment of material to a specified demand source.F. Item reservations prevent the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,

account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle Complex

Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components.G. Item reservations allow the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account,

account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle ComplexMaintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components as long as the quantity is not negative.



QUESTION 148What two conditions prevent you from reserving the inventory? (Choose two.)

A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.B. The items have a nonreservable material status.C. The inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.D. The inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.

Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 149Select three statements that describe the reservation of Lot Indivisible Items. (Choose three.)

A. Inventory automatically creates high-level reservations for lot indivisible items.B. A lot level reservation must reserve the full lot quantity or place the lot on hold.C. A lot level reservation must reserve the full lot quantity or disregard the entire lot.D. When you set an item as lot indivisible, you must reserve the entire lot quantity.E. When an indivisible lot exceeds the required lot quantity, you cannot select the lot for reservation, if it

surpasses the order tolerance.F. When an indivisible lot exceeds the required lot quantity, you can select the lot for reservation, if the quantity

is a multiple of the order quantity.



QUESTION 150How can you create reservations for the material based on scheduled demand for a Complex MaintenanceRepair and Overhaul (CMRO) work order when the material does not exist in the on-hand inventory?

A. CMRO work orders are not eligible for reservations.B. CMRO requires inventory on hand to support reservation.C. CMRO creates reservation against a purchase order or any other supply source.D. CMRO creates a WIP job to make the material before you can create the reservation.



QUESTION 151Identify four levels where item reservations can be made. (Choose four.)

A. ProjectB. LocatorC. Lot NumberD. Cost GroupE. SubinventoryF. Serial NumberG. Operating UnitH. WIP Work Order



QUESTION 152When you view Item Supply and Demand Information on the Supply/Demand Detail form, Available Quantity is________.

A. the quantity on handB. the nettable quantity on handC. the reservable quantity on handD. the projected on-hand quantity of the item, defined as: (all future sources of supply) - (all future sources of

demand)E. the projected on-hand quantity of the item, defined as:



QUESTION 153Identify three valid sources of Inventory Supply. (Choose three.)

A. Unapproved Move OrdersB. Approved Requisition LinesC. Miscellaneous TransactionsD. Approved Purchase Order LinesE. Sales Order Lines in Entered statusF. WIP Work Orders in Released status

G. Sales Orders Lines in Scheduled status



QUESTION 154Identify three valid sources of Inventory Demand. (Choose three.)

A. Approved Requisition LinesB. Miscellaneous TransactionsC. Scheduled CMRO Work OrdersD. Approved Purchase Order LinesE. Sales Order Lines in Entered statusF. WIP Work Orders in Released statusG. Sales Orders Lines in Scheduled status

Correct Answer: CFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 155Identify the purpose of using Material Status controls.

A. to permit updates to the Item Master recordB. to prevent unnecessary cycle counting in an inventory organizationC. to define the transactions that are permitted for an inventory organizationD. to select the transactions that are permitted to use the inventory on-hand quantity



QUESTION 156Identify four elements of the inventory that can be assigned a Material Status. (Choose four.)

A. LotB. SerialC. LocatorD. SubinventoryE. Operating Unit.F. Inventory Sub-ledgerG. Inventory Organization

Correct Answer: ABCD



QUESTION 157The serial number of an item is fully transactable and it is placed in a sub inventory that has a material status,which allows only sub inventory transfers. What is the cumulative effective status of the serial number?

A. The serial number is not transactable.B. The serial number is fully transactable.C. The serial number may be transferred to another inventory organization.D. The serial number may be transferred to another sub inventory in the same inventory organization.



QUESTION 158Identify the two conditions required to enable material status control for a specific sub inventory. (Choose two.)

A. The sub inventory must be designated as Quantity Tracked.B. The sub inventory must be designated as Allow Reservation.C. Transaction types must be enabled for material status control.D. The sub inventory must be designated as Asset Subinventory.E. The sub inventory must be assigned a material status that is enabled.



QUESTION 159Due to excessive customer returns, the client needs to prevent the reservation and subsequent shipping tocustomers of a specific lot number for an item, pending a quality review. Identify two conditions that will satisfythis requirement. (Choose two.)

A. Assign the lot a material status that does not permit reservations.B. Assign the lot a material status that only permits sub inventory transfers and issues to scrap.C. Assign the lot a material status that does not permit reservations, but only permits sub inventory transfers

and issues to scrap.D. Transfer the quantity on hand of the item to a sub inventory that does not permit reservations, but only

permits sub inventory transfers and issues to scrap.



QUESTION 160Identify the two statements that directly relate to material status control. (Choose two.)

A. A material status can be enabled or disabled as required.B. The material status is defaulted when using Order Management.C. A serial number can be assigned a status that excludes it from reservations.D. A material status is a combination of transactions and planning actions that are allowed.E. If status control is not enabled for a transaction type, the transaction type is always allowed.



QUESTION 161An item has its Lot Control attribute set to Full Control. The Active material status does not have anytransaction types related to lot control enabled for material status control. This status is assigned to all lotnumbers associated with the item. The sub inventory where the item's lot numbers are all located also has theActive material status. How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a sub inventory transfertransaction?

A. The transaction will be accepted.B. An error message will be generated.C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same sub inventory.D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the user.



QUESTION 162The inventory in storeroom A contains raw materials (purchased components) that are used in the manufactureof completed assemblies. The assemblies are returned to storeroom A and they become supply for thedistribution warehouses B and C. A, B, and C are independent inventory organizations. Completed assembliesin warehouses B and C are sold in bulk to some customers and cases to others. Spare parts for the completedassemblies are also available from storeroom A and are sent directly to field service technicians, as required.Identify two inventory set up activities that facilitate and control inventory transactions between the storeroomand the warehouses. (Choose two.)

A. Define a material status that does not allow component items for sale to customers.B. Define a material status that allows completed assemblies for shipment to field service technicians.C. Define a material status for the subinventories in the storeroom that prevents interorganization transfers to

the warehouses.D. Define a material status for component items assigned to the storeroom that prevents interorganization

transfers to the warehouses.E. Define a material status for subinventories in the storeroom that only permits receipt from manufacturing

and interorganization transfers to the warehouses.F. Define a material status for completed assemblies in the storeroom that only permits receipt from

manufacturing and interorganization transfers to the warehouses.



QUESTION 163The inventory in storeroom A contains raw material (purchased components) that are used in the manufactureof completed assemblies on the shop floor, which are returned to storeroom A to become supply for distributionwarehouses B and C . A, B, and C are independent inventory organizations. Completed assemblies inwarehouses B and C are sold in bulk to some customers and cases to others. Spare parts for the completedassemblies are available from storeroom A and are sent directly to field service technicians, as required. Fieldservice technicians also receive completed assemblies from the warehouses. Identify two inventory set upactivities that facilitate and control the inventory transactions between the inventory organizations and the fieldservice technicians. (Choose two.)

A. Define a material status that does not allow component items for sale to customers.B. Define a material status that allows completed assemblies for shipment to field service technicians.C. Define a material status for the subinventories in the warehouses that also permits shipment to field service

technicians.D. Define a material status for the spare parts sub inventory in the storeroom that only permits shipment to

field service technicians.E. Define a material status for completed assemblies in the storeroom that only permits receipt from

manufacturing and interorganization transfers to the warehouses.



QUESTION 164Select the true statement about Material Status Control.

A. The profile option "INV: Default Item Status" must be set to Active at the site level to enforce Material StatusControl.

B. The profile option "INV: Material Status Support" must be set to Yes at the site level to enforce MaterialStatus Control.

C. The profile option "INV: Transaction Reasons Security" must be set to Yes at the site level to enforceMaterial Status Control.

D. The profile option "INV: Allow Expense to Asset Transfer" must be set to Yes at the application level toenforce Material Status Control.



QUESTION 165ACME requires multiple roles to satisfy the needs of customer service representatives (CSRs), warehousestaff, and shipping staff. Roles must be assigned to responsibilities, not users, to minimize. Sales orders aremanaged by CSRs centrally in each operating unit. The US operating unit has two warehouses; there is onlyone warehouse in the Canadian operating unit. Each CSR is responsible to schedule and release its own sales

orders to the warehouses. The warehouse staff picks and prepares material for shipment (it does not want touse the packing features of shipping execution). The shipping staff manages deliveries and plans departures.Which group's role should have the Data Access-level Edit on the Deliveries tab?

A. shipping staffB. warehouse staffC. order entry staffD. procurement staffE. customer service representatives



QUESTION 166Which two are the mandatory setup steps to ship from an organization? (Choose two.)

A. Grouping rulesB. Shipping grantsC. Pick Release rulesD. Ship Confirm rulesE. Open inventory periods



QUESTION 167To streamline warehouse operations, ACME decides to segregate various warehouse functions as below:

A. Warehouse Manager: This provides access to all shipping-related functions such as managing trips,deliveries, picking, and shipping.

B. Picking Team: Members can only pick items to be shipped and pack them as needed.C. Shipping Team: Members cannot perform functions of the Picking Team but they can print various shipping

documents, assign freight costs, firm routing and contents, Ship Confirm, and manage trips. Choose themost effective way of accomplishing this task?

D. Create separate menus for each of the above functions.E. Create separate responsibilities for each of the above functions.F. Create a Picking Team role with access to all functions with data access of View only.G. Create a Warehouse Manager role with access to all functions with data access of Edit.H. Create an Edit only, Warehouse Manager role, a Picking Team role, and a Shipping Team role with access

to relevant functions.I. Create View only Warehouse Manager role, View only Picking Team role, and View only Shipping Team

role with access to relevant functions.



QUESTION 168Which two functions can be enabled when defining shipping roles? (Choose two)

A. UnreserveB. Book OrderC. Create LPNsD. Pick ReleaseE. Schedule Order Line



QUESTION 169What are the three components of the Shipping Method? (Choose three.)

A. Transit TimeB. Service LevelC. Freight CarrierD. Ship To LocationE. Mode of TransportF. Ship From Location



QUESTION 170A freight carrier is required to Ship Confirm a delivery when _____

A. the delivery is not in Firmed or Closed statusB. Global Shipping Parameter Enforce Ship Methods is enabledC. you cannot ship products on your order to your customers manuallyD. a shipping method is specified on the sales order or sales order lineE. a shipping exception exists for the delivery or any of the included delivery lines



QUESTION 171Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose three.)

A. Freight carriers can be defined only in Transportation.B. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments.C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization.D. General Ledger accounts cannot be associated with freight to collect associated costs.E. Interorganization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the freight cost.F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier, and internal organizations.



QUESTION 172Which two statements are true for setting up freight carriers? (Choose two.)

A. Service levels are required for all freight carriers.B. Service levels are optional additional information for carriers.C. Freight carriers do not need to be assigned to organizations.D. Freight carriers are organization specific, so they need to be defined for each organization.E. The freight carriers are defined once and the corresponding ship methods are enabled in the organizations

that would be used.



QUESTION 173What are the two setup steps necessary to generate sequentially numbered packing slips for a delivery?(Choose two.)

A. Define document setsB. Define delivery parametersC. Define document categoriesD. Define document sequencesE. Define Auto Ship Confirm rules



QUESTION 174ACME uses three freight carriers for truckload shipments, only one of which will deliver to either domestic orinternational destinations. For each shipment, the carrier is selected based on the destination. Each carrier hasprovided the warehouse with blank Bills of Lading, which the client completes for each delivery, as appropriate.Assuming that shipping documents are always used for all shipments, how many document sets should bedefined?

A. 2B. 3C. 4D. 5



QUESTION 175ACME uses the same carrier for both international and domestic shipments. What is the minimum content ofthe shipping document set used for international shipments?

A. Bill of Lading, Commercial Invoice, Mailing Label, Packing SlipB. Bill of Lading, Commercial Invoice, Mailing Label, Packing Slip, Pick SlipC. Mailing Label, Master Bill of Lading, Packing Slip, Vehicle Load Sheet SummaryD. Commercial Invoice, Master Bill of Lading, Pick Slip, Vehicle Load Sheet Summary



QUESTION 176Which statements are true about shipping documents such as Bill of Lading, Commercial Invoice, MailingLabel, Master Bill of Lading, Packing Slip, Pick Slip, and Vehicle Load Summary. (Choose two.)

A. Seeded shipping documents cannot be extended.B. The user can define as many shipping document sets, depending upon warehouse and customer

requirements.C. The user must print at least one copy if you have specified a document to be printed as part of a shipping

document set.D. The user can print any shipping documents individually after a shipping activity such as Pick Release or

Ship Confirm has been performed.E. After the user has assigned a shipping document set to a Ship Confirm rule, user may not change it at Ship

Confirm from the Shipping Transactions form.



QUESTION 177ACME uses deliveries to consolidate shipments going to the same customer and have been informed thatBusiness World has several orders with ACME for its Ship To location of SANJOS. All the lines are to beassigned to the same delivery. Which three strategies would meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Run Pick Release by customer.

B. Run the Process Deliveries SRS program.C. Assign the same Ship Method to all Order Lines.D. Run the Consolidate Order Lines concurrent program.E. When running Pick Release, ensure that the Delivery criteria Autopack is set to No.F. Query in the Shipping Transaction menu for all orders for Business World, and assign them to the same

delivery.G. Run Pick Release not specifying the customer, and set Autocreate Delivery to No; then assign the lines to a

Delivery later.

Correct Answer: AFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 178An order has five lines with line statuses of Staged/Pick Confirmed. There is no record on the Delivery tab inthe Shipping Transactions form for this order. What could be the possible resolution?

A. Resolve the shipping exception.B. Enable shipping privilege for the user.C. Autocreate delivery from the Pick Release form.D. Autocreate delivery from the Delivery Transactions form.E. Autocreate delivery from the Shipping Transactions form.



QUESTION 179Which statement is true about release sequence rules?

A. They should not be used if the inventory balance is less than 100% accurate.B. They are used to determine in what order to allocate inventory to sales orders.C. They are used during the Ship Confirm process to determine in what order to perform the shipping.D. You can assign an alphanumeric value to order number, outstanding invoice value, shipment priority, or

schedule date.



QUESTION 180ACME is running Pick Release and it is generating move orders. ACME wants to have the orders flow throughinventory and do not want to manually transact the move orders. Which setting in the Pick Release rule needsto be changed?

A. Set the default value of Auto Pick Confirm to No.

B. Set the default value of Auto Pick Confirm to Yes.C. Set the default value of Autocreate Deliveries to No.D. Set the default value of Autocreate Deliveries to Yes.E. Associate a Ship Confirm rule with the Pick Release rule.



QUESTION 181Which type of customer environment would likely use Pick Release with a Ship Confirm rule?

A. customers using lot controlsB. customers using counter-salesC. customers using containerized shippingD. customers using handheld picking devices (MSCA)E. customers with serial number-controlled environment



QUESTION 182Select three valid values for actions when defining Ship Confirm rules. (Choose three.)

A. Cancel AllB. Delete ATPC. Back Order AllD. Cycle Count AllE. Ship Entered QuantitiesF. Stage Entered Quantities



QUESTION 183ACMEs shipping process involves transit times spanning weeks. They want to track these shipments from themoment shipments leave their shipping dock till they reach their customers' docks. Which two options arerequired for defining Ship Confirm rules? (Choose two.)

A. Deselect Close Trip.B. Deselect Set Delivery In-Transit.C. In Action, select Cycle Count All.D. Use Backordered for Unspecified Quantities.

E. Select Create Delivery for Staged Quantities.



QUESTION 184You cannot unassign an LPN from delivery. What must be the cause?

A. The delivery status is not Open.B. The delivery line is not Pick Released.C. The preferred flag is left unselected on the container.D. Some order lines are still in the Awaiting Shipping status.E. One of the containers does not have a master container.



QUESTION 185Choose the correct statement that applies to LPNs.

A. LPNs are organization independent.B. Deliveries must exist before creating LPNs.C. No container item is required to create LPNs.D. LPN numbers can be defined with a prefix, starting number, and suffix.E. The delivery line status should be Pick Released before it can be assigned to LPNs.



QUESTION 186The implementation team of a small distribution company wants to set up the order entry process quickly.Which three required setups are needed to enter a customer order? (Choose three.)

A. Sales ChannelsB. Defaulting RulesC. Shipment PriorityD. At least one Price listE. OM Transaction TypesF. Processing ConstraintsG. Item Validation Organization

Correct Answer: DEG



QUESTION 187ACME accepts an order for services. Which statement is true regarding the line status flow of the orderprocess?

A. Entered, Booked, ClosedB. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Fulfillment, ClosedC. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Shipping, Picked, ClosedD. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Fulfillment, Shipped, ClosedE. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Shipping, Picked, Shipped, ClosedF. Entered, Booked, Awaiting Shipping, Picked, Shipped, Awaiting Fulfillment, Closed



QUESTION 188A sales Order is created, booked, and all lines are scheduled. Which three statements are true? (Choosethree.)

A. Gross margin hold may be applied.B. Credit Checking process is not done.C. The Order Line status changes to Awaiting Shipping.D. Processing Constraints control updates to all order entities.E. Every time a new line is added to the order, the order needs to be booked.

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 189ABC Inc. is a distributor of automotive components. It has only one sales office in Detroit, Michigan. It has beenset up with only one ledger, a U.S. ledger with U.S. dollar (USD) as the currency. ABC Inc. received thefollowing order from XYZ Inc. to deliver automotive transmissions: Deliver 1000 to their assembly plant in NewYork and bill the New York office in USD Deliver 2000 to their assembly plant in Japan and bill the Tokyo officein Japanese Yen. Deliver 3000 to their assembly plant in China and bill the Hong Kong office in Hong Kongdollars. How would you handle this order?

A. Create three different orders, each with different ship-to and bill-to address and the appropriate currency.B. Enter one order with three different lines; each line would have a different ship to and bill to address. Use

defaulting rules to default the appropriate currency for each line on the basis of the bill to address.C. Enter one order with three different lines; each line would have different ship-to and bill-to address. The

default currency would be USD on each line; override that for each line and use the requested currency.D. Because the US ledger is used, enter one order with three different lines, and bill the customer only in USD.

Inform the customer that it is not possible to have invoices in three different currencies, and let the customerconvert the invoice into the appropriate currency.



QUESTION 190ACME manufactures Assemble-to-Order (ATO) laser machines. Orders are configured based upon customerrequirements. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The ATO model cannot be used on intercompany order transactions.B. ACME generates the configured item when the sales order is in the Entered status.C. ACME progresses the sales order after generating the configured item to create the work order.D. Upon completion of the final assembly work order, Option Class and Option items are Pick Released and

Ship Confirmed.E. When the item is configured, components available in stock can be Reserved and Ship Confirmed without

generating a work order.



QUESTION 191ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model. All the business rules for configuring the model are setup usingConfigurator, which makes it intuitive for configuring PTO models. Which statement is true?

A. A routing needs to be defined for the PTO model.B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.D. After selecting all the options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured part.



QUESTION 192In the PTO Order-to-Cash life cycle, a Model Kit Template requires three data elements. They are ____.

A. item name, item class, and item typeB. item name, item status, and item typeC. item name, item template, and item typeD. item name, item name, and ATP Profile Option

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 193A multinational company (MNC) supplies Item A and Item B to its customers. It manufactures item A in its ownmanufacturing plant, but purchases item B from a company called Classic Manufacturing. The company alsowants Classic Manufacturing to directly deliver item B to its customers. Which Order Fulfillment model wouldbest meet the requirements of the MNC?

A. Normal ShipmentB. Full Drop ShipmentC. Normal Shipment and Full Drop ShipmentD. Back-to-Back Orders and Normal ShipmentE. Back-to-Back Orders and Full Drop ShipmentF. Back-to-Back Orders and Partial Drop Shipment



QUESTION 194Which three statements are true regarding Drop Ship orders? (Choose three.)

A. The supplier ships to the seller.B. Requisition Import Program creates the requisitions.C. The PO is created from an Approved Requisition, which is then sent to the supplier.D. Drop shipments are created as sales orders in Order Management with an Internal source type.E. The Purchase Release concurrent program or workflow in Order Management creates rows in the

Requisition Import tables.



QUESTION 195The customer service agent of ACME wants to identify the relevant line statuses of the Drop Ship orderprocess. Which four statuses would you identify as valid for the complete Drop Ship process? (Choose four.)

A. EnterB. PickedC. ClosedD. BookedE. ShippedF. Awaiting ReceiptG. Awaiting ShippingH. Ready to Release

Correct Answer: ACDFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 196Which three statements are true about the Intercompany Drop Ship process across different operating units?(Choose three.)

A. Customer addresses are visible across ledger.B. Customer addresses are not visible across ledger.C. The shipping organization generates an Intercompany Payables invoice.D. The procurement organization generates an Intercompany Payables invoice.E. The shipping organization creates an Intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.F. The procurement organization creates an Intercompany Receivable invoice for the goods.

Correct Answer: ACFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 197A large steel manufacturing company wants to utilize Blanket Sales Agreements (BSA) to track sales.Customer ABC Metals has agreed to buy 1 million pounds of steel in certain shapes, sizes, and specifications.The inventory setup is such that each part or item number represents a unique kind of steel with unique shape,size, and specifications and is priced in pounds. Which is a valid way of tracking customer sales using BSA?

A. creating BSA on the basis of total price commitmentB. creating BSA on the basis of total pounds commitmentC. creating BSA on the basis of total price and pounds commitmentD. creating BSA on the basis of specific item numbers and pounds commitment



QUESTION 198Which element of the Sales Agreement (SA) process flow requires an additional module?

A. Release against SAB. Approve Sales Agreement.C. Negotiate long-term agreement.D. Customer signs Sales Agreement.E. Author and negotiate contract terms.F. Accumulate item or dollar values ordered against the SA.

Correct Answer: E



QUESTION 199Which statement is true about Sales Agreements?

A. Sales Agreement Types can autogenerate forecast rules.B. Sales Agreement Types can require or not require approval.C. Sales Agreement Types can regenerate forecasted demand.D. Sales Agreement Types can autogenerate Certificates of Origin.



QUESTION 200The Quantity Remaining/Quantity Fulfilled feature of Sales Agreements can be associated with _____.

A. vendor-managed inventories onlyB. non-vendor-managed inventories onlyC. OEM vendor-managed inventories onlyD. non-OEM vendor-managed inventories onlyE. either vendor-managed or OEM vendor-managed inventories



QUESTION 201A medical device company has its head office in the Netherlands and its manufacturing plant in Japan. Duringthe order process, the Dutch and Japanese operating units must work closely as the order cycle requiresmultiple iterations between Order Entry and Order Fulfillment. Using functionality of MOAC, the companyobserves significant increases in productivity. Select the reason for the increase in productivity.

A. Release 12 employs a heuristic scheduling model.B. Release 12 order cycle has been reengineered and presently involves less steps.C. New Default Rules and Default Conditions allow Release 12 to run with less information.D. With the Multiple Organization Access Control (MOAC) feature of Release 12, users can handle the main

activities of the order processing for multiple operating units, without repeatedly changing responsibility.



QUESTION 202An organization has three operating units-Holland, Belgium, and Denmark-and is upgrading to R12. Whichthree statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. Order Management responsibilities must be set at the operating unit level.B. A single responsibility can be set up through which application the user can access all the three operating

units.C. Negotiate Sales Agreements is possible for the above mentioned operating units only by changing the

responsibilities.D. Enter Quotes, Orders, and Returns is possible across the above mentioned three operating units using a

single responsibility.E. Set up Transaction Types and System Parameters is possible across all three operating units without

changing the responsibility.F. Schedule Orders, Apply and Release Holds is possible for the above mentioned three operating units only

by changing the responsibilities.



QUESTION 203Identify the three correct statements regarding Multiple Organization Access Control (MOAC). (Choose three.)

A. Responsibility can be set across operating units.B. MOAC allows the Operating Unit field to be left blank.C. The application behaves conventionally when MOAC-specific set ups are not enabled.D. The default Operating Unit for any Order Management Responsibility is set by the MO: Default Operating

Unit Profile value.E. The MOAC-enabled environment will record a null value for the Operating Unit when Order is saved by the

user without specifying the Operating Unit value.

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 204In a Multiple Organization Access Control-enabled environment you search for orders with the following criteria:1) The Operating Unit field is Null. 2) A specific value is entered for the Transaction type field. Which statementbest describes the above mentioned search criteria?

A. It will find orders across all the operating units.B. The scenario is not a valid one considering the Release 12 functionality.C. It will find orders across all the operating units for which the specific transaction types have been defined.D. It will find orders across all the operating units, which are accessible under the responsibility used by the

application users.E. It will find orders across all the operating units, which are accessible under the responsibility used and also

across all the accessible operating units for which the specific transaction type has been set up.

Correct Answer: E



QUESTION 205An organization has a single ledger and four operating units. A user from the shipping department has accessto three of the operating units and wishes to set site level shipping tolerances. Select three correct options.(Choose three.)

A. Setting up site level shipping tolerances is not allowed.B. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances only for the default operating unit for his or her

responsibility.C. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances only for the three operating units for which he or she has

access.D. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances for multiple operating units from the Shipping Tolerance

Form.E. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances for the three accessible operating units without changing

responsibility.F. The user can set the site level shipping tolerances for the three accessible operating units, but has to

change responsibility.



QUESTION 206Which two statements are true regarding the Approval List form? (Choose two.)

A. The form does not display an Operating Unit field.B. The form displays the Operating Unit field and is read only.C. The form displays all the approval lists for a specific order based on the operating units.D. The form has a mandatory parameter (Operating Unit) and will display the approval lists for a specific

customer.E. The form displays all the approval lists for the transaction types, which have been defined for the displayed

operating unit.F. The form displays all the transaction types for which the approval lists have been defined, irrespective of the

operating unit.



QUESTION 207Select the required setup change for implementing Multiple Organization Access Control (MOAC).

A. No additional setup changes are required.B. New profile options must be set up for MOAC

C. The MO: Default Operating Units option has been modified to contain more than one Operating Unit values.D. For incorporating MOAC, some important OM System parameters have been changed to responsibility level

OM Profile options.E. For incorporating MOAC, some key profile options have been changed from responsibility level to Order

Management (OM) System parameters.



QUESTION 208Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three.)

A. System Parameters can be set with different values for different operating units.B. System Parameters cannot be set with different values for different operating units.C. The profile OM: Credit Salesperson for Freight on Sales has been changed to an OM System Parameter.D. The System Parameter OM: Credit Salesperson for Freight on Sales has been changed to a profile option.E. The profile OM Employee for Self Service order has been changed to an OM System Parameter with the

same name.F. The System Parameter name OM Employee for Self Service order is the single OM System Parameter,

which has not been changed to an OM Profile.G. The profile OM Employee for Self Service order is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has been

changed to an OM System Parameter with a new name Requestor for Drop Ship Order Created by ExternalUsers.



QUESTION 209When querying through the Scheduling Organizer form with an item and a date range combination, multiplelines associated with multiple operating units are returned as a return data set. Which four actions are possibleon the return data set using the Scheduling Organizer window? (Choose four.)

A. reserving actionB. shipping actionC. availability actionD. unreserving actionE. scheduling actionF. unscheduling action

Correct Answer: ADEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 210

The user leaves the Operating Unit field blank in the Order Organizer Find form. When running the query,which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The Operating Unit field cannot be left blank.B. The item list of values (LOV) will show all the items available for all the operating units.C. The item LOV will show all the items available for the default operating unit.D. The OM System Parameter Item Validation Organization controls the items available for the item LOV.E. The item LOV will show all the items based on the OM System Parameter Item Validation Organization for

all the operating units.F. The item LOV will show all the items based on the OM System Parameter Item Validation Organization for

the default operating unit.

Correct Answer: DFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 211Which four are the functions of an Inventory Organization? (Choose four.)

A. ItemsB. LedgerC. Set of booksD. Putaway rulesE. Costing methodF. Workday calendar

Correct Answer: ABEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 212Allowing a negative on hand balance is set at __________.

A. the Entity LevelB. the Subinventory LevelC. the Operating Unit LevelD. the Item Master Inventory LevelE. the Inventory Organization Level



QUESTION 213In a multiorganization Oracle deployment, locations are shared by _____.

A. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Order Management, and Oracle PLMB. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle HR ManagementC. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle Order ManagementD. Oracle Inventory, Oracle Order Management, and Oracle Engineering



QUESTION 214Select the two correct statements. (Choose two.)

A. An item master organization can have child inventory organizations over multiple ledgers.B. Items in one item master organization can be associated with other item master organizations.C. After an item master organization item has been created, it cannot be assigned to any other inventory

organization.D. There is no functional or technical difference between an item master organization and other inventory

organizations.



QUESTION 215Select the four correct statements. (Choose four.)

A. A receiving sub inventory is required in Oracle.B. A sub inventory can span multiple organizations.C. A sub inventory cannot be used with Locator Control.D. A sub inventory can be a physical or a logical grouping.E. A sub inventory location is required for all inventory transactions.F. A sub inventory can be the primary place where items are stocked.G. A sub inventory location can never be deleted from the Oracle inventory.

Correct Answer: DEFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 216Which statements best describe Locator Control? (Choose two.)

A. can be dynamic at the item levelB. cannot be changed after it is specifiedC. can be specified at the item master levelD. can be specified at the operating unit level

E. can be specified at the inventory organization level



QUESTION 217The Item Subinventory Report output contains____. (Choose three.)

A. EOQB. Source TypeC. Locator ControlD. Focus ForecastE. Fixed Lot MultipleF. Min-max Information

Correct Answer: BEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 218UOM Class tables are maintained at the ____.

A. Item Master levelB. Inventory Org levelC. Operating Unit levelD. Subinventory Org level



QUESTION 219When defining a UOM for the first time, the system will ____.

A. default to UOM ClassesB. prompt for the creation of a Key Flex Field firstC. require that an inventory organization be specified firstD. allow UOM and UOM Class to be defined on the same form



QUESTION 220Lot-level UOM conversions require ____.

A. lot control at the item levelB. an item-specific conversion factorC. lot control at the predetermined Locator levelD. lot control at the predetermined Subinventory levelE. that the item master be linked to Order Management for sales order entry Management, and Oracle

Engineering



QUESTION 221The profile option INV: Detect Truncation on UOM Conversion relates to _________.

A. UOM Class conversions onlyB. lot-level UOM conversions onlyC. specific UOM Class conversion setupsD. specific lot-level UOM conversion setupsE. uniform decimal precision across Oracle applications



QUESTION 222Setting the Inventory parameter Auto Create Lot UOM Conversion to "Yes" _____.

A. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across the inventory organizationB. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across lot-controlled subinventoriesC. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across lot-controlled inventory

locatorsD. creates lot-specific UOM conversions for items under dual UOM control across the item master inventory

organization



QUESTION 223The default number of decimal places for any UOM is _____.

A. 4

B. 5C. 6D. 7E. 8



QUESTION 224Select the four correct statements. (Choose four.)

A. The Item Master uses itself as its own Item Master.B. Purchasing must be set up as the master organization.C. Purchasing cannot be set up as an inventory organization.D. Child organizations are assigned to the item master organization.E. The Organization window is used to create inventory organizations.F. The Item Master is linked to Order Management when Revision Control is enabled.G. The Organization Parameters window is used to specify an organization as an item master organization.

Correct Answer: ADEGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 225Select three Item Attributes groups. (Choose three.)

A. General PlanningB. Order ManagementC. Periodic ManufacturingD. Process ManufacturingE. Discrete ManufacturingF. Repetitive Manufacturing



QUESTION 226In the Organization Inventory form and under the Order Management tab, the two default SO Source Types are_____. (Choose two.)

A. ATPB. ATOC. PTO

D. InternalE. External



QUESTION 227In the Organization Inventory form and under the Order Management tab, the default ATP Rule is _____.

A. BlankB. ConsumeC. Soft PeggingD. Hard PeggingE. Consume and Derive



QUESTION 228Available To Promise Rules are ______.

A. seeded using APICS conventionsB. user defined in the Order Management moduleC. user defined using a matrix of selectable criteriaD. user defined in the Global Order Promising moduleE. system assigned based upon the item type, cumulative lead time, and unconsumed forecast



QUESTION 229At which two levels can ATP Rules be set? (Choose two.)

A. the Item Master levelB. the Subinventory levelC. the Operating Unit levelD. the Locator Control levelE. the Item Organization level



QUESTION 230In which module is a relationship established between two parties where all corresponding accounts andtransactions associated with one party are accessible by another party?

A. PlanningB. InventoryC. PayablesD. ReceivablesE. General Ledger



QUESTION 231Which two statements are true regarding various components of the Party Model? (Choose two.)

A. A location is a binary relationship, such as a partnership, between two parties.B. A party site is defined by the characteristics or terms and conditions of that relationship.C. A party relationship links a party with a location, indicating the party's usage of the location.D. A party is an entity, such as people and organizations, who can enter into business relationships.E. A contact point implies means for contacting a party (for example, a phone number, an email address, or a

fax number).



QUESTION 232ACME has offices in various countries, and its customers and suppliers are based around the globe. Given thataddresses are formatted differently in each country, how would you set up the system to handle this situation?

A. Set up the address format as a context-sensitive key flexfield.B. Set up the address format as a free format segmented value set.C. Set up the address format as a context-sensitive descriptive flexfield.D. Set up the address format as a dependent value set with country-specific segments.



QUESTION 233Which two statements are true about Customer Profile Classes? (Choose two.)

A. Customer Profile Classes are assigned in the customer setup.B. Customer Profile Classes can be used to group customer accounts with similar credit worthiness.C. Customer Profile Classes can be assigned only at the customer level, and not at the account level.D. The only setup required to check customer credit is the selection of the Credit check box in the Customer

Profile.E. When an attribute is changed on a Profile Class template, the attribute is updated for all customers

assigned to that Profile Class.



QUESTION 234Which two pieces of customer information does Order Management use? (Choose two.)

A. SIC CodeB. IRS 1099 EligibilityC. customer classificationD. customer account informationE. customer account sites information



QUESTION 235Which two requirements must be met to create a party paying relationship? (Choose two.)

A. A common bank relationship is required for all parties.B. The relationship type must be assigned to Pay Within or Pay Below groups.C. The relationship type must be hierarchical, and the subject and object parties must be of the Organization

type.D. The relationship must be created between the two suppliers' sites to link the correct paying relationships.E. The relationship between the two parties must be such that they use the same nonreciprocal bank account.

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 236Identify three correct statements regarding the Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting. (Choose three.)

A. At Shipping or Drop Shipping, Inventory debits deferred COGS account.B. For non-invoicable lines, COGS is recognized 100% when the line is closed.C. COGS is recognized as Revenue. This process is done by Order Management.

D. Deferred Revenue and COGS accounting process does not support Service item types.E. Accounting standards dictate that Deferred Revenue and COGS be strictly recorded in the same accounting

periods.F. If a Sales Order line has a contingency attached, Revenue Recognition happens only after the contingency

is removed.

Correct Answer: ABFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 237Identify the correct three statements regarding the Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting setup. (Choosethree.)

A. COGS Recognition and Revenue Recognition are done by Costing and AR.B. No setup is required in OM for enabling Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting.C. OM requires some Key Profiles to enable Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting.D. Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting processes do not have any relevant setup in Inventory or

Costing.E. Deferred Revenue and COGS Accounting related setups need to be enabled in the Inventory Org

Parameter form - Costing tab.

Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 238Identify three correct statements regarding the revenue recognition feature. (Choose three.)

A. Back-to-back orders are contingencies that OM supports in the context of revenue recognition.B. COGS can be recorded on the invoiced line, whereas revenue can be recorded on the shipped line.C. Customer acceptance is the only contingency that OM supports in the context of revenue recognition.D. As revenue is recognized, a corresponding percentage of deferred COGS may not move to real COGS.E. Deferred revenue and COGS accounting can be very successfully used as a solution for ATO/PTO

matching problem.F. Revenue recognition depends on and interacts with inventory, costing, account receivables, OM, and

shipping execution.



QUESTION 239Customer acceptance is applicable for which four order types or models. (Choose four.)

A. kits

B. returnsC. internal ordersD. retro bill ordersE. ATO/PTO modelsF. standard orders with service itemsG. standard orders with standard items

Correct Answer: AEFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 240Identify three correct statements regarding the customer acceptance contingency. (Choose three.)

A. Acceptance contingency cannot be defined for ATO/PTO models.B. Acceptance contingency can be defined at the child level for service Items.C. Acceptance contingency can be defined at the parent level as well as the child level for kits.D. Acceptance contingency can be defined for kit at the parent level, and the child lines inherit acceptance

from the parent level.E. Acceptance contingency can be defined for service Items at the parent level, and the child lines inherit

acceptance from the parent level.F. Acceptance contingency can be defined for ATO/PTO models at the parent level, and the child lines inherit

acceptance from the parent level.



QUESTION 241Identify three correct statements regarding prebilling acceptance. (Choose three.)

A. Pending prebilling is not the correct line status for shipped goods.B. Invoicing should be used as a removal event for prebilling acceptance.C. Customer acceptance should be used as a removal event for prebilling acceptance.D. Implicit acceptance and explicit acceptance are both possible for prebilling acceptance.E. Revenue recognition happens when acceptance is completed for prebilling acceptance.F. Invoice generation and revenue recognition happen simultaneously during prebilling acceptance.



QUESTION 242Identify three correct statements regarding explicit and implicit acceptance. (Choose three.)

A. Action Attribute - Fulfillment Acceptance is necessary for implicit acceptance.B. An implicit acceptance request set has two concurrent requests: 1) Generate Pre-billing Acceptance

Program for Pre-billing, Implicit Acceptance 2) Revenue Contingency Analyzer for Post-billing, ImplicitAcceptance

C. Execution of a concurrent program is not needed to perform post billing, implicit acceptance.D. CSR can enter explicit acceptance via the order information portal or the Order Import Correction form.E. An Acceptance Comment field is available on Order Header Level (Order Information/Other tab) of the

Sales Order form.F. An implicit acceptance deferral reason must be defined in AR with an event attribute using ship confirmation

date and expiration days.



QUESTION 243Identify the correct statements regarding the enhanced online transaction security features. (Choose two.)

A. Additional setup is needed in Order Management.B. Validation for Credit Card Security Code occurs at order entry.C. Credit Card Security Code is a mandatory feature for release 12.D. A new field Credit Card Security Code is added on the Standard and Quick Sales Order form and the Order

Import correction form.E. The main idea for enhancing transaction security is a more decentralized Credit Card and Bank Account

information system.F. When the Credit Card Security Code for a particular order is entered, validated, and saved, any user with

OM superuser responsibility can view the Security Code for the Credit Card.



QUESTION 244Identify three correct statements regarding the Credit Card Encryption feature. (Choose three.)

A. Credit Card Type is displayed as Card Brand.B. The entire card information is stored at the order-line level.C. Oracle Payments is the single repository for multiple payment mode information across application

modules.D. Instrument Masking Control for Credit Card and Bank Account is set up through Order Management setup

options.E. The main idea behind the Credit Card Security Code and Credit Card Encryption is to make the Credit Card

and Bank Account information more centralized across the application and hence more secure.



QUESTION 245Select the required tax setups for enabling MOAC. (Choose two.)

A. Additional setup in OM is not needed.B. OM System Parameter Tax: Inventory Item for Freight is a required setup.C. OM System Parameter Tax: Invoice Freight as Revenue is a required setup.D. OM Profile Tax: Inventory Item for Freight is a required setup at the responsibility level.E. OM Profile Tax: Invoice Freight as Revenue is a required setup at the responsibility level.F. A new key Profile Tax: Multi Organization Access Control needs to be set up for the OM responsibility level.



QUESTION 246What is the expected behavior when the profile option OM: Apply Automatic Attachments is set to Yes at thesite level?

A. Rule-based attachments are applied without user intervention.B. All attachments are applied to the sales order header and lines.C. Rule-based attachments are not applied without user intervention.D. All automatic attachments are applied to the sales order header, but not the lines.



QUESTION 247ACME corporation sells products that are made in batches. Often, batch runs yield quantities that are less thanthe customers' ordered quantity. The customers accept shipments for quantities less than order quantities andconsider their order fulfilled when the shipment quantity is within ten percent of the order quantity. Whichconfiguration enables this business rule?

A. Set the profile option "OM: Under Return Tolerance" to 10 at the site level.B. Set the profile option "OM: Under Shipment Tolerance" to 10 at the site level.C. Set the profile option "OM: Under Shipment Tolerance" to 90 at the site level.D. Set the profile option "OM: Under Shipment Tolerance" to 110 at the site level.



QUESTION 248A key business requirement is that users should be able to create sales orders with minimum keystrokes.Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four.)

A. Defaulting RulesB. Transaction TypesC. OM: Invoice SourceD. Processing ConstraintsE. Automatic Attachment RulesF. OM: Invoice Transaction TypeG. OM: Sales Order Form PreferenceH. OM: Enable Related Items and Manual Substitutions

Correct Answer: ABEGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 249Certain ACME Corporation's customer service representatives will be authorized to establish a promise date forsales order lines different from the one provided by the system. What is a necessary setup to meet thisbusiness requirement?

A. Run ATP in the appropriate inventory organization.B. Ensure that there is always enough inventory.C. Set the INV: Capable to Promise profile option.D. Open the inventory period for the shipping organization.E. Set the OM: Authorized to Override ATP profile option to Yes at the specific user level.



QUESTION 250Select five results displayed by the system after ATP calculation on a sales order. (Choose five.)

A. WarehouseB. Available QuantityC. On-hand QuantityD. Item primary buyerE. Item primary plannerF. Quantity ReservableG. Subinventory QuantityH. Request Date QuantityI. Substitute item's available quantity

Correct Answer: ABCFHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 251Identify the two methods used in Oracle E-Business Suite to calculate ATP. (Choose two.)

A. ATP based on collected dataB. ATP based on planning outputC. ATP based on memory plannerD. ATP based on historical consumptionE. ATP based on item substitution availability



QUESTION 252Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on collected data. (Choose four.)

A. Define price lists.B. Define ATP Rules.C. Set up stock locators.D. Set up transit lead time.E. Set up pricing modifiers.F. Select the ATP item attribute.G. Set up Profile INV: Capable to Promise.H. Set up Inventory Organization Hierarchy.

Correct Answer: BDFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 253Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP based on planning output. (Choose four.)

A. Set up price lists.B. Define ATP Rules.C. Set up allocated ATP.D. Set up pricing modifiers.E. Set up product family ATP.F. Set up inventory organization hierarchy.G. Assign master scheduler responsibility.H. Select ATP and component ATP item attributes.

Correct Answer: BCEHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 254Identify the setup step that will allow the application user to access the Scheduling Find tab and the SchedulingOrganizer window, but not other tabs within the Order Organizer-that is, Order Information, Line Information,Advanced, and Holds Information.

A. Assign a restrictive shipping role to the user in question.B. Set the profile option OM: Scheduling Role to CSR only.C. Set the profile option OM: Scheduling Role to Scheduler only.D. Set the profile option OM: Scheduling Role to CSR and Scheduler.



QUESTION 255Identify three features that are provided under scheduling in Order Management. (Choose three.)

A. ReservingB. SchedulingC. Booking the OrderD. Removing Scheduling HoldsE. Performing Automatic PricingF. Calculating Available-to-Promise (ATP)

Correct Answer: ABFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 256Identify four ways in which sales order lines can be scheduled. (Choose four.)

A. ManuallyB. Using Pick ReleaseC. Using AutoscheduleD. Using Ship ConfirmE. Running data collectionF. Manually scheduling the subprocessG. Scheduling the orders concurrent program

Correct Answer: ACFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 257Select three ways to deactivate credit checking on an order. (Choose three.)

A. Disable the credit checking defaulting rule.B. Disable the credit checking flag at the operating-unit level.C. Disable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.D. Use an order type that does not have an assigned credit rule.E. Use payment terms for which the Credit check box is not selected.F. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is not selected.



QUESTION 258Select the activities where credit checking can be invoked by the system for noncredit card orders. (Choosefour.)

A. QuotingB. BookingC. ShippingD. SchedulingE. Order EntryF. ReservationG. Pick ReleaseH. Purchase Release (for drop shipments)

Correct Answer: BCGHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 259Identify two necessary conditions that allow the user to manage OM transaction types for more than oneoperating unit without changing responsibilities, or closing out of the form. (Choose two.)

A. Multi Org Access Control is enabled.B. The MO: Operating Unit profile option is set to a blank value at the site level.C. The same numbering sequence is assigned to all transaction types.D. The MO: Default Operating Unit profile option is set to a blank value at the site level.E. User is granted access to the appropriate operating units via the MO: Security Profile profile option.



QUESTION 260ACME Corporation customer service representatives will be entering sales orders for return and replacement

parts on the same sales order. How should the transaction type be configured? (Choose three.)

A. The Order category of the order header transaction type must be set to Mixed.B. The Order category of the order header transaction type must be set to Return.C. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of PTO.D. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of Order.E. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of Return.F. The Order transaction type must have a line transaction type with a category of ATO/PTO.



QUESTION 261When setting up order transaction types, which is the first setup step required?

A. Create the Order Transaction type.B. Create a document sequence for orders.C. Create the Line Transaction type for order lines.D. Create the Line Transaction type for return lines.E. Assign line flows to the Order Transaction Type.F. Assign the Order transaction type to the document sequence.



QUESTION 262Most orders for ACME Corporation are entered as quotes in Order Management. These quotes will thenbecome sales orders after they get approved. What are the three necessary setups that will support thisbusiness requirement. (Choose three.)

A. Start the Inventory Manager.B. Use the Quick Order Entry form.C. Set the Default Transaction Phase to Fulfillment.D. Associate a fulfillment flow with the order transaction type.E. Associate a negotiation flow with the order transaction type.F. Customize the fulfillment flow so that all approval notifications are sent to the customer service manager.



QUESTION 263Which three statements are true regarding the definition and use of transaction types and order flows? (Choosethree.)

A. You can have only one flow per transaction type.B. You are allowed to have both order and quote lines on the same order.C. You are allowed to have both order and return lines on the same order.D. You are allowed to have order, quote, and return line on the same order.E. Each quote is assigned a header flow only. Line flows are not assigned for quotes.F. Each line in a sales order has its own workflow, so each line may follow a different flow.



QUESTION 264The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types. Identify five valid item types. (Choose five.)

A. Ship OnlyB. Order LineC. OM StandardD. Order HeaderE. OM Price OnlyF. Return for CreditG. OM Change OrderH. OM Blanket Header

Correct Answer: BCDGHSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 265When setting up transaction types for quotes and orders, _____.

A. use the transaction type window to select the flow to useB. use the approval hierarchy from Purchasing to decide approval routingC. create a quote or an order, and then link to the appropriate negotiations flowD. book the order and select the negotiations flow that would be used by an order



QUESTION 266When adding a new recipient to the Approvals list for the seeded Negotiation Flow with Approvals, which twostatements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Open the seeded workflow and add the new name there.

B. Modify the seeded approval list to create a new workflow.C. The seeded workflow list of approvers cannot be modifiee.D. Select Setup > Transaction Types > Approvals and add the recipient to the list of Approvers for the

appropriate list name.E. Select Setup > Transaction Types, query the appropriate transaction type, and then click the Approvals

button. Finally, the user should add the recipient to the list of Approvers for the appropriate list name.



QUESTION 267When entering sales orders for Big City Electronics, the customer service representative wants the system toalways prepopulate the Chicago warehouse as the ship from the warehouse on the sales order header andlines. Big City Electronics always gets its products shipped from this warehouse. No other customers areallowed to get their products from the Chicago warehouse. Which two configuration steps can be performed tomeet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Start the Workflow Background engine.B. Set the defaulting profile option at the site level.C. Set up a defaulting rule so that the Chicago warehouse is defaulted to all order headers and lines

regardless of the customer.D. Set up a defaulting rule so that the customer's preferred warehouse as specified on the customer record is

defaulted to the sales order header.E. Set up a defaulting rule so that every time an order is entered for Big City Electronics, the Chicago

warehouse will be defaulted to the order header.F. Set up a defaulting rule so that every time an order line is entered for Big City Electronics, the Chicago

warehouse will be defaulted to the order line from the order header.

Correct Answer: EFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 268Select three correct statements that describe the process of updating defaulting rules in Order Management.(Choose three.)

A. Enable Profile: Global Defaulting Rule Update.B. Seeded defaulting rules can be disabled, but not modified.C. Seeded defaulting rules can be modified when they have not been applied to sales orders.D. To modify a seeded defaulting rule, you first need to cancel all lines where it has been applied.E. If you want to modify a seeded defaulting rule, disable the seeded defaulting rule condition, and then create

a copy of the seeded defaulting rule and include your changes in the copied defaulting rule.F. Updates to defaulting rules take effect when the Defaulting Generator concurrent program has been

submitted for the application and the program successfully completes for the entity combination modified.



QUESTION 269By using order line level defaulting rules, you can _____.

A. override the existing values on existing order linesB. restrict what users can enter on the order line fieldsC. default values only when a new line record is addedD. default any field on the order header main tabbed page



QUESTION 270Some customers of Sterlite Inc. have special order processing requirements. A bill to location or a ship tolocation of these customers may also need to have its own special order type. However, in general, users invarious departments need to always enter orders of a particular type: 1) Domestic personnel need to enterorders of Order Type Domestic 2) Export Department personnel need to enter orders of Order TypeInternational A new custom profile is created to the default order type for different responsibilities or users. Thespecial order types can be defined in customer, ship to, or bill to records as required. A user has created a newsales order. Where would the order type default from?

A. Related Record Ship-to: Order typeB. Related Record Invoice to: Order typeC. Related Record Customer: Order typeD. Application Profile XXOM : xxxxxxx (New profile option)



QUESTION 271ACME wants to update some order line attributes depending on the values of some order header attributesbased on certain order line-level conditions (for example, items). The order has four lines, two of which satisfythe above criteria. Which two features of OM meet the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Cascading AttributesB. Mass Change Multi-SelectC. Standard line-level workflowD. Standard update attribute APIE. Standard header-level workflow



QUESTION 272Identify three correct statements about Cascading Attributes. (Choose three.)

A. Enable Quick Code OM_Header_to_Line_Cascade.B. Enable the Key Profile option OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade Header Changes to Line.C. The Cascading Attributes feature is applicable for User Interface, but not for any API (Process Order).D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint still allows updates to other lines.E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the Profile OM: Sales Order Form: Cascade header

changes to line.

Correct Answer: ABCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 273Both Basic Pricing and Advanced Pricing can use modifiers. Identify three modifier types that can be used withBasic Pricing. (Choose three.)

A. CouponsB. DiscountsC. PromotionsD. SurchargesE. Substitution ItemF. Freight and Special Charges



QUESTION 274Which application is used to set the profile options in Basic Pricing?

A. InventoryB. Advanced PricingC. Order ManagementD. Shipping ExecutionE. System Administration



QUESTION 275Select the three permissions for setting Basic Pricing profile options. (Choose three.)

A. ViewB. DeleteC. AdministerD. Read OnlyE. No AccessF. View and Update



QUESTION 276Which four seeded freight charges are included in Oracle Pricing? (Choose four.)

A. DutyB. LaborC. ExportD. TruckingE. ServicesF. InsuranceG. MiscellaneousH. Special Handling

Correct Answer: ACFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 277ACME sells the Super Fast Router Z100 product in the Networking Gear product group at a list price of$100.00. They also sell the Power Cord 300 product at a list price of $50.00 in the Accessories product group.Products in the Networking Gear group sell for a 5% discount and the products in the Accessories group sell fora 10% discount. ACME offers a VIP discount of 4% to all customers in the National OEM class on all orders.Customers who are not in the National OEM class are not eligible for any discounts. Which options successfullymeet some of the above requirements. (Choose three.)

A. Create a Modifier List of the Surcharge type.B. Create a Modifier List of the Discount List type.C. Create an order-level modifier discount of 3% and qualify it to the National OEM class.D. Create a group of lines-level modifier discount of 3% and qualify it to the National OEM class.E. Assign an incompatibility group called Other Customers already created to 3% order-level modifier discount.F. Assign an incompatibility group called Other Customers already created to 3% group of lines-level modifier

discount.G. Create a line-level modifier with the percent application method with a value of 5 and qualify it with the

Accessories product group.

Correct Answer: BCGSection: (none)

Explanation


QUESTION 278ACME manufactures and sells industrial products to original equipment manufacturers, after market distributorsand direct consumers. Each customer class has its own price lists, which are OEM PL, AM PL, and DC PLrespectively. They have added one of their popular products, Drive Train DCX500, to each price list as below:Price List List Price Precedence ------------ ------------ --------------- OEM PL $150.00 220 AM PL $130.00 220 DCPL $170.00 220 They have configured the system such that the customer service representative at his/herdiscretion, depending on the customer, selects the price list for the order. A customer service representative isentering an order for an OEM customer to ship 10 items of Drive Train DCX500. The customer servicerepresentative forgets to select the price list when capturing this order for the above product. What will be thetotal price of the order if the customer is ordering only 10 items of the Drive Train DCX100 product?

A. $1700.00B. $1300.00C. $1500.00D. System throws an error message: Price list is mandatory.E. System throws an error message: More than one price returned for this item.



QUESTION 279Your client sells very high-value and low-volume exotic diamonds. They want to configure the system to meetthe following requirements: The system should recommend pricing of products based on certain predefinedrules. The system should allow the order capture person to modify existing discounts and apply additionalpredefined manual discounts or surcharges if necessary. Which four setups meet the requirements? (Choosefour.)

A. Add a secondary price list.B. The Override check box must be selected when defining manual modifiers.C. For all manual modifiers, the Automatic check box must not be cleared.D. For all automatic modifiers, the Automatic check box must not be cleared.E. The Override check box must be selected when defining automatic modifiers.F. Profile Option QP: Return Manual Discounts must be set to Y so that all manual discounts are returned and

all automatic discounts that are not considered are returned as manual discounts.



QUESTION 280ACME's standard freight charge is a ten-percent markup of actual handling costs. To ensure the correctcalculation of freight charges, which formula, qualifier context, and qualifier attribute will you use? (Choose two.)

A. Create a formula to calculate the markup Freight Handling charge as (0.1 times the Handling Cost).

B. Create a formula to calculate the markup Freight Handling charge as (1.1 times the Handling Cost).C. Use a Qualifier Context of Terms and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Terms with a line-level modifier line.D. Use a Qualifier Context of Terms and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Terms with an order-level modifier line.E. Use a Qualifier Context of Order and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Type Code with a line-level modifier line.F. Use a Qualifier Context of Order and a Qualifier Attribute of Freight Type Code with an order-level modifier

line.



QUESTION 281You created a modifier list for one of the pricing scenarios at ACME. You added modifier lines to the modifierlist. The modifier list has not yet been used on any order and you recognize that one of the modifier lines is notneeded. What will you do?

A. Create an end date for the modifier line that you do not want to use.B. Deselect the Active check box on the modifier list.C. Delete the modifier list and create a new modifier list.D. Delete the modifier line that you think is no longer needed.E. Deselect the Active check box on the modifier line that you do not want to use.



QUESTION 282Identify three true statements regarding Freight and Special Charges. (Choose three.)

A. Accrual is a valid application method for the modifier type of Freight/Special Charge.B. Basic Pricing provides a seeded Freight and Special Charge type of the modifier list.C. You can define your own implementation-specific Freight and Special Charge type of the modifier list.D. You can use the Range price breaks in creating modifiers for Freight and Special Charges if you are using

only Basic Pricing.E. You can define your own implementation-specific Freight Cost Type or Freight Charge Type codes for use

in modifiers for calculating Freight and Special Charges.F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing

engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.



QUESTION 283All of ACME's orders have a predefined freight charge for each line item. The company wants to apply thefreight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order amount. Apply _____.

A. freight charges at Ship ConfirmB. the manual Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order lineC. the automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order lineD. the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at the time of the sales order



QUESTION 284ACME wants to prepare a checklist of requirements that must be met to ship a sales order. Which option listsall the requirements to ship a sales order?

A. The Item attribute is shippable and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.B. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Picked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.C. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Booked, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.D. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Entered, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.E. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Shipped, and Shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.F. The Item attribute is shippable, the Line status is Awaiting Shipping, and Shipping is an activity in the lines

workflow.



QUESTION 285After a sales order is booked, the sales order lines must complete all workflow activities leading to the shippingactivity. Which two workflow activities are part of this process? (Choose two.)

A. Create TripB. Pick ReleaseC. Create SupplyD. Schedule LineE. Create Delivery



QUESTION 286At which stage in the Shipping Execution process is a high-level reservation transferred to an allocatedreservation?

A. InterfacedB. Pick Release

C. Pick ConfirmD. Ship ConfirmE. Sales Order Booking



QUESTION 287Identify three areas where a Ship Confirm rule can be used to direct shipping transactions. (Choose three.)

A. Quick ShipB. Auto InvoiceC. Pick ReleaseD. Quick ReleaseE. Move Order AllocationF. Auto pack deliveries SRSG. Ship Confirm Deliveries SRS



QUESTION 288Which statements are true about an LPN? (Choose four.)

A. An LPN is a logical plate number.B. LPNs require a unique category set.C. An LPN is also known as a container.D. LPNs can be set as an inventory item.E. LPN can be used in non-WMS organization.F. An LPN can be loaded inside another container.G. LPNs can be made mandatory using the Shipping parameter.

Correct Answer: CEFGSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 289Which three are results of the Ship Confirm process when the Defer Interface flag is set to No? (Choose three.)

A. The sales order is closed.B. The inventory is decremented.C. The sales order line is updated.D. The sales order is pick released.

E. The material is transferred from the staging inventory.F. High-level reservations are converted to allocated reservations.



QUESTION 290Which statement is true about delivery lines?

A. Delivery lines cannot be split in shipping transactions.B. Delivery lines cannot be shipped on the same delivery if they are from different orders.C. Delivery lines must be booked and scheduled in Order Management in order to appear in shipping

transactions.D. Delivery lines that have been assigned to a delivery must be back-ordered in order to assign a different

delivery number.



QUESTION 291Using mobile supply chain application (MSCA) devices, what combination provides the user the highest level ofcontrol when defining Pick Release rules?

A. Set Auto Allocate to No, and set Auto Pick Confirm to No.B. Set Auto Allocate to Yes, and set Auto Pick Confirm to No.C. Set Auto Allocate to No, and set Auto Pick Confirm to Yes.D. Set Auto Allocate to Yes, and set Auto Pick Confirm to Yes.



QUESTION 292Freight Costs can be assigned to a Delivery using which forms? (Choose two.)

A. Quick ShipB. Pick ReleaseC. Sales OrdersD. Shipping ExceptionsE. Shipping Transactions



QUESTION 293Select the two principal elements of the Pack functionality in Shipping Execution. (Choose two.)

A. TripB. DeliveryC. Trip StopD. Delivery LineE. License Plate Number



QUESTION 294You are the warehouse manager for a distributor of electronics equipment. A customer service representativewants you to expedite the shipping of order number 16428 for one of your very important customers. You go toOracle Shipping execution to view the order status in the Shipping Transactions form. The products requestedon this order do not need any packing. View the Exhibit and choose the appropriate action.

A. Go to Actions > Auto-Pack.B. Go to Actions > Autocreate Trip.C. Go to Actions > Assign To Deliveries.D. Go to Actions > Launch Pick Release.E. Go to Actions > Unassign From Deliveries.



QUESTION 295You have been told that new receipts of items have just been entered and you now have new on-handquantities for items. You are trying to release the remaining lines on an order where some lines are in theBackordered, Awaiting Shipping, Entered, and Closed status. You are using the Release Sales Orders onlineform to accomplish this task. However, you cannot find your order 1000005. Which value in the exhibit will youchange to successfully release this specific order only to your warehouse?

A. Select the Prior Reservation Only check box.B. Specify the order type in the Order Type field.C. Change the date value in the Schedule Date field.D. Change the drop-down value of the Orders field to All.E. Change the drop-down value of the Orders field to Backordered.



QUESTION 296ABC Company has a customer with multiple sites that use the same material, which is made to order. A groundshipment is planned to site A for three skids of this material. There is one trip and delivery number for thisshipment of three skids that is ready to be Ship Confirmed. The customer has requested last-minute changesto the shipment: 1. One skid to be shipped via air to site B to cover an unexpected shortage 2. One skid to beshipped via air to site C to cover an unexpected shortage 3. One skid to be shipped to its original destination ofsite A via ground transport Which solution is the most efficient for solving the customer's needs?

A. Cancel the order line, reenter new lines, and ship the lines.B. Ship Confirm the order for site A and perform an RMA transaction to bring back the two skids that need to

be redirected to site B and site CC. Navigate to the Shipping Parameters window and change the delivery grouping attributes. Deselect the Ship

From location to allow this one delivery to ship to multiple sites.D. Add two trip stops to the existing delivery for site A: one for the air shipment to site B and one for the air

shipment to site C . Unassign the material from site A that will need to be shipped to site B and site C, andreassign as appropriate.



QUESTION 297Some ACME shipments are restricted to Friday to optimize freight. Within the freight optimization process,shipping must prioritize customers' deliveries. Which is the best approach?

A. Use the manual trip creations and have the shipping department determine the sequence of deliveries onthe trip itself.

B. Use the Auto Create Trip functionality, and ship each delivery using the Ship Confirm process . Have theshipping department arrange the paperwork in the order in which they would like each stop to be made.

C. Use the packing workbench to assign material to the correct container for shipment. Pack the material in theorder in which it should be delivered.

D. Use the container-item relationships by creating a container for the refrigerated truck and assign thoseitems to the container that require refrigerated transport in the order in which they should be delivered.



QUESTION 298What is true about the Ship from Stock fulfillment model?

A. Every order must be reserved.B. Every order can be Pick Released immediately after booking.C. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity.D. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order.



QUESTION 299Which three activities are part of the shipping process in the Order to Cash cycle? (Choose three.)

A. scheduling the order lineB. splitting sales order linesC. allocating delivery to tripsD. decrementing inventory after Ship Confirm has happenedE. moving materials from the factory to the stocking warehouseF. creating move orders to transfer the items to the shipping sub inventory

Correct Answer: CDFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 300Identify three features that are available in shipping execution when Oracle Transportation Management isinstalled. (Choose three.)

A. Load TenderingB. Vehicle DispatchingC. Freight ConsolidationD. Inbound Carrier SelectionE. Freight Payment and AuditF. GPS-enabled truck routing



QUESTION 301Identify two features that are available in shipping execution when Warehouse Management is installed.(Choose two.)

A. Bar CodeB. Plan TasksC. Pick MethodologiesD. Automatic Credit HoldsE. RFID (Radio-frequency identification)



QUESTION 302What happens if the user tries to increase the quantity on a Sales Order Line that is linked to a Ship ConfirmedDelivery?

A. The Sales Order Line will be placed on hold.B. The system will automatically create a new Delivery line for the additional quantity.C. The status of the corresponding Delivery lines will change to Open and the user will have to Ship Confirm

the Delivery again.D. Changes to Shipped Confirmed or Closed Delivery lines are not allowed. Instead a Sales Order Line

quantity increase creates a new Delivery line.




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